Midterm

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noah.aisner
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26313
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Midterm
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2010-07-12 20:24:05
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RT 104
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  1. Which of the following phases of human lung development occurs from 17 to 26 weeks of gestation, and is characterized by the formation of a capillary network around airway passages?
    A. Pseudoglandular
    B. Alveolar
    C. Canalicular
    D. Saccular
    C. Canalicular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Regarding postnatal lung growth, by approximately what age do most of the alveoli that will be present in the lungs for life develop?
    A. 6 months
    B. l year
    C. 1.5 years
    D. 2 years
    C. 1.5 years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following mechanisms appear to explain why oligohydramnios is associated with lung hypoplasia?
    I. Abnormal carbohydrate metabolism
    II. Mechanical restriction of the chest wall
    III. Interference with fetal breathing
    IV. Failure to produce fetal lung liquid
    A. II, III, and IV only
    B. I, II, and IV only
    C. I and III only
    D. II and III only
    A. II, III, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. What is the purpose of the material secreted by the type II pneumocyte?
    A. To increase the gas exchange surface area
    B. To reduce surface tension
    C. To maintain lung elasticity
    D. To preserve the volume of the amniotic fluid
    B. To reduce surface tension
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which the following vascular networks is the major source of fetal lung liquid?
    A. Systemic circulation
    B. Pulmonary circulation
    C. Pulmonary lymphatics
    D. Bronchial circulation
    B. Pulmonary circulation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. What is the function of Wharton’s jelly inside the umbilical cord?
    A. To prevent the vessels inside the cord from kinking
    B. To regulate the temperature between the fetus and the mother
    C. To help provide nutrition to the fetus
    D. To help protect the fetus
    A. To prevent the vessels inside the cord from kinking
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. During the third gestational week, which of the following organs is the first to form?
    A. Lungs
    B. Heart
    C. Brain
    D. Kidneys
    B. Heart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What is the approximate fetal heart rate by the sixth week of gestation?
    A. 60 beats/minute
    B. 80 beats/minute
    C. 120 beats/minute
    D. 95 beats/minute
    D. 95 beats/minute
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which of the following anatomic structures constitute fetal shunts?
    I. Foramen ovale
    II. Sinus venosus
    III. Ductus venosus
    IV. Ductus arteriosus
    A. III and IV only
    B. I, II, and Ill only
    C. II, Ill, and IV only
    D. I, II, and IV only
    A. III and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Which of the following events causes cessation of right-to-left shunt through the foramen ovale?
    A. Increased levels of Pa0 in the blood of the neonate
    B. Increased systemic vascular resistance
    C. Decreased levels of PaCO in the blood of the newborn
    D. Removal of the placenta, causing lowered blood volume returning to the right side of the fetal heart
    B. Increased systemic vascular resistance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which of the following events or conditions is the most important risk factor for preterm birth?
    A. Prior preterm delivery
    B. Preterm premature rupture of the fetal membranes
    C. Cervical insufficiency
    D. Obstetrical intervention mandated by fetal jeopardy
    A. Prior preterm delivery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. What is generally accepted as a safe limit for alcohol consumption during pregnancy to avoid the development of fetal alcohol syndrome?
    A. One to two 8-ounce drinks per day are considered acceptable.
    B. Four to five 8-ounce drinks per week are considered safe.
    C Three to four 12-ounce drinks per week are considered reasonable.
    D. No safe range of alcohol consumption is deemed safe during pregnancy.
    D. No safe range of alcohol consumption is deemed safe during pregnancy.
  13. What is the average birth weight difference between infants born of mothers who smoke and those of nonsmoking mothers?
    A. Infants born of mothers who smoke are generally about 400 g lighter than infants born of nonsmoking mothers.
    B. Infants born of mothers who smoke tend to be about 200 g lighter than infants born of mothers who do not smoke.
    C. Infants born of mothers who smoke are predisposed to weigh approximately 600 g less than infants born of mothers who do not smoke.
    D. Infants of mothers who smoke are likely to be born about 800 g lighter than those born of mothers who do not smoke.
    B. Infants born of mothers who smoke tend to be about 200 g lighter than infants born of mothers who do not smoke.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following conditions are associated with preeclampsia?
    I. Multiparity
    II. Proteinuria
    III. Generalized edema
    IV. Hypertension
    A. II and III only
    B. I III, and IV only
    C. I, II, and III only
    D. II, III, and IV only
    D. II, III, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which of the following maternal and/or fetal conditions are associated with pregestational diabetes?
    I. Hydrops fetalis
    II. Ketoacidosis
    III. Preeclampsia
    IV. Fetal death
    A. II, III, and IV only
    B. I, III, and IV only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    A. II, III, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which of the following drugs is recommended to treat a group B Streptococcus infection for a patient who is allergic to penicillin?
    A Vancomycin
    B. Clindamycin
    C. Ampicillin
    D. Ketoconazole
    B. Clindamycin
  17. What is the main potential problem associated with the premature rupture of membranes?
    A. Maternal renal failure
    B. Fetal infection
    C. Maternal hypotension
    D. Fetal dehydration
    B. Fetal infection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which of the following maternal or fetal conditions can be determined or assessed via
    amniocentesis?
    I. Maternal Rh isoimmunization
    II. Trisomy 21
    III. Placenta previa
    IV. Placental abruption
    A. II, III, and IV only
    B. III and IV only
    C. I, II, and III only
    D. I and II only
    D. I and II only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Which of the following maternal complications are associated with cesarean section?
    I. lntraoperative bladder or bowel injuries
    II. Endomyometritis
    III. Failure to progress in labor
    IV. Placenta previa
    A. I, II and III only
    B. II, III, and IV only
    C. I and II only
    D. III and IV only
    C. I and II only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. How should the therapist interpret an amniotic fluid index of 5 cm?
    A. Oligohydramnios
    B. Anhydramnios
    C. Multihydramnios
    D. Polyhydramnios
    A. Oligohydramnios
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. A fetus is undergoing a contraction stress test. Uterine contractions are stimulated by the intravenous infusion of oxytocin into the mother. The fetal P0 drops below 12 mm Hg and causes the fetal heart rate to slow. Which of the following conditions is likely indicated by this occurrence?
    A. Oligohydramnios
    B. Nuchal cords
    C. Placenta abruption
    D. Uteroplacental insufficiency
    D. Uteroplacental insufficiency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. How should the therapist interpret a fetal biophysical profile score of 7?
    A. The fetus appears to be normal.
    B. The fetus requires careful evaluation and possibly immediate delivery.
    C. The data are inconclusive and the profile needs to be redone immediately.
    D. The fetus requires another biophysical profile in 24 hours.
    A. The fetus appears to be normal.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. In lieu of obtaining a scalp blood gas sample, what can the therapist do to conduct intrapartum sessment of the fetus?
    A Fetal scalp stimulation
    B. Umbilical cord blood sampling
    C. Placental blood sampling
    D. Biophysical profile
    A Fetal scalp stimulation
  24. Which of the following medications are used as tocolytics?
    I. Magnesium sulfate
    II. Sodium bicarbonate
    III. Calcium carbonate
    IV. Indomethacin LA.
    A. III and IV only
    B. II and III only
    C. I, II, and III only
    D. I and IV only
    D. I and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which of the following outcomes is associated with intrapartum amnioinfusion of postterm infants demonstrating meconium-stained amniotic fluid?
    A. The data are inconclusive.
    B. This procedure reduces the rate of cesarean deliveries.
    C. This practice places the fetal heart into failure from volume overload.
    D. The procedure is beneficial for postterm infants having oligohydramnios.
    B. This procedure reduces the rate of cesarean deliveries.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. A team has been summoned to the delivery room to perform neonatal resuscitation. Because no perinatal history is available, which of the following information would be useful for the resuscitation team to know in preparation for this event?
    I. Number of babies expected
    II. Age of the mother
    III Gestational age of the infant
    IV. Presence or absence of meconium
    A. I and IV only
    B. II and III only
    C I, III, and IV only
    D. I, II, III, and IV
    C I, III, and IV only
  27. What measures can the therapist take to prevent heat loss and cold stress before performing resuscitation on a preterm neonate?
    I. Dry the infant’s skin.
    II. Wrap the infant in prewarmed blankets.
    III. Remove wet linens from around the infant.
    IV. Measure the neonate’s body temperature.
    A. I, II, and IV only
    B. I, II, and III only
    C. IV only
    D. I and II only
    B. I, II, and III only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. While stabilizing a preterm neonate before resuscitation, the therapist notices the infant display laryngeal spasm, bradycardia, and a delayed onset of spontaneous breathing. What could have caused these events to occur?
    A. Applying positive pressure to the airway before suctioning the airway
    B. Performing aggressive pharyngeal suctioning
    C. Applying vacuum pressure in the range of 50 to 60 mm Hg
    D. Flicking the bottoms of the neonate’s feet immediately on delivery
    B. Performing aggressive pharyngeal suctioning
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. As the head of a neonate contaminated with meconium emerges at birth, the heart rate monitor indicates 120 beats/minute, and the physician notices that the infant has good muscle tone and a strong respiratory effort. What should the physician do at this time to provide airway care?
    A. Intubate the infant immediately.
    B. Perform pharyngeal and tracheal suctioning immediately. C. Perform tracheal suctioning only at this time.
    D. Do not perform tracheal suctioning on this infant at this time.
    D. Do not perform tracheal suctioning on this infant at this time.
  30. A preterm neonate with a heart rate of 55 beats/minute is receiving positive-pressure ventilation immediately after delivery. What should the therapist do at this time?
    A. Defibrillate the infant.
    B. Increase the respiratory rate on the ventilator.
    C. Apply cardiac compressions and maintain positive-pressure ventilation.
    D. Administer medication to increase myocardial contractility and maintain positive ventilation.
    C. Apply cardiac compressions and maintain positive-pressure ventilation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. A term infant is born displaying acrocyanosis. What should the therapist do at this time?
    A. Do nothing, as this condition is often transient.
    B. Begin resuscitative measures.
    C. Institute positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
    D. Administer oxygen to the newborn.
    A. Do nothing, as this condition is often transient.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The therapist has completed a 1-minute Apgar score. The following evaluations were obtained: the infant is pale.
    The heart rate is 90 beats/minute.
    The respiratory effort is irregular.
    Some muscle tone is noted.
    No response to nasal suctioning is found.
    On the basis of these findings, what Apgar score should be assigned to this neonate?
    A.1
    B. 2
    C.3
    D.5
    C.3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. The therapist, working with a neonate, observes that the newborn has adequate ventilatory efforts and a heart rate of 120 beats/minute. However, at the same time, the infant demonstrates cyanosis of the lips and mucous membranes. What should the therapist do at this time?
    A. Initiate positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
    B. Perform pharyngeal and tracheal suctioning.
    C. Direct 100% oxygen at a flow of 8 L/minute about one-half inch above the infant’s nose and mouth.
    D. Begin resuscitative efforts.
    C. Direct 100% oxygen at a flow of 8 L/minute about one-half inch above the infant’s nose and mouth.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. A respiratory therapy supervisor is observing a staff member perform bag—mask ventilation on an infant who is being resuscitated. The supervisor notices that the therapist places his fingers on the anterior margin of the infant’s mandible, and lifts the infant’s face into the mask. What should the supervisor do at this time?
    A. Correct the therapist and have him place his fingers onto the soft tissue under the mandible.
    B. Recommend that the therapist perform endotracheal suctioning.
    C. Recommend that the infant immediately receive endotracheal intubation.
    D. Take no action because the therapist is correctly performing valve—mask ventilation.
    D. Take no action because the therapist is correctly performing valve—mask ventilation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. While performing positive-pressure mechanical ventilation on a neonate, the therapist notices that the infant’s thorax is not displaying bilateral expansion during each inspiration. Auscultation of the chest reveals diminished bilateral breath sounds. The infant’s heart rate is 85 beats/minute and observation demonstrates central cyanosis. Which of the following events may have caused this clinical situation?
    I. Pneumothorax
    II. Poorly positioned or leaking mask
    III. Inappropriately sized endotracheal tube
    IV. Airway obstruction
    A. I and IV only
    B. II and III only
    C. I, II and IV only
    D. I, II, III, and IV
    C. I, II and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. What appears to be the reason for the infrequent need to administer chest compressions and cardiopulmonary resuscitative drugs to neonates in the delivery rooms?
    A. Manipulation and stimulation of the neonate at birth excite the heart, obviating the need for these interventions.
    B. The delivery of adequate ventilation is the primary factor in effective resuscitation of a neonate.
    C. The administration of oxygen to the infant’s airway stimulates the heart.
    D. Labor and delivery room personnel are highly trained and qualified with excellent assessment skills, thus avoiding the need for such actions.
    B. The delivery of adequate ventilation is the primary factor in effective resuscitation of a neonate.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. What ratio of chest compressions and positive-pressure breaths must the therapist administer to a newborn during cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
    A. One compression for every 15 breaths
    B. Three compressions for every 15 breaths
    C. Two compressions for every five breaths
    D. Three compressions for every one breath
    D. Three compressions for every one breath
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. The therapist has been performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a neonate for about 90 seconds, applying ventilation with 100% oxygen and chest compressions. The infant has maintained a spontaneous heat rate of 40 beats/minute. What should the therapist recommend at this time?
    A. Initiating high-frequency ventilation
    B. Administering epinephrine
    C. Continuing resuscitative measures
    D. Instituting extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
    B. Administering epinephrine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Which of the following medications is used to reverse respiratory depression induced by opioid overdose?
    A. Oxygen
    B. Naloxone
    C. Epinephrine
    D. Sodium bicarbonate
    B. Naloxone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which of the following actions constitutes appropriate stimulation of a neonate?
    I. Gently slapping the infant’s buttocks
    II. Gently shaking the infant’s upper torso
    III. Flicking the bottoms of the infant’s feet
    IV. Drying with a towel
    A. III and IV only
    B. Ill only
    C. I and II only
    D. II, III, and IV only
    A. III and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which of the following factors are taken into consideration when assessing the gestational age of a neonate?
    I. Previous maternal pregnancies
    II. Prenatal ultrasound evaluations
    Ill. Postnatal findings based on physical and neurologic examinations
    IV. Gestational duration based on the last menstrual cycle
    A. I and Ill only
    B. I, II, and III only
    C. III, and IV only
    D. I, II, and IV only
    C. III, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. The gestational age of a newborn has been evaluated to be 34 weeks. The newborn’s birth weight is greater than the 90th percentile. How should the therapist classify this infant?
    A. Large for gestational age
    B. Average for gestational age
    C. Very large for gestational age
    D. Small for gestational age
    A. Large for gestational age
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. An infant arrives in the newborn nursery with an axillary body temperature of 95.6° F. Which of the following events may be responsible for this infant’s temperature?
    A. The delivery room temperature was low.
    B. The newborn has protracted diarrhea.
    C. The infant was swaddled in numerous blankets.
    D. The neonate was in an infant warmer in the delivery room.
    A. The delivery room temperature was low.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. A physical examination is being performed on a newborn, and the therapist notices that the infant’s arms do not move symmetrically. Which of the following situations could account for this problem?
    A. The baby was born via cesarean section.
    B. An injury to the infant’s brachial plexus may have occurred during birth.
    C. The infant experienced nuchal cords during birth.
    D. The infant may have been born breach.
    B. An injury to the infant’s brachial plexus may have occurred during birth.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. The therapist notices that an infant presents with irregular areas of dusky skin alternating with areas of pale skin, On the basis of this observation, which of the following conditions should the therapist anticipate this patient having?
    A. Polycythemia
    B. Situs inversus with dextrocardia
    C. Hypotension
    D. Renal insufficiency
    C. Hypotension
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which of the following neonatal skin presentations at birth is associated with a high hematocrit value or polycythemia and neonatal hyperviscosity syndrome?
    A. Lanugo
    B. Reddish blue appearance
    C. Mottling
    D. Vemix
    B. Reddish blue appearance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Why are chest retractions more prominent among neonates than among older children and adults?
    A. Because neonates have a much higher respiratory rate.
    B. Because newborns have relatively thin and weak musculature, and a less rigid thorax.
    C. Because neonates generate a greater subatmospheric intrapleural pressure.
    D. Because airway resistance through the smaller caliber airways is higher.
    B. Because newborns have relatively thin and weak musculature, and a less rigid thorax.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Why is it difficult to localize auscultation findings of the thorax of a newborn?
    A. Because the neonate’s chest is small and sounds are difficult to differentiate.
    B. Because the newborn’s pulmonary compliance is low.
    C. Because the neonate’s tidal volume is so small.
    D. Because the newborn infant is frequently crying.
    A. Because the neonate’s chest is small and sounds are difficult to differentiate.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. While performing a physical examination on a newborn infant, the therapist notices that the point of maximal cardiac impulse is to the left of the sternal border. Which of the following conditions can cause this situation?
    A. Right-sided pneumothorax
    B. Bilateral pulmonary consolidation
    C. Left mainstem bronchus intubation
    D. Atelectasis of the right lung
    A. Right-sided pneumothorax
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which of the following statements refers to the diagnostic procedure called transillumination?
    A. Insert a fiberoptic light sourne down a patient’s endotracheal tube and beyond the tube’s distal tip.
    B. Direct a light source toward the ipsilateral surface of the patient’s thorax.
    C. Place a light source between the surface of the bed and the patient’s back, and orient the patient in a supine position.
    D. Position a beam of light against a patient’s chest wall in a well-lit room.
    B. Direct a light source toward the ipsilateral surface of the patient’s thorax.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. A neonate is found to have a bounding pulse. Which of the following conditions may contribute t this finding?
    I. Patent ductus arteriosus
    II. Hypoplastic left-sided heart syndrome
    Ill. Coarctation of the aorta
    IV. Left-to-right shunt
    A. I and II only
    B. II and Ill only
    C. I and IV only
    D. I, Ill, and IV only
    C. I and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. What condition would be responsible for the therapist observing a pulse oximeter indicating decreased perfusion while central blood pressure remains normal?
    A. Hypoplastic right-sided heart syndrome
    B. Hypoplastic left-sided heart syndrome
    C. Hypervolemia with compensatory peripheral vasodilation
    D. Volume depletion with compensatory peripheral vasoconstriction
    D. Volume depletion with compensatory peripheral vasoconstriction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. For the purpose of assessing right-to-left shunting, as in the case of persistent pulmonary hypertension, which of the following sites would render postductal blood?
    I. Right arm
    II. Left arm
    Ill. Right leg
    IV. Left leg
    A. I only
    B. II, III, and IV only
    C. 1,III, and IV only
    D. II only
    B. II, III, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Which of the following conditions can cause abdominal distention?
    I. Enterocolitis
    II. Ascites
    III. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
    IV. Omphalocele
    A. I and II only
    B. I, II, and IV only
    C. II, III, and IV only
    D. I, III, and IV only
    A. I and II only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Which of the following conditions are associated with scaphoid abdomen?
    I. Necrotizing enterocolitis
    II. Gastroschisis
    III. Prune-belly syndrome
    IV. Sepsis
    A. I, II, and III only
    B. I arid IV only
    C. II and III only
    D. II, Ill, and IV only
    C. II and III only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. While performing an examination of the abdomen of a neonate, the therapist is able to palpate the infant’s liver 1 to 2 cm below the right costal margin. Which of the following conditions can account for this development?
    A. Splenomegaly
    B. Right ventricular failure
    C. Normal liver position
    D. Hepatomegaly
    C. Normal liver position
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. After the umbilical cord has been cut in the delivery room during the delivery of a large for gestational age infant, the therapist notices that the umbilical cord is large and fat. Which of thE following maternal conditions is likely present?
    A. Congestive heart failure
    B. Hypertension
    C. Diabetes mellitus
    D. Renal insufficiency
    C. Diabetes mellitus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. A newborn who presents as pale, mottled, floppy, with little interest in feeding, and slightly irritabl ost likely has which of the following conditions?
    A Sepsis
    B. Respiratory distress syndrome
    C. Retinopathy of prematurity
    D. Cri du chat
    A Sepsis
  59. The therapist has placed a pulse oximeter probe on a finger of the right hand of a newborn and another pulse oximeter probe on a toe of the infant’s left foot. The pulse oximeter on the right hand reads 80% and the one on the left foot indicates 65%. Which of the following disease conditions does this neonate possibly have?
    A. Suprapubic aspiration
    B. Choanal atresia
    C. Diaphragmatic hernia
    D. Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
    D. Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Which of the following white blood cell counts constitutes the condition leukopenia?
    A. Greater than or equal to 25,000/mm
    B. 5000 to 10,000/mm
    C. 10,000 to 20,000/mm
    D. Less than or equal to 3500/mm
    D. Less than or equal to 3500/mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which of the following information represent components of patient history for a new pediatric patient?
    I. Chief complaint
    II. History of present illness
    III. Past medical history
    IV. Occupational history
    A. I and II only
    B. III and IV only
    C. I, II, and III only
    D. I, II, III, and IV
    C I, II, and III only
  62. The presentation in the emergency department of a 7-year-old child with a productive cough, diaphoresis, and fever while on vacation with her parents represents which of the following chief complaints?
    A. Cystic fibrosis
    B Pneumonia
    C. Asthma exacerbation
    D. Respiratory distress
    D. Respiratory distress
  63. Which of the following components comprise the history of present illness section of a patient’s medical history?
    I. Frequency and duration of symptoms
    II. Symptoms exhibited by parents
    III. Onset of symptoms
    IV. Symptoms resulting in hospitalizations
    A. I, II, and IV only
    B. II, III, and IV only
    C. I, II, and III only
    D. I and III only
    D. I and III only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which of the following components comprise the past medical history section of the patient’s medical history?
    I. Birth weight
    II. Previous mechanical ventilation
    Ill. Recurrence of symptoms based on season
    IV. Emergency department visits
    A. I, II, and IV only
    B. I, II, Ill, and IV
    C. II and IV only
    D. II only
    A. I, II, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Which of the following components of a patient’s medical history is intended to determine the presence of symptoms not identified in the history of present illness and that may be related or contribute to the child’s underlying condition?
    A. Past medical history
    B. History of present illness
    C. Review of systems
    D. Chief complaint
    C. Review of systems
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. A child who demonstrates head bobbing, nasal flaring, and grunting is exhibiting the signs of
    A. Hypercapnia
    B. Hypoxemia
    C. Respiratory distress
    D. Acidemia
    C. Respiratory distress
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Which of the following pulmonary diseases are not chest wall deformities, but are characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter?
    I. Pectus excavatum
    II. Severe asthma
    III. Pneumonia
    IV. Cystic fibrosis
    A I and III only
    B. II and IV only
    C. II, III, and IV only
    D. I, II, Ill, and IV
    B. II and IV only
  68. During a physical examination of a child’s chest, the therapist perceives increased tactile fremitus over the patient’s right lower lobe. Which of the following conditions may cause this physical
    A. Mucous plug
    B. Pneumothorax
    C. Aspirated foreign object
    D. Pulmonary consolidation
    D. Pulmonary consolidation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. While percussing the thorax of a child during a physical examination, the therapist hears a dull percussion note over the child’s right lung. Which of the following conditions may cause this physical finding?
    I. Atelectasis
    II. Pneumothorax
    III. Pleural effusion
    IV. Consolidation
    A. I, II, III, and IV
    B. I and II only
    C. II, III, and IV only
    D. I, II, and IV only
    D. I, II, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. After placing a stethoscope over a small child’s trachea, the therapist hears expiratory stridor. Which of the following conditions is consistent this finding?
    A. Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
    B. Laryngotracheobronchitis
    C. Asthma episode
    D. Tracheomalacia
    D. Tracheomalacia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. While auscultating a young child’s thorax, the therapist hears bilateral fine crackles. Which of the following conditions can produce these adventitious sounds?
    A. Asthma
    B. Pulmonary edema
    C. Bronchitis
    D. Croup
    B. Pulmonary edema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Examination of the ears, eyes, nose, and throat may reveal findings associated with which of the following conditions?
    A. Immunodeficiency
    B. Lymph adenopathy
    C. Cerebral palsy
    D. Allergies
    D. Allergies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. What is the cause of hepatosplenomegaly associated with advanced cystic fibrosis?
    A. Low pancreatic enzymes
    B. Right ventricular failure
    C. Hypertension caused by extracellular Na
    D. Thick secretions
    B. Right ventricular failure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Which of the following terms is used to describe a low-pitched, wet sound similar to snoring, which suggests nasopharyngeal, oropharyngeal, and/or hypopharyngeal airway obstruction?
    A. Stertor
    B. Crackles
    C. Stridor
    D. Rhonchi
    A. Stertor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. When performing a physical examination of the thorax, in what order should the therapist proceed the assessment?
    A. Inspection, percussion, palpation, and auscultation
    B. Palpation, inspection percussion, and auscultation
    C. Percussion, palpation, auscultation, and inspection
    D. Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation
    D. Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Which of the following clinical presentations signify respiratory distress?
    I. Head bobbing
    II. Digital clubbing
    III. Central cyanosis
    IV. Retractions
    A. I, III, and IV only
    B. I and II only
    C. II and IV only
    D. II, III, and IV only
    A. I, III, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Which of the following conditions are components of respiratory failure?
    I. Pulmonary hypertension
    II. Impaired oxygenation
    III. Insufficient cardiac output
    IV. Inadequate ventilation
    A. I and III only
    B. II and IV only
    C. II, III, and IV only
    D. I, II, and IV only
    B. II and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Why do infants and children have higher oxygen demands than adults?
    A. Because they have greater respiratory rates
    B. Because they have higher metabolic rates
    C. Because they have smaller body surface areas
    D. Because they have higher heart rates
    B. Because they have higher metabolic rates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Within the context of respiratory failure, what is the role of arterial blood gas analysis?
    A. Arterial blood gas analysis is required to ascertain the need for mechanical ventilation.
    B. Arterial blood gas analysis will help determine the status of the metabolic rate.
    C. Arterial blood gas analysis is necessary for the diagnosis.
    D. It may be used to confirm the clinical impression.
    D. It may be used to confirm the clinical impression.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. How should the therapist intervene on noticing the presence of agonal respirations displayed by pediatric patient?
    A. As a condition warranting vigilant monitoring
    B. As a sign of impending respiratory failure
    C. As a cardiac arrest
    D. As if the patient had respiratory arrest
    D. As if the patient had respiratory arrest
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. How will an infant physiologically attempt to maintain blood pressure?
    I. Increase heart rate
    II. Improve cardiac contractility
    III. Increase peripheral vascular tone
    IV. Decrease pulmonary vascular resistance
    A. II and III only
    B. I, II, and III only
    C. I and II only
    D. III and IV only
    B. I, II, and III only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Someone who loses a significant volume of blood because of hemorrhage is likely to develop
    A. Decompensated shock
    B. Compensated shock
    C. An atrial dysrhythmia
    D. Right ventricular failure
    A. Decompensated shock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. What is the next pathophysiologic development that is likely to occur in a patient experiencing respiratory failure and shock?
    A. Decompensated shock
    B. Cardiac arrest
    C. Death
    D. Compensated shock
    B. Cardiac arrest
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Which of the following clinical aspects of the patient can the therapist observe from a relatively short distance, for example, on entering the patient’s room?
    I. Adequacy of renal function
    II. Adequacy of oxygenation
    III. Sufficiency of ventilation
    IV. Level of cerebral perfusion
    A. I, II, and IV only
    B. I, II, and III only
    C. I, III, and IV only
    D. II, III, and IV only
    D. II, III, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Which of the following conditions produce metabolic acidosis?
    I. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    II. Hypokalemia
    III. Salicylate poisoning
    IV. Chronic renal insufficiency
    A. I, III, and IV only
    B. I only
    C. II, III, and IV only
    D. I and IV only
    A. I, III, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. A therapist walks into the room of a pediatric patient and notices the child sitting upright, and leaning forward by the bedside table; what position has the patient assumed?
    A. Head bob position
    B. The sniffing position
    C. The tripod position
    D. The “tet” position
    C. The tripod position
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. The therapist notices that the hands and feet of an infant are cool, pale or dusky. How should this finding be interpreted?
    A. Normal
    B. Peripheral perfusion is deteriorating
    C. An above-normal cardiac output
    D. Compromised alveolar ventilation
    B. Peripheral perfusion is deteriorating
  88. As the therapist enters a patient’s room, he notices decreased thoracic expansion while a child breathes spontaneously. Which of the following conditions can cause this finding?
    I. Pleural effusion
    II. Decreased cardiac output
    III. Atelectasis
    IV. Foreign body aspiration
    A. I, III, and IV only
    B. III and IV only
    C. II only
    D. II, III, and IV only
    A. I, III, and IV only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. A mother states that her 4-month-old son fails to make eye contact with her. Which of the following conditions can cause this problem?
    A. Right ventricular failure
    B. Cerebral hypoperfusion
    C. Pulmonary hypertension
    D. Systemic hypertension
    B. Cerebral hypoperfusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Which of the following conditions can cause delayed capillary refill in a child?
    A. Hypoventilation
    B. Decreased cardiac output
    C. Hypoxemia
    D. Increased stroke volume
    B. Decreased cardiac output
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Which of the following cardiovascular effects may compensate for decreased systemic blood pressure caused by decreased left ventricular output?
    A. Decreased renal perfusion
    B. Systemic vasoconstriction
    C. Pulmonary vasodilatation
    D. Increased right ventricular output
    B. Systemic vasoconstriction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. How should the therapist interpret a situation in which a child displays mottling, pallor, and peripheral cyanosis?
    A. Poor venous return
    B. Anemia
    C. Poor peripheral perfusion
    D. Systemic hypertension
    C. Poor peripheral perfusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Urine output is a good indicator of which of the following functions?
    A. Renal perfusion
    B. Respiratory function
    C. Renal function
    D. Cardiac function
    C. Renal function
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. What should be the initial step taken by the therapist when confronted with a seriously injured child?
    A. Advanced cardiac life support
    B. Arterial blood gas analysis
    C. Endotracheal intubation
    D. Rapid cardiopulmonary assessment
    D. Rapid cardiopulmonary assessment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. For the purpose of airway support, how should the therapist position an infant who is in respiratory distress?
    A. By flexing the infant’s head and neck
    B. With the infant’s head and neck hyperextended
    C. By placing the infant in the prone position
    D. With the infant’s head and neck in a neutral position
    D. With the infant’s head and neck in a neutral position
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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