Anatomic Sciences 2

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Titi
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261932
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Anatomic Sciences 2
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2014-03-07 09:16:40
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Anatomic sciences march 1981
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1981
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NBDE I anatomic sciences 1981
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  1. Which of the following group of cells in the adrenal gland secretes epinephrine?
    1. Medullary cells
    2. Zona fasciculata cells
    3. Zona glomerulosa cells
    4. Zona reticularis cells
    1. Medullary cells
  2. Which of the following empty into the right atrium?
    1. Pulmonary and Bronchial veins
    2. Superior vena cavae, coronary sinus and hemiazygos vein
    3. Superior and inferior vena cavae and coronary sinus
    4. Coronary sinus and pulmonary veins
    3. Superior and inferior vena cavae and coronary sinus
  3. Surgical excision of the parotid gland endangers which of the following structures in addition a to the facial nerve?
    1. Hypoglossal nerve
    2. Motor nerves to the muscles of mastication 
    3. External carotid artery and auriculotemporal nerve
    4. Lesser occipital nerve and spinal accessory nerve
    3. External carotid artery and auriculotemporal nerve
  4. Which of the following connective tissue cells is most concerned with defense against bacterial invasion?
    1. Basophil
    2. Eosinophil
    3. Mast cell
    4. Macrophage
    5. Erythrocyte
    4. Macrophage
  5. Which of the following elements are present during development and growth of the alveolar process?
    1. Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteoid
    2. perichondrium, osteoblasts, Periosteal bud
    3. osteoblasts, osteoid, megakaryocytes
    4. Periosteum, epiphyseal ossification centers, osteoblasts
    1. Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteoid
  6. Which of the following are particularly well developed in cells synthesizing proteins for secretion?
    1. Lysosomes
    2. Mitochondria
    3. Liposuction granules
    4. Rough endoplasmic reticula
    5. All of the above
    4. Rough endoplasmic reticula
  7. A needle for an inferior alveolar nerve injection mistakenly passes posteriorly at the level of the mandibular foramen.m which of the following structures is it likely to contact?
    1. Parotid gland
    2. Lingual nerve 
    3. Internal carotid artery
    4. Pterygomandibular raphe
    5. Tendon of the temporalis muscle
    1. Parotid gland
  8. Which of the following correctly describes the activity of tooth-forming cells during the last part of active eruption?
    1. Ameloblasts are functioning actively
    2. Odontoblasts are functioning actively 
    3. The secondary enamel cuticle is being formed
    4. Cementoblasts have completed their work and are no longer functional
    2. Odontoblasts are functioning actively
  9. Motor fibers from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve are distributed to which of the following muscles?
    1. Stylopharingeus muscle only
    2. Intrinsic muscles of the tongue
    3. Muscles of mastication and anterior belly of digastric only
    4. Muscle of facial expression and posterior belly of digastric
    5. Muscles of mastication, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, tensor of veli palatini andmylohyoid
    5. Muscles of mastication, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, tensor of veli palatini andmylohyoid
  10. Which of the following areas of the cerebral cortex is concerned with the recognition of painful stimuli from the teeth?
    1. Prefectural gyrus
    2. Superior temporal gyrus
    3. Postcentral gyrus
    4. Cortex along the lips of the cal carbine fissure
    3. Postcentral gyrus
  11. Which of the following occurs during the early stage of the eruption of a tooth?
    1. Maturation of enamel 
    2. Formation of the dental sac
    3. Formation of the Stellate reticulum
    4. Differentiation of the stratum intermedium
    1. Maturation of enamel
  12. Which of the following is correct concerning the structure of the palatal submucosa.
    1. A network of vascular spaces acts asa hydrostatic cushion
    2. The entire sub mucosa consists of loose connective tissue containing compressible ground substance
    3. the anterior zone contains spaces filled with fat while the posterior zone contains nests of mucous glands
    4. The anterior zone consists of a dense collagenous network while the posterior zone contains compressible vascular spaces
    3. the anterior zone contains spaces filled with fat while the posterior zone contains nests of mucous glands
  13. Which of the following cartilages will be cut twice in a Sagital section through the neck?
    1. Crycoid
    2. Thyroid
    3. Arytenoid
    4. Epiglottis
    5. Second tracheal cartilage
    1. Crycoid
  14. Which of the following contains the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract?
    1. Pars nervosa
    2. Pars intermedia
    3. Infundibular stalk
    4. pars distalis of the hypophysis
    5 none of the above
    4. pars distalis of the hypophysis
  15. The adult parotid gland can be distinguished by which of the following features?
    a) mucous acini only
    b) relatively long secretory ducts
    c) mucous acini with serous demilunes
    d) serous acini only
    e) long intercalated ducts
    • b) relatively long secretory ducts
    • d) serous acini only
    • e) long intercalated ducts
  16. Which of the following are attached to the cell membrane?
    a) Cell coat
    b) Microfilaments
    c) Reticular fibers
    d) Golgi complex
    e) Sharpey's fibers
    • a) Cell coat
    • b) Microfilaments
  17. Which of the following structures may be found in the infra temporal fossa?
    a) sphenomandibular ligament
    b) medial pterygoid muscle
    c) middle meaningealeningeal artery
    d) ophthalmic nerve
    e) internal jugular vein
    • a) sphenomandibular ligament
    • b)medial pterygoid muscle
    • c)middle meaningealeningeal artery
  18. The greater petrosal nerve contains which of the following components?
    a) Sympathetic fibers
    b) general visceral afferent
    c) general somatic efferent fibers
    d) parasympathetic fibers
    e) special visceral efferent fibers
    • b) general visceral afferent
    • d) parasympathetic fibers
  19. The noncellular components in osseous tissue include
    a) lacunae
    b) canaliculi
    c) osteocytes
    d) osteoblasts
    e) matrix substance
    f) hematopoietic elements
    • a) lacunae
    • b) canaliculi
    • e) matrix substance
  20. Mineral poor ectoderemal structures in enamel include
    a) tufts 
    b) lamellae
    c) spindles
    d) odontoblastic processes
    • a) tufts 
    • b) lamellae
  21. The submental lymph nodes receive drainage from the
    a) Upper lip
    b) Tip of the tongue
    c) mandibular incisors
    d) anterior floor of the mouth
    e) middle portion of the lower lip
    f) lateral portion of the lower lip
    • b) Tip of the tongue
    • c) mandibular incisors
    • d) anterior floor of the mouth
    • e) middle portion of the lower lip
  22. The cell component that is genetically continuous from one cell generation to the next is 
    1. Nuclear membrane
    2. Golgi complex
    3. Central bodies
    4. Chromatin
    4. Chromatin
  23. The combined layers of stomodeum ectoderm and foregut endoderm comprise the
    1. Buccopahryngeal membrane
    2. First pharyngeal arch
    3. Mandibular process
    4. Primitive palate
    1. Buccopahryngeal membrane
  24. DNA is found principally in
    1. A nucleolus
    2. The nucleus
    3. The cytoplasm
    4. The mitochondria
    5. The cell membrane
    2. The nucleus
  25. The normal gingival sulcus is bounded by the 
    1. Tooth surface and epithelial covering of attached gingiva
    2. Tooth surface and epithelial covering of free gingiva
    3. Epithelial covering of free and attached gingiva
    4. Free gingival groove and mucho gingival junction
    5. Tooth surface and gingival lamina propria
    2. Tooth surface and epithelial covering of free gingiva
  26. The pillars of the fauces are formed by mucosa and the underlying
    1. Palatoglossus and styloglossus muscles
    2. Palatoglossus and stylopharyngeous muscles
    3. Palatoglossus and palatopharyngeal muscles
    4. None of the above
    3. Palatoglossus and palatopharyngeal muscles
  27. The diploid number of chromosomes is perpetuated in somatic cells by a process of
    1. Meiosis
    2. Mitosis
    3. Amitosis
    4. Cytokinesis
    2. Mitosis
  28. The space between the jaws into which the teeth erupt is provided by growth at the
    1. alveolar processes
    2. Mandibular condyles
    3. Intermaxillary suture and the mental symphysis 
    4. Sphenomaxillary, the frntomaxillary and the zygomaticomaxillary sutures
    2. Mandibular condyles
  29. The function of the posterior lobe of the hypophysis involves the storage and release of
    1. Thyrotropic hormone and gonadotropin hormone
    2. Thyrotropic hormone and vasopressin (ADH)
    3. Oxytocin and gonadotropic hormone
    4. Vasopressin (ADH) and oxytocin
    4. Vasopressin (ADH) and oxytocin
  30. The cribiform plate (alveolar bone proper) reveal minute openings which represents
    1. Areas of osteoclastic activity
    2. Regions of hematopoietic activity
    3. Resorption sites of the spongiosa
    4. Attachment sites of sharpey's fibers
    5. Region for passage of vascular and nerve elements
    5. Region for passage of vascular and nerve elements
  31. The parotid duct pierces the buccinator muscle opposite the 
    1. Mandibular first premolar
    2. Maxillary first premolar
    3. Maxillary first molar
    4. Maxillary second molar
    5. Maxillary third molar
    4. Maxillary second molar
  32. Intramembranous bone formation involves
    1. Mitosis of osteocytes
    2. Hypertrophy of osteocytes
    3. Transformation of osteoclasts to chondrocytes
    4. Transformation of osteocytes to chodrocytes
    5. Transformation of osteoblasts to osteocytes
    5. Transformation of osteoblasts to osteocytes
  33. A major sensory innervation of the temporomandibular joint is derived from the
    1. Great auricular nerve
    2. Auriculotemporal nerve
    3. Inferior alveolar nerve
    4. Temporal branches of the facial nerve
    2. Auriculotemporal nerve
  34. The foramen rotundum transmits the
    1. Maxillary artery
    2. lacrimal artery
    3. Zygomatic nerve
    4. Maxillary nerve
    4. Maxillary nerve
  35. Lymph from most of the dental and periodontal tissues drains initially into the 
    1. parotid nodes
    2. Submental nodes
    3. Submandibular nodes
    4. Anterior auricular nodes
    5. Superficial cervical nodes
    3. Submandibular nodes
  36. Smooth muscles fibers differ from striated muscle fibers in that the smooth muscle fibers are
    1. Longer
    2. Demonstrably single nucleated
    3. Incapable of hypertropic changes
    4. Multinucleated and of indefinite length
    2. Demonstrably single nucleated
  37. The intercalated disks, if present, constitute one of the distinguishing characteristics of 
    1. Metaphysis of developing bones
    2. Resting lines of certain bones
    3. Cartilage of the intervertebral disks
    4. The nodes of Ranvier of myelinated nerve fibers
    5. The muscle fibers of the myocardium
    5. The muscle fibers of the myocardium
  38. The temporalis muscle originates along the side of the skull and passes
    1. Medial to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the coronoid process of the mandible
    2.  Lateral to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the  coronoid process of the mandible
    3. Medial to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the medial side of the angle of the ramus
    4. Lateral to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the medial side of the angle of the famous
    1. Medial to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the coronoid process of the mandible
  39. In the spinal cord, white matter consists mainly of
    1. Perineurium
    2. Myelinated axons
    3. Nerve cell bodies
    4. Loose connective tissue
    2. Myelinated axons
  40. After the tooth is formed, the dental papilla remains as the
    1. Dentin
    2. Dental sac
    3. Dental pulp
    4. Dental follicle
    3. Dental pulp
  41. The esophageal branches of the right vagus nerve in the lower thorax are found mainly on the
    1. Left wall of the esophagus
    2. Right wall of the esophagus 
    3. Posterior wall of the esophagus 
    5. None of The above
    3. Posterior wall of the esophagus
  42. The motor division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the skull thought the 
    1. Foramen ovale
    2. Foramen rotundum
    3. Inferior orbital fissure
    4. Superior orbital fissure
    1. Foramen ovale
  43. The common bile duct, the hepatic artery and the portal vein are found grouped in the 
    1. Mesocolon
    2. Lesser omentum
    3. Greater omentum
    4. Gastrosplenic ligament
    2. Lesser omentum
  44. The trachea bifurcated into right and left primary bronchi at the level of the
    1. Sternal angle or just below
    2. Seventh cervical vertebra
    3. Suprasternal notch
    4. Xiphoid process
    5. First rib
    1. Sternal angle or just below
  45. The lingual ligament runs between the
    1. Pubic tubercle and the iliac tubercle
    2. Symphysis pubis and the inferior iliac spine
    3. Anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle
    4. Anterior and posterior superior iliac spines
    3. Anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle
  46. The Ligamentum arteriosum is
    1. A ligament connecting the liver to the anterior abdominal wall
    2. The remnant of a fetal channel connecting the right atrium to the left atrium
    3. A fibrous remnant of a fetal channel connecting the left pulmonary artery to the artery
    4. None of the above
    3. A fibrous remnant of a fetal channel connecting the left pulmonary artery to the artery
  47. The thinnest epithelium of the oral cavity is found on the
    1. Soft palate
    2. Buccal gingiva
    3. Lingual gingiva
    4. Sublingual mucosa
    5. Oral surface of lip
    4. Sublingual mucosa
  48. In the human kidney, a renal papilla projects directly into the
    1. Ureter
    2. Minor calyx
    3. Major calyx
    4. Renal pyramid
    2. Minor calyx
  49. In a double vertical fracture through the mental foramina, muscle action will cause the small fragment to move
    1. Inferiority only
    2. Superiorly only
    3. Anteriorly and superiorly
    4. Posteriorly and inferiorly
    5. Posteriorly and superiorly
    4. Posteriorly and inferiorly
  50. Ependymal cells constitute the tissue that 
    1. Lines the ventricles of the brain
    2. Lines the ventricles of the heart
    3. Forms a part of the peripheral neuroglia
    4. Covers the nerve cell body in the ganglion
    1. Lines the ventricles of the brain
  51. The apical foramen of a fully developed permanent tooth is usually lined by
    1. dentin
    2. Cementum
    3. Epithelial rest cells
    4. the epithelial diaphragm
    2. Cementum
  52. The portion of the hard palate located directly posterior to the maxillary central incisors is derived from the
    1. First branchial arch
    2. Second branchial arch
    3. Median nasal process
    4. Lateral nasal process
    5. Palatal processes if the maxillary processes
    3. Median nasal process
  53. The epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) is the apical continuation of
    1. The inner enamel epithelium only
    2. The outer enamel epithelium only
    3. The inner and outer enamel epithelium
    4. The Stellate reticulum and stratum intermedium 
    5. All four layers
    3. The inner and outer enamel epithelium
  54. Retraction of the mandible is achieved by 
    1. Posterior fibers of the temporalis muscle
    2. Medial and lateral pterygoid muscles
    3. Lateral pterygoid and deep portion of masseter muscles
    4. Lateral pterygoid, geniohyoid and di gastric muscles
    1. Posterior fibers of the temporalis muscle
  55. The histologic feature that most readily distinguishes the aorta is the presence of
    1. A clearly visible external elastic membrane
    2. Distinct vasa vasourum in the tunica media
    3. A relatively wide and distinct tunica adventitia
    4. A tunica media composed primarily of elastic membranes
    4. A tunica media composed primarily of elastic membranes
  56. The difference between capillaries and sinusoids is that capillaries 
    1. Contain blood whereas sinusoids contain plasma
    2. Have a constant lumen and a complete endothelial lining whereas sinusoids are irregular, tortuous tubes
    3. Have a muscular wall that can contract and shut off the circulation whereas sinusoids do not
    4. Are restricted to muscular tissue only whereas sinusoids are widely distributed in every organ
    2. Have a constant lumen and a complete endothelial lining whereas sinusoids are irregular, tortuous tubes
  57. The cross striations characteristic of enamel rods represent
    1. Hunter-Schreger bands
    2. The junction all complex of ameloblasts
    3. The area where enamel rods branch
    4. Incremental growth pattern
    4. Incremental growth pattern
  58. Pain in the temporomandibular joint is transmitted by the
    1. Auriculotemporal nerve in the articular surfaces of the mandible and temporal bones
    2. Auriculotemporal nerve in the capsule and periphery of the disk
    3. Maxillary branch of the trigeminal in the retrodiscal pad and capsule
    4. Maxillary branch of the trigeminal in the meniscus and the retro distal pad
    2. Auriculotemporal nerve in the capsule and periphery of the disk
  59. Prickle cells are found in
    1. Skin dermis
    2. sweat glands
    3. Peripheral nerve tissue
    4. Stratified squamous epithelium
    4. Stratified squamous epithelium
  60. In the fetal heart, the foramen ovale connects the
    1. Pulmonary artery and the aorta
    2. Right and left atria, permitting the flow of blood from right to left
    3. Right and left atria, permitting the flow of blood from left to right
    4. Right and the left ventricles, permitting the flow of blood from right to left
    5. Right and left ventricles, permitting the flow of blood from left to right
    2. Right and left atria, permitting the flow of blood from right to left
  61. The structure first formed by the tooth bud that remains in evidence in the formed tooth is the
    1 primary cuticle
    2. Secondary cuticle
    3. Inner enamel epithelium
    4. Cementoenamel Junction
    5. Dentinoenamel junction
    5. Dentinoenamel junction
  62. Spleen, thymus and lymph nodes are similar in that they all
    1. Filter blood
    2. contain lymphocytes
    3. Have a medulla and cortex
    4. Serve as filters for tissue fluid
    5 have afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels
    2. contain lymphocytes
  63. An endocrine gland of ectodermal origin in the abdomen is the
    1. Liver
    2. Corpus luteum
    3. Medulla of the adrenal
    4. Cortical portion of the adrenal
    5. Interstitial cells of the testis
    3. Medulla of the adrenal
  64. The lingual artery passes
    1. Deep to the hyoglossus muscle
    2. Superficial to the mylohyoid muscle
    3. superficial to the digastric muscle
    4. Between digastric and mylohyoid muscles
    1. Deep to the hyoglossus muscle
  65. The superior orbital fissure is located between the 
    1. Greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid
    2. Greater wing of the sphenoid and the maxilla
    3. Lesser wing of the sphenoid and the palatine bone
    4. Greater wing of the sphenoid and the pterygoid process of the sphenoid
    5. Pterygoid process of the sphenoid and the maxilla
    1. Greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid
  66. Irritability is defined as the
    1. Ability of a cell to contract when stimulated
    2. Property of protoplasm which enables a cell to move away from a painful stimulus
    3. Property of a stimulated nerve cell exhibiting electrical activity
    4. Property of protoplasm responsible for a cell's being sensitive to a stimulus
    4. Property of protoplasm responsible for a cell's being sensitive to a stimulus
  67. Serum is blood plasma without
    1. Fibrinogen
    2. Blood cells
    3. Lymphocytes
    4. Plasma colloids
    5. Plasma crystalloids
    1. Fibrinogen
  68. The lining of the terminal bronchiole consists of
    1. Mesothelium
    2. Endothelium
    3. Low columnar epithelium
    4. Ciliated squamous epithelium
    5. Stratified squamous epithelium
    3. Low columnar epithelium
  69. The hypophysis has direct hormonal control over the
    1. Spleen
    2. pineal gland
    3. Mammary glands
    4. Corpus albicans
    5. Pancreatic acini
    3. Mammary glands
  70. Histologically, dentin of the root is distinguished readily from crown dentin by the presence of
    1. Odontoblast
    2. Mantle dentin
    3. Reparative dentin
    4. Contour lines (Owen) 
    5. granular layer (Tomes)
    5. granular layer (Tomes)
  71. Two muscles that prevent food from entering the nasopharynx are the
    1. Styloglossus and the palatoglossus
    2. Tensor tympani and the stylopharyngeus
    3. Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli
    4. Muculus uvulae and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor
    3. Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli
  72. Development of the body of the mandible involves
    1. Reichert's cartilage
    2. A complete cartilage model
    3. Intramembranous bone development
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
    3. Intramembranous bone development
  73. Cleft lip results from the failure of merging of
    1. Maxillary with mandibular processes
    2. Maxillary processes with each other
    3. Maxillary and medial nasal processes
    4. Medial and lateral nasal processes
    5. Palatine processes with nasal septum
    3. Maxillary and medial nasal processes
  74. The articular disk if the temporomandibular joint consist of
    1. An outer fibrous layer and an inner synovial layer
    2. Aerolar tissue covered by dense fibrous connective tissue
    3. An outer layer of mesothelium and an inner layer of calcified cartilage
    4. Dense fibrous connective tissue which may be associated with chondrocytes
    4. Dense fibrous connective tissue which may be associated with chondrocytes
  75. Production of bile takes place in
    1. The hepatic duct
    2. The gallbladder 
    3. Von kupffer's cell
    4. The common bile duct
    5. None of the above
    5. None of the above
  76. Electron microscopy has revealed that each icily is girdled by the cell membrane and that consists of filaments. The typical arrangement of these structures is
    1. Nine double circumferential and two single centrally located microtubules
    2. Nine single circumferential and two double centrally located microtubules
    3. Nine single circumferential and two single centrally located microtubules
    4. Nine double circumferential and two double centrally located microtubules
    1. Nine double circumferential and two single centrally located microtubules
  77. Sensory loss in the skin overlying the parotid gland could be caused by damage to the
    1. Great auricular nerve 
    2. Great occipital nerve
    3. Zygomaticotemporal nerve
    4. Transverse cervical nerve
    1. Great auricular nerve
  78. The connective tissue sheath that surrounds the muscle as a whole and is synonymous with the gross anatomical deep fascia is the
    1. Epimysium
    2. Endomysium
    3. Perymisium
    4. Periosteum
    5. Perichondrium
    1. Epimysium
  79. The epiploic foramen is bounded anteriorly by the
    1. Free border of the lesser omentum
    2. Free border of the greater omentum
    3. Peritoneum over the inferior vena cava
    4. Peritoneum at the beginning of the duodenum
    5. Peritoneum on the caudate lobe of the liver
    1. Free border of the lesser omentum
  80. The initial epithelial attachment joinning the gingiva to the tooth arises directly from
    1. Oral mucosa
    2. Cervical loopepithelium 
    3. Reduced enamel epithelium
    4. The epithelial root sheath (Herwig)
    3. Reduced enamel epithelium
  81. Lymphoid tissue of the spleen has the function of filtering
    1. Lymph only
    2. Blood only
    3. Tissue fluid
    4. Both lymph and blood
    2. Blood only
  82. The articulating surface of the adult mandibular condyle is covered by
    1. Hyaline cartilage
    2. Typical perichondrium
    3. A thin layer of synovial membrane
    4. A dense layer of collagenous connective tissue
    4. A dense layer of collagenous connective tissue
  83. Endochondral ossification is a procedure in the development of bone in which
    1. Hyaline cartilage is transformed into bone
    2. Calcified cartilage is replaced by bone
    3. Osteocytes of perichondrium form bone
    4. Osteons with cartilage lamellae are formed
    2. Calcified cartilage is replaced by bone
  84. The junctional epithelium of the dentogingival attachment is characterized by
    1. Orthokeratinization
    2. The presence of rete pegs
    3. Hemidesmosomes in the cells facing the tooth surface
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
    3. Hemidesmosomes in the cells facing the tooth surface
  85. One important collateral circulation of the hepatic portal system is via the
    1. Renal veins
    2. Mesenteric veins
    3. Esophageal veins
    4. External iliac veins
    3. Esophageal veins
  86. As it crosses the first rib, the subclavian vein lies
    1. Anterior to the anterior scalene muscle
    2. Posterior to the anterior scalene muscle
    3. Between the anterior an middle scalene muscle
    4. Between the middle and posterior scalene muscle
    5. Posterior to the posterior scalene muscle
    1. Anterior to the anterior scalene muscle
  87. In the photomicrograph of a ground section of a tooth, the large, dark area represents
    1. A dead tract
    2. Sclerotic dentin
    3. Decalcified dentin
    4. A contour line (Owen)
    1. A dead tract
  88. The nasolacrimal duct drains into the
    1. Middle meatus
    2. Inferior meatus
    3. Superior meatus
    4. Sphenoethmoidal recess
    2. Inferior meatus
  89. The auditory tube and cavities of the middle ear are derived from the
    1. First branchial arch
    2. Second branchial arch
    3. Third branchial arch
    4. First pharyngeal pouch
    5. Second pharyngeal pouch
    4. First pharyngeal pouch
  90. The photomicrograph is a ground section of
    1. Woven bone
    2. Lamellar bone
    3. Primary cementum
    4. Secondary cementum
    2. Lamellar bone
  91. The lateral boundary of the retropharyngeal (prevertebral) space at the level of the oropharynx is the
    1. Carotid sheath
    2. Pterygomandibular raphe
    3. Medial pterygoid muscle and it's fascia
    4. Stylopharyngeus muscle and it's fascia
    5. Middle pharyngeal constrictor and it's fascia
    1. Carotid sheath
  92. A terminal web de limits the odontoblast from the odontoblastic process.  This aggregation of micro filaments is found
    1. Intracellularly at the basal aspect of the cells
    2. Intracellularly inserting into the junctional complex of the cell
    3. Extracellularly projecting into the prevention (Korff's fibers)
    4. Extracellularly connecting the junctional complexes of adjacent cells
    5. Extracellularly being continuous with fibers present in the cell free zone of Weil.
    2. Intracellularly inserting into the junctional complex of the cell
  93. the primary source of cranial connective tissues is the
    1. Ectoderm
    2. endoderm
    3. Ectomesenchyme
    4. Primary follicle
    5. None of the above
    3. Ectomesenchyme
  94. A layer of cells that seems to be essential to enamel formation but does not actually secrete the enamel is 
    1. Vestibular lamina
    2. Stratum intermedium
    3. Inner dental epithelium
    4. reduced dental epithelium
    2. Stratum intermedium
  95. An upward extension from the thyroid gland may be identified as
    1. A remnant of the thyroglossalduct
    2. A pyramidal lobe
    3. a muscular slip
    4. Any of the above
    4. Any of the above
  96. The osteon is a cylinder of compact bone composed of 
    1. Basal laminae
    2. Concentric lamellae
    3. Interstitial lamellae
    4. Circumferential lamellae
    2. Concentric lamellae
  97. The nephron of the kidney contains all of the following structures EXCEPT the 
    1. Collecting tubule
    2. Capsule of Bowman
    3. Descending limb of Henle
    4. Distal convoluted tubule
    5. Proximal convoluted tubule
    1. Collecting tubule
  98. All of the following are immediate changes that occur in the cardiovascular system at birth EXCEPT
    1. Closure of the foramen ovale
    2. Closure of the ductus venosus
    3. Constriction of the ductus arteriosus
    4. Constriction of the umbilical arteries
    5. Closure of the interventricular foramen
    5. Closure of the interventricular foramen
  99. All of the following are located in the nasopharynx EXCEPT the
    1. Piriform recess
    2. Eustachian canal
    3. Pharyngeal tonsil
    4. Pharyngeal recess
    1. Piriform recess
  100. Which of the following does NOT occur during contraction of the left ventricle of a normal heart?
    1. The aortic semilunar valve opens
    2. Blood enters the coronary arteries 
    3. The pulmonary semilunar valve opens
    4. The left atrioventricular valve closes
    5. The right atrioventricular valve closes
    2. Blood enters the coronary arteries

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