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How many valve inside the human heart?
Tricuspid (3) Pulmonary (2) Mitral (2) Aortic (2)
What are the layers of artery?
- Tunica Intera (inner layer)
- Tunica Media (middle)
- Tunica Externa (outer)
What is pulmonary circuit?
Describe the direction of flow?
Pulmonary Circuit is the complete cycle of blood oxygenation starting from right atria to left atria.
Blood flow starts>right atrium>right ventricle>pulmonary trunk>pulmonary artery>lungs (to pickup oxygen)>left pulmonary veins>left atrium.
What is Systemic Circuit?
Describe the direction of flow?
Systemic circuit transport blood from the heart to and from the rest of the body.
Blood flow> left atria>left ventricle>aortic valve>ascending aorta> brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian artery, descending aorta> to the rest of the body.
What is exchange vessels?
What is pericardium?
Lining of the pericardial cavity (outer lining).
What is epicardium?
Thin layer that covers the heart (visceral epicardium).
Describe the complete blood-flow-cascade?
Start, SVC & IVC>RA>TRICUSPID VALVE>RV>PULMONARY VALVE>PT>RIGHT AND LEFT PA>RIGHT AND LEFT LUNGS>R&L PULMONARY VEINS>LEFT ATRIUM>LEFT MITRAL VALVE>AORTA BICUSPID VALVE>AORTA>AA>DA>TA>AO>CI>LEFT AND RIGHT CI>INT. I>EXT. I>FA>DEEP FA>POPLITEAL>ANT/POST TIBIAL ART> FIBULAR ART. FIBULAR V>SAPHENOUS V>POPLITEAL V. FEMORAL V.>R&L ILIAC V.>COMMON IL>ABDOMINAL INFERIOR VC>RENAL VC.>HEART
Explain blood flow from heart to extremities?
- Blood flow through LA>RV>AO>ASCENDING AO?AORTIC ARCH>BRACHIOCEPHALIC TRUNK>INTERNAL THORASIC A.>COMMON CAROTIC>VERTIBRAL>
- THYROCERVICAL A.>SUBCLAVIAN A.>AXILLARY A.>BRACHIAL A.>RADIAL A.>ULNAR>DEEP PALMAR ARCH>ULNAR>BASILIC>RADIAL V.>CEPHALIC V.>AXILLARY V.>SUBCLAVIAN V.>AZYGOS V.>BRACHIOCEPHALIC V.>IVC>RIGHT ATRIUM.
What are the valves inside the heart?
- Right Atrioventricular Valve <Tricuspid Valve>
- Pulmonary Semilunar Valve <Bicuspid>
- Left Atrioventricular Valve <Bicuspid><Mitral Valve>
- Aortic Semilunar Valve <Bicuspid>
What is Atrial Septum?
What is Interventricular Septum?
Atrial Septum separates the left and the right atria.
Interventricular septum separates the left and right ventricles.
Explain the Foramen Ovale Phenomenon?
During fetal development, the baby doesn't use lungs; so the left and right atrium are combined as one big chamber <FORAMEN OVALE>. The mothers placenta provides oxygenated blood to the baby. At birth, the foramen ovalle begins to close; a process that could take up to 8 days <FOSSA OVALIS>.
What are the types of pericardium?
- 1. Pericardium - lining of the pericardial cavity.
- 2. Visceral Pericardium - covers the outer surface of the heart.
- 3. Parietal Pericardium - lines the inner surface of the pericardial sac surrounding the heart.
What is pericarditis?
Inflammation or infection in the pericardium, when pericardial surface rubs against each other.
What is SULCUS?
SULCUS, is a deep groove depressions that outlines the border between atria and ventricles.
The Heart Wall:
What are the layers of the heart wall?
- 1. epicardium <visceral pericardium> consist of mesothelium an areolar tissue.
- 2. myocardium - forms atria and ventricles, consist of cardiac muscles cells and connective tissue.
- 3. endocardium - covers the inner surface of the heart, including heart valves. consist of areolar tissue and endothelium.
What are auricles?
Auricles are expandable extension of atrium called "Atrial Appendage".
Describe the cardiac muscle tissue?
Cardiac muscle cells are interconnected by INTERCALATED DISCS; which conveys the force of contraction from cell-to-cell and conduct action potentials.
What are the arteries of the heart?
- Right coronary artery
- Anterior marginal artery
- Left Coronary Artery
- Anterior Interventricular Artery
- Circumflex artery
- Posterior Interventricular artery
What are the vessels of the heart?
- Small cardiac vein
- Anterior cardiac veins
- Great cardiac veins
- Posterior cardiac vein
- Coronary sinus
- Middle cardiac vein
- MIddle cardiac vein
What is anastomosis?
What are examples two major anastomosis?
Two arteries that join together.
- Two major anastomosis are;
- 1. Right Coronary Artery connects to Circumflex artery.
- 2. Anterior Interventricular artery connects to posterior Interventricular artery.
Describe the cardiac cycle?
Cardiac cycle is the pumping of the blood throughout the body.
What are the steps of cardiac cycle?
- Step 1. Atrial sys - Ventricular dias.
- Step 2. Atrial dias - Ventricular sys <LUB>.
- Step 3. Atrial dias - Ventricular dias <DUB>.
What are the factors that affect the heart rate?
- 1. Atrial Reflex <Bainbridge Reflex>
- 2. Hormones
- 3. Venous Return
Explain Atrial Reflex?
- Atrial reflex involves adjustments in heart rate in response to an increase in the venous return.
- When the walls of the atria is stretched, the stretch receptors triggers a reflex increase in heart rate. Increase of venous return increase the heart rate as well.
Describe hormones effect in heart rate?
Hormones Epinephrine/Nor-Epinephine and thyroid hormones increase HR by their effect on the SA node. After a big stimulation of sympathetic system, the myocardium may become overstimulated that an abnormal contraction may occur.
Explain venous return effects on HR?
Venous return affects nodal cells. An increase of venous return stretch the atrium. When cells of the SA node lead to more rapid depolarization and an increase in HR.
What is a stroke volume?
Stroke volume is the DIFFERENCE between the END-DIAS VOL and END-SYS VOL. Changes in EDV or ESV can change the stroke volume and CARDIAC OUTPUT.
What is the term for a partial or complete blockage of the coronary circulation?
CAD - Coronary artery Disease
What is MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION?
MI or heart attack, occurs when part of the coronary circulation becomes blocked and muscle tissue dies when it cannot be oxygenated.
What are the two general classes of cardiac muscle cells involved int he normal heart beat?
- Contractile Cells
- Conducting Cells
Describe the hearts conducting system?
The conducting system initiates and distribute the electrical impulses within the heart. Nodal cells establish the rate of cardiac contraction (SA/AV Node) and conducting cells distribute the contractile stimulus from SA node to atrial myocardium and AV node to ventricular Myocardium.
Where is the SA Node located?
SA Node is located in the posterior wall of the right atrium, near the entrance of superior vena cava. SA Node contains PACEMAKER CELLS, which establish the heart rate.
Where is the AV Node?
Explain the AV Node conduction sequence?
- AV node sits within the floor of the right atrium, near the opening of the Coronary Sinus.
- * The signal slows at it leaves the nodal pathways and enter the AV node because the nodal cells are smaller than the conducting cells. As a result there is a 100 msec of delay from SA node impulse to AV node.
- * This delay allows the atria to contract before the ventricle do; thus allows the ventricle to fill.
- * After brief delay, the impulse is conducted to the atrioventricular bundle and the bundle branches of the Purkinje fibers and PAPILLARY MUSCLES. The Purkinje fibers distribute the impulse to the ventricular myocardium, and ventricular contraction begins.
Describe the effect of Sympathetic and Parasympathetic System on ESV (end Systole Volume)?
- Sympathetic activity produces more powerful contractions that reduces ESV.
- Parasympathetic Stimulations slows the heart rate, REDUCES the contractile strengths; thus, it RAISES the ESV.
What is CARDIAC RESERVE?
The difference between resting and maximal cardiac output.
What are the five classifications of blood vessels?
- 1. Artery
- 2. Arterioles
- 3. Capillaries
- 4. Venules
- 5. Veins
Where are the gaseous and chemical exchanges between blood and interstitial fluids takes place?
- Chemical and gaseous exchanges between blood and interstitial fluid takes place in the CAPILLARY WALLS.
- Diffusion takes place rapidly due to a very short distance and size of the capillaries.
- The vital function of the Cardiovascular system depends entirely on the events at the capillary level.
Differentiate Vasoconstriction versus Vasodilation of an artery; physiologically?
- During vasoconstriction, the smooth muscle of tunica media contract under the control of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
- During vasodilation, the these smooth muscles relax.
Describe Elastic Arteries?
- Elastic arteries <conducting arteries> carry large volumes of blood away from the heart.
- They are LARGE VESSELS that has high tolerance of pressure changes of cardiac cycle due to their elastic fibers.
Describe Muscular Arteries?
- Muscular or MEDIUM_SIZED Arteries are also know as DISTRIBUTION ARTERY; because they deliver blood to the skeletal muscles and internal organs.
- Characterized by THICK TUNICA MEDIA.
- The external carotid arteries, brachial arteries,mesenteric arteries of the abdomen and the femoral arteries some examples of Muscular Arteries.
Describe the Arterioles?
- Arterioles are called RESISTANCE VESSELS, due to their small diameter.
- The tunica media contains scattered incomplete smooth Mx layer.
- When stimulated by sympathetic system, the arteriole vasoconstrict, which increases the pressure required to push the blood flow; THUS, it earns a nick name <RESISTANCE VESSELS>.
What is called the bulging of the arterial wall due to weakening of elastic components of tunics?
What is a continuous Capillaries?
- The endothelium is a complete lining.
- The exchange occurs within the endothelium lining.
What is ANGIOGENESIS?
- Angiogenesis is the formation of new blood cells and occurs under the direction of VEGF <Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor>.
- Angiogenesis can occur in the cardiac muscle, where it takes place in response to a chronically constricted or occluded vessel.
Describe the VASOMOTION?
- Vasomotion is the cycling of contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle in the CAPILLARY SPHINCTER to regulate blood flow through capillary beds.
- When the blood flow in an area is low, the capillary sphincter opens up to increase the flow. This is called "Auto-regulation".
What causes Varicose Veins?
- When the walls of the veins near the valves is distorted, the valves may not work properly. This results in blood pooling near or at the valve and the veins becomes grossly distended.
- Commonly known as hemorrhoids or varicose veins in the thighs and legs.
What are the two forms of immunity?
Innate (non-specific)- anatomical or surface barrier that prevents or slow down any pathogen. Innate immunity does not discriminate any pathogen.
Adaptive Immunity (specific)- lymphocytes provides an immune system that attacks specific pathogen.
What consists of the lympathic system?
- Lymphatic system consist of:
- 2. Lymphatic Vessels
- 3. Lymphoid tissues and lymphoid organs
- 3. Lymphocytes and small number other cells.
What are the lymphoid tissues and organ?
What are the lymphatic vessels and lymph node?
- Right lymphatic duct
- Right Axillary lymph node
- lymphatics of mammary gland
- Cysterna chilli
- Lymphatics of upper limb
- Lumbar lymp nodes
- Pelvic lymp nodes
- Iguinal Lymp nodes
- Lymphatic of lower limb
Chapter 21 page 708
What does atrial reflex do?
Atrial reflex cause the SA Node to fire faster when the wall of the right atrium are stretched.
Where is the cardio acceleratory center and what does it do?
Cardio Acceleratory Center is located in the medula oblangata, it controls the parasymphatetic neurons to slow down the heart.
Define Stroke Volume?
The amount of blood ejected in a single heart beat.
Stroke Volume is the difference between END DIASTOLIC (EDV) and the END-SYSTOLIC VOLUME (ESV).
Define Cardiac Output?
The amount of blood pumped by the ventricle each minute in the cardiac output.
What can adjust the cardiac output?
Stroke volume and Heart Rate
What stablished the basic heart rate?
Firing of the SA Node
But it can be modified my the autonomic Nervous System.
What raise and lower the ESV (End of Stroke Volume)?
- Sympathetic activity produced powerful contractions that lower the ESV.
- Parasympathetic stimulation slows the heart rate, reduces the contractile strength, and raises the ESV.
What is the difference between RESTING and MAXIMAL Cardiac Outputs?
What effect does the sympathetic stimulation have on the heart?
Sympathetic Stimulation lowers the ESV, therefore, raises the heart beat.
Describe the effect of epinephrine, norepinephrine, glucagon, and thyroid hormone on the contractibility of the heart?
- EPI/NOR-EPI Raises the contraction.
- T3/T4 raises the contraction.
- Glucagon raises the contraction
The automatic center of the cardiac functions are located in the ?
The great cardiac veins drains blood from the heart muscle to the?
The serious membrane covering the outer surface of the heart is?
The heart lies in the?
What controls the blood within the capillary bed, and what controls it?
Pre-capillary Sphincter; controlled by paracrine factors and local hormones.
What regulates the vasomotion?
Net hydrostatic pressure forces water ______of the capillary; net osmotic pressure forces water ______of a capillary?
What is the major determinant of blood flow rate?
Peripheral Resistance (the resistance of the arterial system).
What are the types of Capillary?
- Continous Capillary (central nervous system)
- Fenestrated Capillary (Endocrine Organ)
- Sinusoid Capillary (gaps between them) (Liver)
What is venoconstriction?
When there is a major hemorrhage, systemic veins constrict to keep the blood volume int he capillaries and the arterial system to near normal volume.
What is Osmotic Pressure?
Osmotic pressure is the pressure that must be applied to prevent osmotic movement across membranes. A higher concentration of solute in solution increases the solution osmotic pressure.
What is filtration?
Removal of solutes as a solution flows through a porous membrane.
- Capillary filtration occurs with water and solutes being forced across the capillary walls leaving larger solutes and protein in the blood stream. Filtration occurs in the arterial end of the capillary, where capillary hydrostatic pressure is Highest.
- Reabsorption occurs as the result of osmosis (diffusion) venule side of the capillary.
Explain Reflex Control of Cardiovascular Function?
The control of Cardiovascular Reflex is done by negative feedback system. 2 receptors system monitors chances in arterial blood, pressure, pH concentrations and dissolve gases; BARORECEPTORS REFLEXES and CHEMORECEPTORS REFLEXES.
Baroreceptors monitors the degree of stretches in the walls of an EXPANDABLE organs.Located on 1. base of the internal carotid artery 2. pockets in the walls of the aortic sinuses 3. wall of the right atrium.
- Aortic Baroreceptors monitor blood pressure within the ascending aorta. Any changes triggers the aortic reflex which adjust blood pressure to maintain normal blood flow to the systemic circuit.
- Carotid Sinus Baroreceptors trigger reflexes that maintain adequate blood flow to the brain.
When blood pressure falls below normal, baroreceptors output is halt accordingly. An increase in cardiac output due to stimulation of SNS tot he heart, results in stimulation of cardioaccelleratory system. Widespread peripheral vasoconstriction occur to restore the normal blood volume in the body.
Explain Chemoreceptors Relexes?
Involves sensory neurons. Chemoreceptors respond to changes in carbon dioxide, oxygen, and pH levels in blood and cerebrospinal fluids. Located in the carotid bodies, situated in the neck near the carotid sinus, and aortic bodies, near the arc of the aorta.
Describe how ADH, ANGIOTENSIN II, and EPO affect the cardiovascular system?
- ADH, secreted in the posterior pituitary gland in response to DECREASE in blood volume; causing peripheral vasoconstriction that elevates the blood volume pressure. Inhibits urination and conservation of water in the kidneys.
- Angiotensis II appears when renin is release int he blood. AgII causes adrenal production of Aldosterone that causes Na3 retention and K+ loss by kidneys. Stimulates thirst and cardiac output; that triggers arteriole constriction, in turn elevation systemic blood pressure.
- EPO, acts directly on blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction, thereby increasing blood pressure.
What is Immunity?
Immunity is the ability to resist infection and disease through the activation of ADAPTIVE (specific) DEFENSES.
Disease causing organism
What are lymphatic system consist of?
- 1. Lymph, a fluid that resembles plasma but contains much lower concentration of suspended proteins.
- 2. Lympathic Vessels, often called lympatics, which begins in peripheral tissues and connects to veins.
- 3. Lymphoid Tissues and Lymhoid Organs scattered throughout the body.
- 4. Lymphocytes and smaller number of phagocytes and other cells.
What is the function of Lymphatic System?
The primary function of lymphatic system is to produce, maintain, and distribute lymphocytes that provide defense against infections and other environmental hazards.
What is the smallest lymphatic vessel called?
- Lymphatic Capillaries <Terminal Capillaries>
- - Endothelium of the lympathic capillaries are not bound tighly together, but they overlap.
- - Region of overlap act as a one way valve.
- - Permits fluids,solutes,large proteins, bacteria and viruses to enter the lymphatic system.
- Lymphatic capillaries are absent in areas that lack a blood supply, such as cornea of the eye. The bone morrow and central nervous system also lack of lymphatic vessels.
What are the Lymp-Collecting Vessels?
Vessels that collect lymph from the lymphatic capillaries; 2 sets, Superficial Lymphatics and Deep Lymphatics.
What is Superficial Lymphatics?
Located in the subcutenous layer deep tot he skin. In the areolar tissues of the mucous membrane lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tract.
Deep Lymphatics larger lymphatic vessels that accompany deep arteries and vein supplying skeletal muscles and other organs of the neck, limbs, and trunk.
Superficial and Deep Lymphatics converge to a larger vessel called LYMPHATIC TRUNKS.
Trunks empty into two large collecting vessels: THORACIC DUCT AND RIGHT LYMPHATIC DUCT.
Describe the Thoracic Duct and Right Lymphatic Duct?
The Thoracic Duct collects lymphs from the body's LEFT superior and ALL inferior from the diaphragm. ie:
The Right Lymphatic Ducts collects lymphs from the right side of the body superior to the diaphragm.
What is Cisterna Chyli?
Located at the base of the thoracic duct.
Receives lymphs from the inferior part of the abdomen.
What is MALT?
Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue - Commonly found in digestive, respiratory,urinary and reproductive tract.
What is Lymphocytes?
Account to 20-30% of leukocytes that are constantly circulating in the blood stream.
What are the type of Lymphocytes?
- T-Cells - From the Thymus
- B- Cells - From the bones
- NK Cells - Natural Killer, developed in the red-bone-morrow (distinctive biochemical and functional characteristics.
What are the types of T-Cells?
The primary types of T-Cells includes;
These T-Cells are involved in the production of CELL-MEDIATED-IMMUNITY or cellular immunity.
- Cytotoxic T cells <direct cellular attack>
- Memory T cells
- Helper T cells
- Suppressor T cell
Lymph from the right arm,right half of the head, and the right chest id received by the?
Right Thoracic Duct.
NOT A QUESTION.
B-CELL can differentiate into PLASMA CELL, which produce ANTIBODIES that react with specific chemical targets called ANTIGEN.
Antibodies in the body fluids are called IMMUNOGLOBULINS. B-CELLS are responsible for the ANTI-BODY (HUMORAL) MEDIATED IMMUNITY
Describe NK Cells?
NK Cells <large granular lymphocytes> attack foreign cells,normal cells infected with viruses, and cancer cells. NK Cells are responsible for immunological surveillance.
What is Lymphoid Tissue and expand?
Lymphoid Tissues are connective tissues DOMINATED by LYMPHOCYTES.
What is Tonsil and what are the types of Tonsils?
Tonsil is a large lymphoid nodule in the walls of the pharynx. Left and Right palatine tonsils are located posterior, inferior margin of the oral cavity; A single pharyngeal tonsil <adenoid> lies in posterior nasopharynx; a pair of lingual tonsils lie deep to the mucous epithelium covering the base of the tongue.
What is Lymph Node and describe?
Lymph Node is covered with fibrous connective tissue capsule.
Blood vessels and nerves reach the lymph node at a shallow indentation called the HILLUM.
Describe Lymph Nodes?
- 1. 1 mm to 25 mm
- 2. greatest number is located in the neck, armpits, and groin.
- 3. covered with dense connective tissue
- 4. fibrous partitions are called TRABECUALAE
- 5. Shallow indentation where the blood vessels and nerves reach is called HILUM
- 6. Affarent is the vessel moving lymphs IN
- 7. Efferent is the vessel moving lymphs OUT
Lymph Node Functions?
- Lymph Node purifies lymphs before it reaches the veins.
- 99% of the antigens in the lymphs are removed.
- Fixed macrophages in the walls of the lymphatic sinuses engulf debris and pathogens in lymphs as it flows by.
- Antigens removed in this way is processed by macrophages and PRESENTED to nearby lymphocytes.
- Other pathogens binds in the receptor of DENDRITIC CELLS where they can stimulate lymphocytes activities.
- Located int he mediastinum
- Large during childhood but atrophies by aging
- Thymosin from the thymus promotes the development and maturation of lymphocytes.
- Contains the Largest collection of lymphoid in the body.
- Spleen filters blood vs. Lymph Node filters Lymphs.
- Removes abnormal blood cells and other blood components by phagocytosis.
- Stores Iron recycled from reb blood cells
- Initiating immune response by B-Cells and T Cells in response to antigen circulating in the blood.
- White Pulp - group of lymphocytes
- Red Pulp - groups of red-blood-cells
THE LYMPHATIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES pg.776
What are the two categories of body defenses?
Innate (non-specific) defenses - do not distinguish one type of threat from another.
Adaptive (specific) defenses - protection against particular threat (pathogen).
What are the Phagocytes that engulfs pathogens and cell debris?
- Fixed macrophage
- Free Macrophage
What is immunological surveillance?
Destruction of abnormal cells by NK cells in peripheral tissues.
What are the Innate Defenses?
- Physical barriers: keeps hazardous organisms ad materials outside the body.
- Phagocytes: engulfs pathogens and cell debris.
- Immunological Surveillance: destruction of abnormal cells by NK Cells in peripheral tissues.
- Complements System: consist of circulating proteins that assist the antibodies in destruction of pathogens.
- Inflammatory Response: tissue level response that limits the spread of an injury (Mast Cell).
- Fever: elevation of body temperature that accelerates tissue metabolism and the activity of defenses.
How does NK cell activates (kills)?
- 1. Recognition: if a cell has an unusual components in its plasma membrane, the NK Cell recognize that and activates by attaching to its target cell.
- 2. The golgi apparatus inside the NK Cell rotates until it lines up towards the abnormal cell.
- 3. Then, it releases a protein called PERFORIN towards the abnormal cell. The perforin deiffuses into the membrane of the abnormal cell and creates a pores (holes).
- 4. The formation of pores in the abnormal cells allows fluids and solutes to pass in and out, resulting in swelling and inflation of the intercellular environment; then explode (Lysis).
What is Interferons?
Interferons are small proteins released by activated lymphocytes and macrophages.
It binds to the normal cell membrane and by second messenger
triggers production of antiviral proteins within the cytoplasm.
Antiviral proteins do not prevent the virus from entering the cell, but interfere with viral replication inside the cell. Effectively slowing the spread of viral infections.
- Interferon is a type of CYTOKINES.
- Types of Interferons <cytokines>
- ALPHA - produced by infected cells to attrack and stimulate NK cells and enhance resistance to viral infection.
- BETA - secreted by fibroblasts, slow inflammation in a damaged area.
- GAMMA - secreted by T-Cells and NK Cells, stimulated macrophage activity.
What is Cytokines?
Cytokine is a chemical messenger that is released by cell tissues to coordinate local activities. Most cells produced cytokines for cell-to-cell communications.
Explain Complement System?
- Classic Pathways
- 1. The antibodies attach to the bacterial wall.
- 2. C1 finds it and attach to the handle of the
- 3. With c1 attached to the antibodies, which is
- attached to the cell wall, C1 act as an enzyme, triggering a series of reaction
- involving other complement proteins (c2, c3, c3b).
- 4. C3 B attach to the cell wall of the bacteria.
- 5. The once inactive C3b is now activated by
- attaching to the cell wall.
- 6. PORE FORMATION BEGINS!
- 6.1 Once the activated C3b protein attached to the cell wall, additional complement proteins coats the bacterium and form a membrane
- attack complex, that destroys the integrity of the target cell by lysis.
- 7. ENHANCE PHAGOCYTOSIS: A coating of
- complement protein and antibodies, both attracts phagocytes and makes the
- target cell easier to engulf. Macrophage membranes contains receptors that
- detect and bind to complement proteins and bound antibodies <AKA Opsonization>.
- 8. HISTAMINE RELEASE: Release of histamine
- by mast cells and basophils increases the degree of local inflammation and
- accelerates blood flow to the region.
Describe the Alternative
Pathways of Complement System?
The alternative pathways begins when several
complement proteins, notably properdin, interact in the plasma.This interaction can be triggered by exposure to foreign materials, such as the capsule of bacterium. The end result is the attachment of an activated C3b protein to the bacterial cell wall.
- 1. When tissue is damage, chemical changes
- in interstitial fluid occur.
- 2. The MAST CELLS release HISTAMINE and
- 3. Histamine and Heparin causes
- REDNESS,SWELLING,WARMTH,AND PAIN. Dilation of blood vessels, increased blood
- flow, increased vessel permeability. CLOT formation renders temporary
- 3.1 Phagocyte Attraction: Phagocytes move
- in to the injury site especially neutrophils.
- 3.2 Cytokines are release to remove debris
- by macrophages and neutrophils. Fibroblast is stimulated to make fibrin.
4. Tissue Repair: pathogen removal, clot erosion, scar tissue formation
What are the forms of Immunity?
- Innate Immunity
- Adaptive Immunity
- * Active Immunity
- * Passive Immunity
What is Active Immunity?
Develops after exposure to an antigen.
Where is the coronary sinus drain into?
Each heart beat begins with an action potential generated at a pacemaker called ________?
note: SA Node and AV Node stimulates the contractile muscle of the heart to propagate electrical impulse.
Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle tissue contract on its own. This automatic conduction is called ________?
In the myocardial muscle, what protein connects one cell to another?
What is the formula for cardiac output?
CO=HR X SV Heart rate X Stroke Volume
SV is the difference between EDV-ESV
Where is the Autonomic Headquarters of Cardiac Control located?
In the Medulla Oblongata
What does cardio acceleratory and cardioinhibitory do?
- Located in the autonomic headquarters of cardiac control (medulla oblongata): cardioacceleratory center controls the sympathetic neurons that increase the heart rate. Cardioinhibitory center controls the parasympathetic neurons that slows the heart rate.
Explain Atrial Reflex; Hormones; SV; effects on Cardiac Output?
ATRIAL REFLEX (bainbridge reflex) adjust the HR by due to increased in venous return. activation of sympathetic due to mx stretch in the atrium.
HORMONES accelerate the SA Node Firing by releasing E/N-Epinephrine, also affect the contractile cell.
SV changes in the preload and after load (EDV-ESV activates the atrial reflex.
What are the layers of tunica intima?
- Elastic membrane
- Endothelium (riffled for artery)
- (smooth for vein)
What are the layers of tunica media?
- Elastic fiber
- Smooth muscle
- External elastic membrane
What are the layer of tunica externa?
Collagen fibers and connective tissue sheet.
Enumerate the three types of artery and identify their functions.
Elastic Artery: major branches of artery that takes away blood from the heart ie; common carotid, subclavian, common iliac.
Muscular Artery: thick tunica media, distributes blood to the skeletal muscles. External carotid of the neck, brachial arteries of the arm and femoral arteries.
Arterioles: pre cappilary section.
Enumerate the three types of capillaries?
Capillaries are made of simple squamous epithelial tissues.
Continuous Capillaries: endothelial cell completely encircles the lumen. Made of simple endothelial cell.
Fenestrated Capillaries: contain windows and pores that allows fluid exchange ie; blood vessels in the variety of endocrine system.
Sinusoids: resembles fenestrated capillaries, flattened and irregularly shaped. Have gaps between adjacent endothelial cell.
What is capillary autoregulation?
Capillary Autoregulation controls the blood flow i the capillary bed through opening and closing of the capillary sphincter, in order to maintain homeostasis.
Blood is transported through the venous system by means of?
- Muscular Contractions
- Respiratory Pump
The most important factor in vascular resistance is?
Diameter of lumen of blood vessels
Net hydrostatic pressure forces water _______?
Net osmotic pressure forces water _______?
- Out of capillary
- Into capillary
Name the lymphoid tissues and organ?
- Tonsils glands
- Thymus gland
Name the Lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes?
Cervical lymph nodes
Thoracic duct ( drains the superior left side of the face, arm chest, and everything inferior from the diaphragm.
Right lymphatic duct (drains the right side of chest, arm, face.
- Axillary lymph nodes
- Lymphatics of mammary gland
Cysterna Chyli (where everything inferior from the diaphragm converges before draining in the thoracic duct.
Lymphatics of upper lymph
Lumbar lymph Node
Pelvic Lymph Node
Inguinal lymph Node
Lymphatics of lower lymb
What are the type of lymphocytes, define their functions?
Tm - memory lymphocytes, makes duplicate T-cell for feature encounter with the antigen.
Th - helper lymphocytes, help identify and activate B cell for for proliferation of plasma cells.
Ts - suppressor T cell, inhibits T-cell and B-Cell from proliferating maintain balance.
Tc - cytotoxic T-Cell, attacks any abnormal cell marked with bacteria or viruses.
If the thymus fails to produce thymic hormones, which population of lymphocytes would be affected?
What is the function of spleen?
- Largest collection oF lymphoid tissue in the body.
- Removes abnormal blood cell by phagocytosis.
- Filters blood before it reach the the blood vessels.
- Stores iron from RBC
- Initiate immune response by b-cells and T-cells
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM PG. 814
What are the functions of respiratory system?
- Extensive area for gas exchange
- More air to and from exchange surface
- Protecting the gas exchange surface
- Sound production
- Facilitate detection of odor; air in olfactory
The nasal cavity is line by what type of tissue?
Pseudostratified Cilliated Epithelium
Respiratory system has two system, UPPER and LOWER Respiratory System. EXPAND?
- Upper Respiratory System consist of;
- Nose, Nasal Cavity, Paranasal Sinuses, Pharynx.
- Lower Respiratory System;
- Larynx (voicebox), Trachea (windpipe), Bronchi, Bronchioles, and Alveolei of the lungs.
What are the CONDUCTION PORTION of the respiratory tract?
Conduction portion of respiratory tract begins at the entrance of nasal cavity, extends to larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi and larger bronchioles.
What are the RESPIRATORY portion of the respiratory tract?
Includes the smallest delicate BRONCHIOLES and the ALVEOLI.
What is NASOPHARYNX?
- Lined by Pseudostratified Collumnar Epithelium.
- Supported by Hard Palate
- Consist of Auditory Tube
- Pharyngeal Tonsils
What is OROPHARYNX?
- Lined by Statified Squamous Epithelium (Non-Keraonized).
- Supported by Skeletal Muscles
- Palatine Tonsil
- Lingual Tonsil
What are the Components of the Respiratory System?
- Nasal Conchae
- Nasal Cavity
- Sphenoidal Sinus
- Internal Nares
- Right and Left lungs
What is RESPIRATORY MUCOSA?
What lined the respiratory mucosa?
What keeps the mucosa moist?
- A mucosa (respiratory), lines the conducting portion of the respiratory system.
- Consiste of epithelium and underlying layer of areolar tissue.
THE LAMINA PROPRIA in the underlying layer of areolar tissue that supports the respiratory epithelium.
The upper respiratory system, TRACHEA, BRONCHI and LAMINA PROPIA contains mucous glands
that discharge their secretions into the epithelial surface.
Nasal cavity and the superior portion of the pharynx is lined by PSEUDOSTRATIFIED CILIATED COLUMNAR EPITHELIUM.
The inferior portion of the pharynx is lined by NON-KERATONIZED STRATIFIED SQUAMOUS EPITHELIUM
Oral Cavity is lined by STRATIFIED SQUAMOUS EPITHELIUM
What are the three large cartilages that form the larynx?
- THYROID CARTILAGE
- CRICOID CARTILAGE
Thyroid Cartilage is the largest laryngeal cartilage. MADE OF HYALINE CARTILAGE, it forms the most anterior and lateral wall of the larynx (ADAMS APPLE, LARYNGEAL PROMINENCE).
What is PHONATION?
- Sound production is called PHONATION
- Line by CILLATED PSEUDOSTRATIFIED EPITHELIUM
The pitch of the sound depends on the diameter, length, and tension of the vocal folds. The diameter and length are directly related to the size of your larynx.
- Lined by PDEUDOSTRATIFIED COLUMNAR EPITHELIUM.
- C-Shape allows expantions due to food.
- Trachealis muscle connects the two open ends.
- Elastic ligament connects each tracheal cartilage.
- The submucosa contains mucous gland that communicate with the epithelial surface through a number of secretory ducts.
THE PRIMARY BRONCHI; Expand?
- Lined by PSUDOSTRATIFIED CUBOIDAL EPITHELIUM.
- Right and Left Primary Bronchi
- Internal Ridge called CARINA separates the two
- Has C-Shaped rings.
- RIGHT PRIMARY BRONCHUS IS LARGER because it supplies THREE LOBES
- RIGHT lung has 3 bronchi branches
- RIGHT Lung has 3 Lobes (Superior, Middle, Inferior Lobe)
- LEFT PRIMARY BRONCHUS supplies two lobes.
- LEFT has 2 bronchi branches
The primary bronchi and their branches form the BRONCHIAL TREE, because they are outside the lungs (termed EXTRAPULMONARY BRONCHI).
The branches inside the lungs are called INTRAPULMONARY BRONCHI.
Right Lung has 10 Bronchiopumonary branches
Left Lung has 10 but terminal bronchioles brnches reduced it to 8-9.
Each primary bronchus travels to a GROOVE along the medial surface or its lung called HILUM.
- Deliver air to the gas exchange of the lungs
- Lined with Simple-Cuboidal-Epithelium (Respiratory and Terminal Bronchiole).Contains only scattered cillia (no underlying mucuos membrane).
ALVEOLAR DUCTS and ALVEOLI; Expand?
- Lined with Simple Squamous Epithelium.
- Respiratory duct is connected to individual Alveoli.
- Multiple alveoli in a region is called Alveoli Ducts.
- Alveolar duct ends at Alveolar Sac.
is a squamous epithelial cell that is the site of gas diffusion. Roaming macrophage or DUST CELLS, phagocyte particles that have eluded other defenses.
, called SEPTAL CELLS are scattered among the squamous cells. It also produce SURFACTANT,
which reduce SURFACE TENSION
and keep the ALVEOLI OPEN.
Where does gas exchange occurs?
Gas exchange occur in the RESPIRATORY MEMBRANE of the ALVEOLI.
- Has three layers:
- 1. Squamous epithelial cells, lining the alveoli
- 2. Endothelial Cells lining the adjacent capillary
- 3. Fuse basement membranes that lie between the alveolar and endothelial cells.
Where is the AIR EXCHANGE OCCUR?
The Blood Supply of the Lungs:
One supplies the RESPIRATORY PORTION of the lungs, the other perfuses the CONDUCTING PORTION.
The respiratory exchange surfaces receives blood from the ARTERY of the PULMONARY CIRCUIT.
The ENDOTHELIAL CELLS of the alveolar capillaries are the primary source of ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING-ENZYME (ACE)
Tissues of conducting passageways of your lungs receives oxygen and nutrients from the capillaries SUPPLIED FROM ARTERY FROM THORACIC AORTA.
Venous blood from the bronchial capillaries empties into BRONCHIAL VEINS (bypassing the systemic circuit).
Pulmonary veins leave the lungs to the LEFT ATRIUM.
THE PLEURAL CAVITIES; Expand?
- Plural cavity is lined by SEROUS MEMBRANE called PLEURA (p. PLURAE).
- Consist of two layers:
- 1. VICERAL cover the outer surface of lungs
- 2. PARIETAL PLEURA covers the inner surface of the thoracic wall.
- Secretes PLEURAL FLUID that provides moisture and lubricating cushion between pleurae.
!!! PRESSURE GRADIENT
- Pressure outside and inside the lungs is in constant gradience.
- Movement of air in and out of the lungs is influenced by increased and decreased of pressure inside and outside the lungs.
When the volume of lungs decrease, the outside pressure increase <EXPIRATION>
When the volume of lungs increased, the outside pressure decreased <INHALATION>
THE RESPIRATORY MUSCLES
What are the muscles used during inhalation?
- Major muscle used to inhale are:
- - DIAPHRAGM
- - EXTERNAL INTERCOSTAL MX
- Accessory Mx during inhalation:
- - Sternocleidomastoid mx
- - Scalene mx
- - Pectoralis minor
- - Serratus anterior mx
What are the primary muscles of exhalation?
Accessory mx of exhalation are:
- - Internal intercostal mx
- - Transversus Thorasis mx
- - External Oblique
- - Rectus abdominus mx
- - Internal oblique mx
What is compliance?
- Compliance is a term for indication of lung's expandability.
- LOWER Compliance=GREATER force required to fill the lungs.
- GREATER Compliance=LESS force to fill the lungs.
TWO MODES OF BREATHING: Describe?
- 1. QUITE breathing <eupnea>
- - Inhalation is ACTIVE
- - Exhalation is PASSIVE
- 2. FORCED breathing <hyperpnea>
- - Inhalation is ACTIVE
- - Exhalation is ACTIVE
Resting Tidal Volume
Amount of air you move in and out of the lungs, when AT REST (500mL male and female).
ERV Expiratory Reserve Volume
Amount of air you can voluntary expel after a complete respiratory cycle.
Remaining air in the lungs, even after maximal exhalation.
Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Amount of air you can take-in over and above the resting respiratory cycle.
Amount of air we can take in after a complete quite respiratory cycle.
Functional Residual Capacity
Amount of air in the left in the lungs after a complete quite respiratory cycle.
Maximum amount of air that we can move in and out of our lungs in a single respiratory cycle.
Total Lung Capacity
Total volume capacity of the entire lungs.
O2 travels from Alveolus>Pulmonary Membrane (gas exchange occur)>Pulmonary Capillaries>O2 binds with Hb molecules
- Hb molecules binds to iron ions of center of the hemes; thus each hemoglobin molecule can bind to 4 molecules of oxygen.
Therefore increase the amount of oxygen bound in the Hb heme, also called HEMOGLOBIN SATURATION.
Enumerate three ways of oxygen diffusion to RBC?
- Diffusion to plasma <in solution form>
- Diffusion to Cytoplasma <in solution form>
- Diffusion to hemoglobin <not is solution form anymore>
!!! CO2 can attach to hemoglobin
!!! Most CO2 is BICARBONATE IONS
!!! BICARBONATE IONS MAKES CO2
CO2 attached to hemoglobin in four ways. Expand?
- Attached to PLASMA
- Attached to CYTOPLASM
- Attached to HEMOGLOBIN
- Attached to BICARBONATE ION
How does temperature and Ph affects Hemoglobin Saturation?
HIGHER Temperature DECREASES O2 Saturation
HIGHER Ph INCREASE the O2 Saturation
LOWER Ph DECREASE the O2 Saturation
CARBONIC ACID FORMATION
How is carbonic acid formed in the blood?
70% of CO2 absorbed by the blood is transported as molecules of carbonic acid.
CO2 is converted to carbonic acid through the ENZYME CARBONIC ANHYDRACE in RBC.
The carbonic molecules immediately disassociate onto a hydrogen ion and a BICARBONATE ION.
SUMMARY OF CO2 TRANSPORT IN THE BLOOD:
- CO2 diffuses into the blood stream
- 93% diffuse to RBC
- 70% converted to Carbonic Anhydrase
- 23% binds to heboglobin, also called CARBOAMINOHEMOGLOBIN
- RBC moves to Systemic Capillary
- RBC gives O2 to peripheral cells
- Peripheral Cells gives out CO2 to bloodstream
- Hemoglobin pick up CO2
- RBC Leaves the Systemic Capillary
- Back to the Pulmonary Capillary
- RBC gives out the CO2 from the pulmonary capillary, back to alveolus.
What Control Respirations?
Neurons in the MEDULA OBLANGATA and PONS, along with RESPIRATORY REFLEXES, Control respiration.
Respiratory Rhytmicity Center, located int he medula oblangata, sets the deph, cycles and contractions of respiratory muscles.
- PONS- Involuntary Control (using chemoreceptors located in the aortic bodies, carotid bodies, 4th ventricles; that measures O2, CO2, and Ph)
- Cerebrum- Voluntary Control
Respiratory Rhytmicity Centers: Expand?
The most basic level of respiratory control involves PACEMAKER CELLs in MEDULA OBLANGATA
The Rhythmicity Centers set pace of respiration by adjusting the activities of PACEMAKERS and MX.
Rhythmicity centers can be divided into;
- DORSAL RESPIRATORY GROUP (DRG) Inspiratory Center
- - Internal intercostal mx
- - Diaphragm
- contains neurons that control lower motor neurons controlling the intercostal mx and diagphragm.
- VENTRAL RESPIRATORY GROUP (VRG).
- - Accessory Inspiratory mx
- - Accessory Expiratory mx
- Functions only when ventilations demands increase and accessory respiratory mx becomes involve.
What is Inflation Reflexes?
Inflation Reflexes prevents overexpansion of the lungs during forced breathing.
What is Deflation Reflex?
Deflation reflex functions only dyring forced exhalation, when both the inspiratory and expiratory centers are active.
VOLUNTARY CONTROL OF RESPIRATION
Strong emotions such as anger, rage and fear stimulates the hypothalamus, which activates the symphatetic or parasymphatetic division of the autonomic nervious system.
Sympathetic stimulation causes bronchodialation.
Parasympathetic stimulation has opposite effect.
Differentiate EXTERNAL RESPIRATION to INTERNAL RESPIRATION?
External Respiration-exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between interstitial fluid and external environment (include pulmonary ventilation).
Internal Respiration-exchanges of oxygen and carbon dioxyde between interstitial fluid and cells.
Differentiate ANOXIA and HYPOXIA?
- Hypoxia is a complete shuts-off of oxygen.
- Anoxia is death of tissues as a result of hypoxia.
What is respiratory cycle?
A single cycle of inhalation and exhalation.
What is Henry's law of gas?
The amount of gas in a solution is equal to the partial pressure of that gas.
What is respiratory rhythmicity sets?
Respiratory rhythmicity, sets the pace for respiration.
What is apneustic center do?
Apneustic Center cause strong, sustained inhalation movements.
What is a pneumotaxic centers do?
Pneumotaxic centers inhibit the apneustic centers and promote exhalation.
The hard palate separates the?
Nasal cavity from Oral cavity
When the diagpram and external intercostal muscles contract?
The intrapleural pressure decrease.
HEMOGLOBIN AND BPG
RBC does not have mitochordria. Therefore, the cells produced ATP only by glycolysis (breaking down of sugar). Glycolysis in a RBC generates 2,3-BIPHOSPHOGLYCERATE (BPE) What is the effect of BPG to oxygen?
HIGHER Concentration of BPG DECREASE the oxygen concentration in the heme (Hb).
The concentration of BPG can be increase by increasing the Ph.
For any partial pressure of oxygen, if the concentration of 2,3 bisphospoglycerate (BPG) INCREASE__________?
The amount of oxygen released by hemoglobin will INCREASE.
An increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood causes chemoreceptors to stimulate the respiratory centers, resulting in _________?
Increase in respiratory rate to replace the CO2 with fresh supply of oxygen.
How are pneumocytes type II involved in keeping the alveoli open?
Pneumocytes type II makes SURFACTANT that keeps the alveolus from surface tension.
What is the functional difference between DRG and VRG of medula oblangata?
DRG- Inspiratory Centers that involuntarily control the inhalation process by controlling the external intercostal mx and diaphragm.
VRG- functions ONLY when ventilation demands increase in accessory respiratory muscles becomes involve.
Where and hat does chemoreceptors Reflexes monitor?
Chemoreceptors Reflexes are located in the aortic body, carotid body and 4th Ventricle.
Chemoreceptors Reflexes monitor levels of carbon dioxyde and CSF in the blood.
What is Alimentary Canal?
The digestive tract or GI (Gastro-Intestinal Tract).
What makes up the Digestive Tract?
Mouth (Oral Cavity), Throat (Pharynx), esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines.
What are the accessory digestive organs?
- Glandular organs
- Salivary glands
What are the Functions of Digestive System?
- (putting food in the mouth)
- Mechanical processing of food
- (chemical breakdown)
- (release of buffer, water,acids, enzymes by the epithelium of digestive tract)
- (movement of organic molecules from digestive tract to interstitial cells)
- (removal of wasted products, dehydration and pooping)
Abdominopelvic Cavity contains the PERITONEAL CAVITY, which is lined by SERIOUS Membrane.
This serious membrane is divided into two parts, what are they?
The SEROSA <VISERAL> Peritonium covers organs which projects into the peritoneal cavity.
The PARIETAL PERITONEUM lines the inner surface of the body wall.
THE SERIOUS MEMBRANE LINING THE PERITONEAL CAVITY CONTINUOUSLY PRODUCE PERITONEAL FLUID WHICH PROVIDES CONTINUOUS LUBRICATION.
What are the major subdivisions of the digestive tract?
What are the Accessory Organs of the Digestive tract?
- Major Subdivisions of the Digestive Tract:
- Oral Cavity, Teeth and Tongue
- Small Intestines
- Large Intestines
- Accessory Organs of the Digestive Tract:Salivary Glands
- Kidney, Pancreas, Duodenum are located RETROPERITONEUM (Behind Peritoneal).
What is Ascites?
An abnormal increase of peritoneal fluid, caused by kidney disease, liver disease, hear failure. Excess fluid violates the peritoneal wall and migrate between the peritoneal cavity, causing back pain, heart burn indigestion and lower back pain.
What is the Layers and functions of Mesentery?
Mesentery is a double sheets of serious membrane that CONNECTS the PARIETAL PERITONEUM with the VISCERAL PERITONEUM.
THE LESSER OMENTUM
- - organ stabilization
- - prevent intestine from becoming enlarge
- during digestion process.
stabilized the position of the stomach
and provides vessel route for entering and leaving the liver.
THE FALCIFORM LIGAMENT
stabilized the position of the liver relative to the diaphragm and abdominal wall.
THE GREATER OMENTUM
Hangs like an apron from the lateral and inferior border of the stomach. Contains adipose tissue that provides padding and protecting across the anterior lateral portion of the abdomen.
THE MESENTERY PROPER
suspend all but the first 10inch of the small intestine.
- A MESOCOLON mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine.
- - The ascending colon, descending colon, and the rectum of the large intestine are fused tot he wall <RETROPERITONIUM>
- The TRANSVERSE MESOCOLON supports the transverse colon
- The SIGMOID COLON = sigmoid colon
HISTOLOGICAL ORGANIZATION OF THE DIGESTIVE TRACT
What are the 4 major layers of the digestive tract?
- 1. The mucosa
- 2. The submucosa
- 3. The muscularis externa
- 4. The serosa
<simple stratified epithelium
> is a mucous membrane, consist of epithelium, moistened by gland secretion and LAMINA PROPIA of areolar tissue.
THE DIGESTIVE EPITHELIUM
What are the epithelial tissue layers of digestive organs made of?
Mucosal epithelium is either a simple or stratified epithelium.
- Oral Cavity, Pharynx and Esophagus - are lined with STRATIFIED
- SQUAMOUS EPITHELIUM.
- Stomach, small intestine, and almost the whole lenght of the Large Intestine is lined by
- SIMPLE COLUMNAR EPITHELIUM. Simple Columnar Epithelium contains mucous cell.
What is Plicae Circularis?
Plicae Circulares is a permanent transverse folds of the digestive tract, which increase the surface area available for absorption.
Enumerate the three salivary glands?
PAROTID GLANDS- Lie inferior to the zygomatic arch. Produce serious secretion containing large amount of SALIVARY AMYLASE (Enzyme that break down Carbohydrate).
SUBLINGUAL GLAND- Located under the floor of the mouth, covered by mucous membrane of the mouth. Produce a mucous secretion that act as a buffer and lubricant.
SUBMANDIBULAR SALIVARY GLAND- located on the floor of the mouth, along the inner surface of the mandible within a depression called mandibular groove. Cells of mandibular gland secrete a mixture of BUFFERS, GLYCOPROTEINS called MUSIN, and SALIVARY AMYLASE. 70% of saliva comes from submandibular gland.
Where is saliva controlled from?
Each salivary gland has parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation. Parasympathetic outflow originates in the salivatory nuclei of medulla oblangata.
What is mastication?
What is an occlusal surface and how many teeth does a normal adult have?
- BICUSPIDS (premolar)=2
How many teeth are there in dicidious teeth?
There are 20 diciduous teeth <milk teeth><primary teeth>, that will be replaced with permanent teeth in the future.
- DECIDUOUS MOLARS=2
multiply by 4=20 total temporary teeth.
Esophagus enters the abdominopelvic cavity through a structure called?
Esophageal hiatus. an opening int he diaphragm.
Esophagus wall contains mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis layer.
The mucosa of the esophagus contains NON-KERATONIZED STRATIFIED SQUAMOUS EPITHELIUM.
ESOPHAGEAL GLAND secretes fluid to extend the reduce friction between bolus and esophageal lining.
How are the activities of the Digestive tract regulated?
Digestive tract is regulated by:
- LOCAL MECHANISM
What are the layers of the digestive tract?
- 1. Mucosa: the epithelial layer that performs chemical digestion and absoption of nutrients.
- 2. Submucosa: connective tissue layer containing lymphatic and blood vessels ans submucosal nerve flexus.
- 3. Muscularis Externa: smooth muscle layer containing the myenteric nerve plexus.
- 4. Serosa: the outermost layer, epithelium and connective tissue that forms the visceral peritoneum.
what are the three regions of small intestines?
What are the four regions of the stomach?
What are the layers of the G.I. Tract fro superficial to deep?
- Muscularis Externa
Oral cavity is lined by what type of epithelium?
Stratified Squamous Epithelium
What are the primary digestive functions of liver, pancreas, and gallbladder?
Acidic environmet of the stomach kills most microbs from food that we eat, denatures protein, helps breakdown plant cell walls and meat connective tissues, and activate pepsin.
Which hormones produce by duodenal enteroendocrine cells effectively coordinate digestive functions?
What is the hormone SECRETIN DO?
The hormone SECRETIN, stimulates pancreas to release fluid high in buffers to neutralized the chyme that enters the duodenum from the stomach.
If the small intestine did not secrete secretin, the Ph of the intestinal contents would be lower than normal.
What are the four region of COLON?
- Ascending Colon
- Transverse Colon
- Descending Colon
- Sigmoid Colon
Regulation of qastric activity:
describe what occurs to each phases of gastric activity?
- Cephalic Phase -thoughts and sight of food initiate the cephalic phase. The cns stimulates the submucosal plexus to stumulate production of gatric juisces from the ff.
- mucous cell- mucous
- g-cells- gastric
- chief cells- pepsinogen
- pariental cells- HCl
acids in the stomach converts pepsinogen to pepsin.
- Gastric phase- distention of the stomach stimulates release of histamine that binds int eh parietal cells, which stimulates acid secretion.
- neural innervation: stretch receptors and chemoreceptors triggers myenteric flexus that causes powerful contraction of the muscularis externa; also known as mixing waves. Increase secretion of gastrin reduce the gastric Ph.
Intestinal Phase- arrival of chimes in the small intestines. Chime leaving the stomach reduces the distention, therefore decreasing the stimulation of stretch receptors. Distention of duodinum by chime stimulates stretch receptorss and chemoreceptors that trigger the ENTEROGASTRIC REFLEX? Duodinum produce mucous to protect itself from acid damage from chyme. Enterogastric reflex stiumlate the contraction of pyloric sphincter to regulate the amount of chyme coming in.
- arrival of lipids and carbohydrates stimulate secretion of CCK CHOLECYSTOKIN and gastric inhibitory peptide GIP. A drop of 4.5 Ph stimulates secretion of SECRETIN. Partially digested protein in duodenum stimulate G-CELLS to secrete GASTRIN to speed up the gastric processing int eh stomach.
Define the following?
Chief Cells-abundant near the base of gastric gland. Secretes pepsinogen, which is converted to pepsin by stomach acid, to digest protein.
- Parietal Cells-from the gastric gland, secretes intrinsic factor and HCL.
- G-Cells-Abundant in gastric pit of pyloric antrhum, Secretes gastrin
- Mucous Cells-secretes mucous
What are the four hormones of duodenum (enteroendocrine cells).
- Gastrin- G-Cells - Duodenum
- - gastrin is release when G-cells are exposed to large quantity of undigested protein.
- Function: increase stomach process and stimulate production of gastric acid and enzymes (by parietal and chief cells).
- Secretin- Duodenum Gland
- - released when chyme from stomach arrived and enter the small intestines.
- Function: increase secretion of bile from liver and buffer from pancreas to increase the Ph of chymes and reduce gastric production.
- GIP Gastric inhibitory Peptide- Duodenum
- - when fats, carbs, glucose enter the small intestine.
- Functions: inhibit gastric activity by release of insulin from the pancreas. Other functions includes lipid synthesis in adipose tissue, increase use of glucose for skeletal muscles.
- CCK Cholecystokine- Duodenum
- - causes relaxation of the hepatopancreatic sphincter and contraction of the gall bladder.
- - accelerates production of all digestive enzymes.
- - reduce sensation of hunger
- - increase secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile into the duodenum.
What occurs when chymes arrives in the duodenum?
- Secretin is release which triggers the release of pancreatic secretion from the pancreas .
- - the secretion contains bicarbonate and phosphate buffers that help raise the Ph of chyme.
CCK also stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes.
What are the pancreatic enzymes?
Pancreatic alpa-amylase- breakdown carbohydrate.
Pancreatic Lipase- breakdown lipids
Nucleases- breakdown nucleotide, RNA/DNA
- Proteolytic Enzymes- accounts to 70% of pancreatic enzymes production. Breakdown of proteins
- - proteases: large protein complex
- - peptidase: small protein complex
Insulin-increase sensitivity if cells to breakdown sugar.
What are the proenzymes secreted by the pancreas?
Tripsinogen (tripsin) breakdown protein And activates other enzyme.
Proelatase (elastase) breakdown elastin
List the cells found in the pancreas and what are their functions?
- Pancreatic ISLET (ENDOCRINE CELLS)
- - secret insulin and glucagon into the blood stream to control sugar.
- Pancreatic ACINI CELLS (EXOCRINE CELLS)
- - secretes pancreatic juice; ie digestive enzymes, water and ions into the small intestine to neutralized acid in the chyme.
What is lacteal?
Lacteal is a lymphatic capillaries that transport material that cannot be absorb by the blood capillaries. Fatty acid are assembled into protein-lipid packages called CHYLOMICRONS. Lacteal takes this packets to the venous circulation through the thoracic duct which delivers lymph to the left subclavian vein.
What are the four lobes of the liver?
- Right lobe
- Left lobe
What are the three structures in each portal area of the liver lobule?
- 1. Branch of hepatic portal vein
- 2. Branch of hepatic artery proper
- 3. Small branch of bile duct.
What is the function of the liver?
- 1. Metabolic regulation
- 2. Hematological regulation
- 3. Bile production
metabolic regulation- carbohydrate, lipids, amino acid, liver store or breakdown reserves for metabolic demands.
hematological regulation- removal of circulating hormones, synthesis of plasma proteins, synthesis and secretion of bile.
What is porta hepatis?
Where all blood vessels converge into the liver.
What are liver cells called?
- Liver cells are called hepatocytes.
- - adjust the circulating levels of nutrients through selective absorption and secretion.
What is a liver lobule?
Basic functional units/ structure of the liver.
What is the function of bile?
Bile salts breaks large lipid droplets into smaller pieces to make it easier for the lipase to break it down.
What are the region of the gallbladder?
note: the hepatopancreatic sphincter encircles the duodenal papilla, duodenal ampulla all together.
Memorized in order!!!!!
- 1. Gastrin - Stomach - > GA
- 2. GIP - Pancreas
- Stomach - < GA
- 3. Secretin - Stomach - < GA
- Liver - > Bile
- Pancreas - > Alkaline Buffers
- 4. CCK - Stomach - < GA
- Pancreas - > Enzymes
- Gallbladder - contraction of smooth mx to eject the bile.
- Duodenum - causes relaxation of the hepatosphincter.
THYROID-STIMULATING HORMONE (TSH)
- anterior lobe
- thyrotropic releasing hormone (hypothalalmus)
- thyroid gland
- fx- secretion of thyroid hormones
- -increase thyroxin concentration in the blood.
- -increase metabolism of the carbohydrate catabolism.
ADENOCORTICOTROPIC HOMONE (ADH)
- anterior lobe
- corticotropin releasing hormone (crh)
- adrenal cortex (zona fasciculata)
- fx- secretion of glucocortisoids
- - cortisol
- - glucocorterone
FOLLICLE-STIMULATING HORMONE (FSH)
- anterior lobe
- follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- follicle cells of the ovaries
- fx-secretion of estrogen, follicle developmen
- anterior lobe
- prolactin releasing factor (PRF)
- mammary glands
- fx-production of milk
GROWTH HORMONE (GH)
- anterior lobe
- growthhormone releasing hormone (GH-RH)
- all cells
- fx-growth, protein synthesis,lipid mobilization and catabolism
MELANOCYTE-STIMULATING HORMONE (MSH)
- pars intermedia
- melanocyte-stimulating hormone-inhibiting hormone (MSH-IH)
- melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
- fx-increase melanin synthesis in epidermis
ATIDIURETIC HORMONE (ADH)
- posterior lobe
- transported along axons from posterior pit.
- antideuretic hormone
- fx-reabsorption of water, elevation of blood volume pressure
- posterior lobe
- transported along the axon of post pit.
- oxytocin (OXT)
- uterus, mammary glands (females)
- ductus deferens and prostate gland (males)
- fx-labor contractions, milk ejection, contraction of ductus deferens and prostate gland.
THYROID HORMONE (T3)
- thyroid gland
- tsh from the anterior pit lobe
- t3 - thyrothyrodine
- most cells
- increase energy utilization, oxygen consumption,growth and develoopment
- thyroid gland
- c-cells (parafollicular cells)
- fx-regulate calcium [ ] in the body fluids
- - stimulates calcium secretions in the body
- in response to low oxygen levels in the kidneys
- fx-stimulates red blood cells production
- -peptide hormone release by the kidney in response to low oxygen level in kidney tissue.
- -produce elevates blood vloume by producing more oxygen carrying RBC
ATRIAL NEURETIC PEPTIDE (ANP)
- kidneys, hyphothalamus, adrenal gland
- fx-increase water and salt loss at kidneys; decrease thirst and supress secretion of aldosterone
- when chyme containing lipids and partially digested protein arrives int he duodenum
- fx-increase the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and push pancreatic secretion and bile in theduodenum
- female ocytes/follicles
- stimulated by FSH and LH from the anterior lobe
- most cells
- support follicle maturation, female secondary sex characteristics, and associated behaviors
HUMAN CHORIONIC GONADOTHROPIN (hCG)
GONADOTHROPIN-RELEASING HORMONE (GnRH)
- follicular cells
- stimulated by FSH/LH
- pituitary gland
- inhibits secretion of FSH
GASTRIC INHIBITORY PEPTIDE
PARATHYROID HORMONE (PTH)
- anterior lobe
- lutenizing hormone
- follicle cells of the ovaries
- fx-ovulation of the corpus luteum, secreition of progesterone