CDC's

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Author:
hancox
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262066
Filename:
CDC's
Updated:
2014-02-15 01:48:26
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AF notes CDC
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VOL.1
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  1. The estimated percents of accidents caused by nature is?
    2%
  2. *What is the percentage of accidents attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards?
    98%
  3. What directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?
    Manuals, TO's, and handbooks.
  4. What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airman?
    Initial
  5. A chemical must be identified as a Carcinogen in the MSDS if concentrations are greater than
    0.1%
  6. Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by?
    EPA
  7. Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed...
    90 Days.
  8. What affects radiation hazards?
    Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
  9. The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then...
    allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
  10. The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of...
    45 Degrees
  11. Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
    A feeling of emptiness.
  12. *When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with the explosives?
    Weapons personnel only.
  13. Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft, you must...
    remove all ammunition and explosives.
  14. All composite material related SAFETY training must be documented on which AF IMT (form)?
    form 55.
  15. The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to...
    identify all possible sources of FOD.
  16. *Who is responsible for FOD prevention?
    Every one.
  17. When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear the red X is the...
    maintenance officer/maintenance superintendent.
  18. *In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?
    QA.
  19. The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the...
    green markings.
  20. Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a...
    20-foot radius
  21. Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?
    The aircrew.
  22. When serving as fireguard you position yourself even with the...
    nose of aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started.
  23. What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?
    AFI 11-218.
  24. During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?
    Tow Supervisor only.
  25. What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
    Organizational, intermediate, and depot.
  26. *What type of maintenance ensures the equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
    Preventive.
  27. *Objectives of the MDD system include...
    collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
  28. What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database?
    Select serially controlled and time change items.
  29. What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source doc. for obtaining billing information for FUEL and oil?
    781F
  30. The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder
    AFTER the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.
  31. Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on the AFTO
    781J
  32. Who determines which items on the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?
    Item managers.
  33. *The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the... (level)
    UNIT level.
  34. The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by...
    helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training.
  35. When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program?
    Within 60 days of arrival
  36. The GAS is normally sent out...
    90 days after graduation.
  37. *Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC?
    CFETP, Part II
  38. *The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
    visibility of personnel technical qualifications, and training statuses.
  39. Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?
    Reference
  40. What is the total # of Air Force TO catalogs?
    1
  41. Which column is in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an actions and lists two possible responses?
    remedy
  42. What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals ultimately spaced with red X's around the boarder of the first page?
    urgent action
  43. Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO form 22?
    00-5-1
  44. Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?
    Urgent.
  45. Which type of non-directive publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them, but cannot enforce whats on the form
    pamphlet
  46. What maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
    B2 Stand
  47. Which of these is a "scissor" type maintenance stand?
    B4
  48. What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4,000 engine trailer can support?
    8,000 lbs
  49. On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is
    20 MPH
  50. What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?
    Axle.
  51. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented?
    Everyone
  52. GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted
    green with a white band near the top.
  53. When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by
    qualified operators only.
  54. What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC?
    49
  55. What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen?
    4400 psig
  56. The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to
    3200 psi
  57. The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of
    200 psi
  58. The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from
    150 to 280 degrees F
  59. what is the maximum tow speed for a c-10 air conditioner?
    20 MPH
  60. the c-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering air in a range from...
    47 to 200 degrees
  61. the A/M32A-86 generator sets T-R produces...
    28.5 VDC
  62. what unit is capable of providing ac and dc power, in addition to pneumatic power for ground maintenance ?
    -60
  63. which technical order has operation and servicing information for the -60
    35C2-3-372-11
  64. the FL-1D floodlight consists of 2...
    1000W lamp fixtures
  65. what is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?
    20 MPH
  66. what is used to drive the MK-3a-1?
    an electric motor
  67. how are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated?
    #1 and #2
  68. the MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?
    27 Gallons
  69. the MB-4 coleman incorporates
    four wheel steering, four wheel drive
  70. what is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 coleman?
    20 MPH
  71. what type of steering system on the MB-4 Tow Vehicle provides for two wheel steer, four wheel coordinated steer, and four wheel oblique steer?
    hydraulic
  72. why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications?
    prevent corrosion
  73. how are special bolts identified?
    the bolt head is marked with the letter S
  74. which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems
    clevis
  75. which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high tension applications?
    an internal wrenching type
  76. Left-handed threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the..
    groove on the end of the barrel.
  77. Normally, what type of material is used on the construction of a pressure seal?
    Soft rubber
  78. A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by...
    inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal
  79. What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on an aircraft tubing?
    15-20 Inches
  80. The allowable limit for nicks and scratched on a straight section of an aircraft tubing is no deeper than...
    15% wall thickness.
  81. Generally, low pressure hoses are used for what pressures?
    300 psi and below.
  82. The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a
    24 inch length of wire
  83. When securing widely spaced bolts, by the double twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series?
    3
  84. Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?
    Axially assembled retaining rings.
  85. Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360 degree contact with the groove?
    Spiral retaining ring.
  86. What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
    Pin and socket contacts.
  87. In the cannon plug code, MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates...
    Pin
  88. Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?
    Indicating type.
  89. Which torque wrench is designed when a predetermined torque value is reached?
    Breakaway type.
  90. Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the a breakaway torque at the...
    maximum setting at least 6 times
  91. What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?
    tension and torsion
  92. Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?
    Static
  93. Use the range button on the fluke multimeter to...
    move the decimal point.
  94. When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display, the...
    touch hold mode is in use.
  95. Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?
    Feeler gauge.
  96. What is the longest possible movement between the micrometers spindle and anvil?
    1.0 inch
  97. Which caliper is joint by a strong spring hinge, screw and adjustment nut.
    Spring Joint Calipers.
  98. Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?
    Odd leg caliper.
  99. Which caliper has the words "In" and "Out" stamped on the frame?
    Slide caliper.
  100. Who is responsible for enduring that good supply discipline is practiced?
    Supervisors at all levels.
  101. Bench stock levels are established to provide a...
    30 day usage.
  102. Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods?
    AF IMT 1297
  103. All items that come through supply channels are supplied what type of code?
    ERRC
  104. Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and...
    AFTO form 350
  105. Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
    1577-2 and 1577-3
  106. Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defense and workmanship for...
    100 hrs of operation or 1 year from the date of receipt.
  107. Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
    Periodic.
  108. Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
    Isochronal.
  109. Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
    Programmed depot maintenance.
  110. Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
    Inspection workcards.
  111. Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?
    EOR.
  112. The TH inspection in normally performed
    after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled.
  113. Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?
    Calendar.
  114. Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?
    Acceptance
  115. To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD form
    1149
  116. Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?
    1-1B-50
  117. What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?
    Aircraft weight.
  118. Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?
    "TRIAGE"
  119. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is...
    fabricated or manufactured.
  120. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
    exhausted or salvaged.
  121. What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?
    Exfoliation.
  122. What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?
    Stress.
  123. Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in...
    TO 1-1-691
  124. After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
    Sodium bicarbonate.

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