ANATOMY EXAM FINAL

Card Set Information

Author:
fnxmoon2
ID:
26337
Filename:
ANATOMY EXAM FINAL
Updated:
2010-07-15 12:59:57
Tags:
Anatomy
Folders:

Description:
Chapters 11-23
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user fnxmoon2 on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. The process that moves large particles across the cell membrane into the cell.

    A. Phagocytosis
    B. Endocytosis
    C. Filtration
    D. Pinocystosis
    B. Endocytosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. One of the three passive processes of the cell, this movement of particles across the cellular membrane because of pressure. A pressure gradient across a cell membrane is the force that drives the process. Example is the kidney's system

    A. Filtration
    B. Diffusion
    C. Osmosis
    D. Deviation
    A. Filtration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. On of the three passive processes of the cell, this movement of molecules, or other particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, continues until the distribution of particles in equal in all areas.

    A. Deviation
    B. Osmosis
    C. Filtration
    D. Diffusion
    D. Diffusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. One of the three Passive Processes of the Cell, this movement of pure solvent such as water from an area of low concentration (most dilute) to an area of high concentration (least dilute). Water moves instead of particles to create equelibrium

    A. Filtration
    B. Diffusion
    C. Osmosis
    D. Deviation
    C. Osmosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Also known as Coronal plane, is the plane passes through the body from side to side, creating anterior and posterior sections.

    A. Midsagittal
    B. Frontal
    C. Horizontal
    D. Sagital
    B. Frontal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Also known as Transverse plane, plane passing through the body creating superior and inferior sections.

    A. Horizontal
    B. Sagital
    C. Frontal
    D. Midsagittal
    A. Horizontal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Also known as Median plane, runs longitudinally (vertically) down the body, dividing the body into right and left sections

    A. Midsagittal
    B. Frontal
    C. Horizontal
    D. Sagital
    A. Midsagittal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What quadrant of the body contains the appendix?

    A. Right Upper Quadrant
    B. Right Lower Quadrant
    C. Left Upper Quadrant
    D. Left Lower Quadrant
    B. Right Lower Quadrant
  9. Which quadrant of the body contains the liver?

    A. Right Upper Quadrant
    B. Right Lower Quadrant
    C. Left Upper Quadrant
    D. Left Lower Quadrant
    A. Right Upper Quadrant
  10. ______ _____ is the standard body position used in Western Medicine with the body erect and facing foward arms to the side palms facing foward.

    A. Anterior Position
    B. Frontal Position
    C. Anatomical Position
    D. Standard Position
    C. Anatomical Position
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Also known as gristle, is most common type of cartilage that is elastic, rubbery and smooth composed of cells in a translucent, pearly blue matrix and covers articulating ends of bones; connects ribs to the sternum; and supports the nose, trachea and part of the larynx. Fetal skeleton has the most.

    A. Hyaline
    B. Cartilage
    C. Elastic
    D. Fibrocartilage
    A. Hyaline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. One of the four Types of Tissues of the Body, this make ups most of the body and helps transport nutrients, defends the body against disease, assists in blood clotting and acts as a supportive framework. Most abundant and ubiquitous tissue. Five types Liquid (blood), bone or osseous, cartilaginous, loose, and dense.

    A. Connective Tissue
    B. Muscle Tissue
    C. Epithelial Tissue
    D. Nerve Tissue
    A. Connective Tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. One of the four Types of Tissues of the Body, this tissue lines or covers internal & external (skin) organs of the body. Closely packed typically avascular & recieves nutrition by diffusion from blood vessels. Lines blood vessels and body cavities, and digestive, respiratory, urninary, and reproductive tracts. The functions of this tissue include protection, absorption, filtration, secretion, excretion and diffusion.

    A. Nerve Tissue
    B. Epithelial Tissue
    C. Connective Tissue
    D. Muscle Tissue
    B. Epithelial Tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. A type of Connective Tissue that attaches skin to underlying structures, wraps & supports body cells, fills in spaces between structures and keeps them in place. Types are Areolar, Adipose, and Reticular.

    A. Osseous Connective Tissue
    B. Liquid Connective Tissue
    C. Loose Connective Tissue
    D. Areolar Connective Tissue
    C. Loose Connective Tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. A type of connective tissue, or fatty tissue. is specialized fat storage, include yellow bone marrow, insulates the body against heat loss, provides fuel reserves for energy and cushions structures such as the heart & kidneys

    A. Liquid Connective Tissue
    B. Adipose Connective Tissue
    C. Osseous Connective Tissue
    D. Reticular Connective Tissue
    B. Adipose Connective Tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Groups of similar cells that act together to perform a specific function and include epithelial, connective, muscle and nerve

    A. Muscles
    B. Nerves
    C. Cells
    D. Tissues
    D. Tissues
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. The study of how the body and its individual parts function in normal body processes. The processes are both physical and chemical.

    A. Physiology
    B. Anatomy
    C. Balenology
    D. Onocology
    A. Physiology
  18. The consistancy of the body's internal environment, representing a relatively stable condition of the body's internal environment within a limited range.

    A. Neostasis
    B. Homeostasis
    C. Diffusion
    D. Temperature
    B. Homeostasis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The study of the structures of the human body and their positional relationship to one another.

    A. Balenotology
    B. Phisiology
    C. Chemisty
    D. Anatomy
    D. Anatomy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. The fundamental unit of all living organisms and is the simplest form of life that can exist as a self-sustaining unit. Building blocks of the human body.Consists of four elements; carbon, oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen.

    A. Cytoplasm
    B. Organism
    C. Cell
    D. Organelle
    C. Cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Consisting primarily of water, this is a gel-like intracellular fluid within the cell membrane, provides cellular nutrition and supports organelles

    A. Cytoplasm
    B. Organelle
    C. Mucous
    D. Ectoplasm

    A. Cytoplasm
  22. What is the oval organelle that is considered the cell's power plant, site for cellular respiration and provides most of cells Adenosine Triphospate (ATP), the body's enery molecule.

    A. Ribosomes
    B. Golgi Body
    C. Mitochondria
    D. Lyosomes
    C. Mitochondria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Largest and most obvious organelle in the cytoplasm. Control center of the cell, directing nearly all metabolic activities.

    A. Lyosomes
    B. Nucleus
    C. Golgi Body
    D. Ribosomes
    B. Nucleus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Small granules of RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) and protein in cytoplasm. Synthesize protein for use within the cell and produce other proteins that are exported outside the cell.

    A. Lyosomes
    B. Ribosomes
    C. Golgi Body
    D. Mitochondria
    B. Ribosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. One of the organelles of the cell, membrane-bound organelles containing digestive enzymes. They can engulf pathogens, cellular debris, & other organelle to digest them, any reusable matter is then returned to cytoplasm for reuse

    A. Nucleus
    B. Golgi Body
    C. Lyosomes
    D. Ribosomes
    C. Lyosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The Three types of Muscle Tissue

    1. ______ muscle (involuntary-visceral) forms walls of hollow organs and tubes such as stomach, bladder, uterus, and blood vessels. Cosuming little energy, adapted for long sustained contractions.
    2. ______ muscle (voluntary-striated) fibersare cigar-shaped and multinucleated, contains bands of white and red material, which causes to look striped or striated.
    3. ______ muscle (involuntary-striated)is located in heart wall and is Y or H shaped, allowing cells to fit together similar to clasped fingers and help create the spherical shape of the heart.
    • 1. Smooth Muscle
    • 2. Skeletal Muscle
    • 3. Cardiac Muscle
  27. Thin, soft, pliable sheets of tissue that cover the body, line tubes or body cavities, cover organs, and seperate on part from another.

    A. Collagen
    B. Receptors
    C. Membranes
    D. Dermis
    C. Membranes
  28. The 3 Types of Epithelial Membranes and 1 Connective Tissue Membrane
    1. _____ Membrane, covers the entire surface of the body. Also known as the skin, is the largest organ of the body.
    2. _____ Membrane, lines openings to the outside to the outside of the body. Secretes the mucus that lubricates and protects associated structures.
    3. _____ Membrane, lines closed body cavities that do not open to the outside of the body. Consists of 2 layers, a parietal layer lines wall of body cavities and visceral layer, provides covering to organs in closed body cavities.
    4. _____ Membrane, or synovium the ONLY Connective Tissue Membrane in the body. Lines cavities of free moving joints. Secretes synovial fluid which lubricates the joints to keep them free moving.
    • 1. Cutaneous
    • 2. Mucous
    • 3. Serous
    • 4. Synovial
  29. 1. ______ toward the midline of the body / ______ farther away from the midline of the body
    2. ______ farther from the point of reference, usually away from midline / ______ nearest to point of reference, toward the midline
    3. ______ or deep pertaining to or situated at center of body / ______ or peripheral pertaining to outside surface
    4. ______ Nearest to the inside (within) a body cavity / Nearest to outside of the body cavity
    • 1. Medial / Lateral
    • 2. Distal / Proximal
    • 3. Central / Superficial
    • 4. Internal / External
  30. Regional Terms of Head and Neck
    1. _____ cheek area, / ______ neck area,
    2. _____ (skull) head end / ____ face area
    3. _____ (ophthalmic) eye area / _____ (auricular) ear area
    • 1. Buccal / Cervical
    • 2. Cranial / Facial
    • 3. Orbital / Otic
  31. Regional Terms of Upper Extremity
    1. _____ top of shoulder / ______ forearm, between wirst and elbow
    2. _____ armpit region / ______ upper arm, between shoulder and elbow
    3. _____ wrist region / ______ elbow / _____ bend of elbow or front of elbow

    • 1. Acromial / Antebrachial
    • 2. Axillary / Brachial
    • 3. Carpal /Cubital / Antecubital

  32. The ABCDEF Method of Mole Assessment
    A. ______ common moles are symmetrical and round. Malignant moles are asymmetrical
    B.______ edges or borders of early malignant are uneven contain scalloped or motched edges
    C. ______ different shades of brown or black, not evenly shaded
    D. ______ melanomas are larger than common (6mm) moles
    E. ______ common moles smooth, malignant are uneven
    F.______ common moles don't grow fast, malignant change size rapidly
    • A. Asymmentry
    • B. Border
    • C. Color
    • D. Diametor
    • E. Elevated
    • F.Fast Growing
  33. One of the Sensory Receptors of the Skin, also known as the tactile corpuscle, these mediate sensations of discriminative touch such as light versus deep pressure. Most nurmerous in hairless areas such as nipples, fingertips and lips.

    A. Pacinian Corpuscles
    B. Hair Root Plexus
    C. Meissner Corpuscles
    D. Merkel Disks
    C. Meissner Corpuscles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. One of the Sensory Receptors of the Skin, these are located in deeper dermal layers, primarily in hand & feet, many joint capsules. Respond & adapt quickly to stimuli, crude/deep pressure, vibration, stretch & recieve proprioceptive information about joint position

    A. Pacinian Corpuscles
    B.Hair Root Plexus
    C. Meissner Corpuscles
    D. Merkel Disks
    A. Pacinian Corpuscles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. One of the Sensory Receptors of the Skin, these are located in the epidermis; they respond to light and discriminative touch

    A. Merkel Disks
    B. Pacinian Corpuscles
    C.Hair Root Plexus
    D. Meissner Corpuscles
    A. Merkel Disks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. One of the Sensory Receptors of the Skin, also known as (mucocutaneous or cold receptors) Widely spread in mucous membranes and skin, involved in discriminatory touch & low-frequency vibration. Second thermoreceptor, they detect temps below 65 degrees

    A. Pacinian Corpuscles
    B. Krause's End Bulbs
    C. Merkel Disks
    D. Meissner Corpuscles
    B. Krause's End Bulbs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. One of the Sensory Receptors of the Skin, also known as (heat receptors) Located in dermis & stimulated by deep or continous pressure. They adapt slowly & permit us to stay in contact with grasped objects. Second thermorecptor, they detect temps 85-102 degrees

    A. Meissner Corpuscles
    B. Ruffuni End Organs
    C. Merkel Disks
    D.Krause's End Bulbs
    6. Ruffuni End Organs
  38. On of the cells of the Epidermis, these are filled with an extremely tough fibrous protein which provides protectionby waterproofing the skins surface, keeping water in & water out.

    A. Langerhans Cells
    B. Melanocytes
    C. Astrocytes
    D. Keratinocytes
    D. Keratinocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. On of the cells of the Epidermis, these produce melanin, protects skin, decrease the amount of UV light penetration & creates a barrier. Freckles & moles are present when melanin produce in concentrated areas.

    A. Melanocytes
    B. Langerhans Cells
    C. Keratinocytes
    D. Astrocytes
    A. Melanocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Four Skin Color Variation Factors

    1. _____ or skin pigment created by meloncytes
    2. The amount of _____ present in capillaries of the dermis which can cause rosy cast to blue or purple cast of _____
    3. Presence of pigment ______ in the blood which can produce yellowish appearance of ______
    4. Presence of pigment ______ in the skin, which can produce yellowish appearance in the ethnic group
    _____
    • 1. Melanin
    • 2. Oxygen / Cyanosis
    • 3. Bilirubin / jaundice
    • 4. Carotene / Asians
  41. Also know as oil glands, secrete sebum, rich in chemicals such as triglicerides, waxes, fatty acids and cholesterol, lubricating both hair and epidermis. Best massage stroke to stimulate is friction

    A. Sebaceous (Oil Glands)
    B. Sudoriferous (Sweat Glands)
    C. Eccrine Glands
    D. Apocrine Glands
    A. Sebaceous (Oil Glands)
  42. Also know as sweat glands, 2 million in body secrete sweat or perspiration, regulated by SNS, can be stimulated in response to heat or emotional arousal, breaks down into two groups

    A. Sebaceous (Oil Glands)
    B. Sudoriferous (Sweat Glands)
    C. Eccrine Glands
    D. Apocrine Glands
    B. Sudoriferous (Sweat Glands)
  43. An insoluble fibrous protien that constitutes approximately 70% of the dermis and offers support to the nerves, blood vessels, hair follicles and glands. Main component of connect tissueWithin are pliable fibers called elastin, which gives the skin its elasticity and resilience.

    A. Collagen
    B. Cartilage
    C. Elastin
    D. Tissue
    A. Collagen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. One of the main layers of the skin, derived from ectoderm, the same embryonic cell layer that gives us the brain, spinal cord and special senses. Contained in its layers are melanocytes, is composed soly of epithelial tissue, is relatively avascular. Outside skin, contains 4-5 layers. The entire life cycle of skin cells from birth to death is 21 to 27 day. Contains Pores, which are openings in skin that secretion of oils takes place.

    A. Epidermis
    B. Dermis
    C. Hypodermis
    D. Dermal-epidermal Junction
    A. Epidermis
  45. Also known as the corium, or hide, is the true skin, possesses a network of nerves and nerve endings. Collagen is the main component, muscles, hair follicles, sweat and oil glands and numerous blood vessels that help supply nutrients.

    A. Epidermis
    B. Dermis
    C. Hypodermis
    D. Dermal-epidermal Junction
    B. Dermis
  46. Also known as the Superficial Fascia, is not a true region of skin but rather a loose layer rich in fat and areolar connective tissues. Krause End Bulbs and Ruffini End Organs are located in this Subcutaneous Layer.

    A. Epidermis
    B. Dermis
    C. Hypodermis
    D. Dermal-epidermal Junction
    C. Hypodermis
  47. In regards to the skin, cells that push upward from the stratum germinatium into each consectutive layer, die and become keratinized and "fall away"

    A. Necrosis
    B. Kertosis
    C. Degeneration
    D. Desquamate
    D. Desquamate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Condition that appears during pregnancy and caused by hormone changes, darkening of the skin of the face and throat. Also known as the mask of pregnancy.

    A. Chloasma
    B. Rosacea
    C. Eczema
    D. Vilitigo
    A. Chloasma
  49. One of the Four structures of the Hair this structure is the Muscles of the hair, contracts and pulls the hair upright when experiecing fright or anxiety. Useless to humans

    A. Arrector Pilli
    B. Hair Follicle
    C. Hair Root
    D. Hair Shaft
    A. Arrector Pilli
  50. A type of bone, these bones are longer than they are wide, examples are humerus, radius, ulna, femur, tibia and fibula.

    A. Long
    B. Short
    C. Flat
    D. Irregular
    A. Long
  51. A type of bone, these bones are Small & cuboidal, contain multiple articulating surfaces, such as carpals and tarsals

    A. Long
    B. Short
    C. Flat
    D. Irregular
    B. Short
  52. Which bone is the Sella Turnica located on?

    A. Mandible
    B. Sphenoid
    C. Maxilla
    D. Omohyoid
    B. Sphenoid
  53. A type of bone, these bones are small, round bones that are embedded in certain tendons, often found in the hands and feet. Largest is the Patella (kneecap)

    A. Long
    B. Sesamoid
    C. Flat
    D. Irregular
    B. Sesamoid
  54. What type of Articulation or joint is fibrous and absent or extremely limited movement. Examples are those between skull bones and sutures of the cranium

    A. Synarthroses
    B. Amphiarthroses
    C. Diarthroses
    D. Triathroses
    A. Synarthroses
  55. What type of Articulation or joint is cartilaginous and considered slightly movable, moving apart only a few millimeters, such as tibiofibular joint

    A. Synarthroses
    B. Amphiarthroses
    C. Diarthroses
    D. Triathroses
    B. Amphiarthroses
  56. One of the Structures of the Synovial Joints, this covers the epiphyses of articulating bones. Smooth & slippery, decreases friction & helps absorb shock when bone in joint move

    A. Articular Cartilage
    B. Joint Capsule
    C. Accessory Ligaments
    D. Bursae
    A. Articular Cartilage
  57. One of the Structures of the Synovial Joints, this collapsed saclike structure, flat with an interior lining of synovial membrane containing synnovial fluid. Synovial Sheaths are similiar, but are tubular and surround long tendons and increase gluiding capacity.

    A. Articular Cartilage
    B. Joint Capsule
    C. Accessory Ligaments
    D. Bursae
    D. Bursae
  58. The Six Types of Synovial Joints
    1. ____ joint (monoaxial) - movements limited to flexion & extension as in knees, elbows and interphalangeal joints. Posses one concave & one convex articular surface
    2. ____ joint (monoaxial) - allows movement that islimited to rotation such as radial joints. Possess one conical surface & one depressed surface
    3. ____ joint (biaxal) - resembles to saddles, possesses movements of flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, opposition and circumduction, but ROTATION is not permitted. Only one is Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
    4. ____ joint (biaxal)- essentially reduced ball & socket joint. Contain one oval convex surface & one concave surface, allowing flexion, extension, abduction, adduction but Rotation is not permitted.. Examples are joints between fingers.
    5. __ __ __ joint (Triaxal) - permit all movements & offer the greatest range of motion. One articulate surface is rounded, fitting in cuplike cavity. Examples are hip & shoulders joints
    6. ____ joint (Triaxal) - permit all movements but are limited to gliding. Both articular surfaces are nearly flat. Present in acromioclavicular & intertarsal joints.
    • 1. Hinge
    • 2. Pivot
    • 3. Saddle
    • 4. Ellipsoidal
    • 5. Ball-and-Socket
    • 6. Gliding
  59. Actions of the Body
    2. _____ - medial (inward) rotation of forearm so that palm is turned downward. / ______ lateral (outward) rotation of forearm so that palmis turned upward.
    3. _____ - elevation of medial edge of foot so that the sole is turned inward (or medially), soles with face each other. / ______ lateral edge of foot is turned outward (or laterally),sole will not face each other.
    4. _____ - movement Away from median plane / _____ movement Toward the median plane. | ______ raising of lifting body part Superiorly / _____ lowering or dropping body part inferiorly.
    5. _____ - flexing ankle dorsally so that toes move toward shin. / ___ ___ extension of ankle so that toes are pointing downward, increasing ankle anteriorly.

    • 2. Pronation / Supination
    • 3. Inversion / Eversion
    • 4. Abduction / Adduction | Elevation / Depression
    • 5.Dorsiflexion / Plantar Flexion

  60. One of the actions of the body, this movement occurs when the distal end moves in a circle and the proximal end is relatively fixed; it can be described as cone-shaped range of motion,

    A. Adduction
    B. Abduction
    C. Rotation
    D. Circumduction
    D. Circumduction
  61. A typical long bone has two main regions, the ______ which is the long cylindrical shaft of the bone and the ______ which is the two ends of the bone and where the bones grows in length.
    Diaphysis / Epiphyses
  62. Blood cells formed in the cavity can exit the bone & circulation through two types of canal systems; _____ canals (vascular canals that run longitudinally) and ____ canals (connect with the other canals, running horizontally)
    Haversian / Volkmann's
  63. A fibrous, dense, vascular tissue sheath, the ______ surrounds the shaft of the bone and is absent on the ends of the bones.

    A. Periosteum
    B. Glumeruli
    C. Peritoneum
    D. Endoplasmic Reticulum
    A. Periosteum
  64. The other region of the Skeleton is the _____ skeleton, composed of the extremities arms, legs shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle.

    A. Appendicular
    B. Perpendicular
    C. Coaxial
    D. Axial
    A. Appendicular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Microscopic cells within skeletal system include ______ which are bone-forming cells found in periosteum, the _____ which break down bone tissue to maintain homeostasis or calcium & phosphates to repair bone, and the ______ which are mature bone-forming cells that soon become embedded in the bone's matrix.
    Osteoblasts / Osteoclasts / Osteocytes
  66. What is the movement of the pelvis when one side of the pelvis is further forward, or more anteriorly, than the other around a central axis.

    A. Posterior Tilt
    B. Rotation
    C. Anterior Tilt
    D. Obliquity
    B. Rotation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. 1. _______ is a bony market and muscle attachment area and covers the lobe it is named for, governs somatosensory input.
    2. _______ one of the cranial bones, Contains covers the sinus it is name for and is in the front of the skull.
    3. _______ Bone located above the Mandible and Mastoid Process, covers the lobe of the brain that governs auditory and olfactory area and wernicke's area.
    4. _______ or digits, is another name of the toes and fingers
    5. _______ another name for the great toe
    • 1. Parietal
    • 2. Spenhoid
    • 3. Temporal
    • 4. Phalanges
    • 5. Hallux
  68. When the hand is balled into a fist, the distal ends of these bones become apparent and considered the "Knuckles" of the hand. These are the:

    A. Phalanges
    B. Carpals
    C. Metacarpals
    D. Tarsals
    C. Metacarpals
  69. What is the lateral forearm bone, located on the thumb side of the arm

    A. Radius
    B. Ulna
    C. Scapula
    D. Pollicis
    A. Radius
  70. What is the largest sesamoid bone in the body

    A. Cuboid
    B. Patella
    C. Mellona
    D. Hyoid




    B. Patella
  71. What is the name of the Segments between Tranverse Processes and the Vertebral Body of the bones of the spine

    A. Pedicles
    B. Sacrum
    C. Sternoclavicular
    D. Vertebrae
    A. Pedicles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Which bone of the forearm articulates with the humerus at its wider proximal end and the carpal triquetrum via a disk at is narrower distal end.

    A. Radius
    B. Ulna
    C. Scapula
    D. Pollicis
    B. Ulna
  73. 1. ____ ____ synarthortic joint that joins two Parietal bones
    2. ____ ____ synarthortic joint, shaped as a corona, or crown around the head, seperates frontal and parietal bones.
    3. ____ ____ synarthortic joint, seperates parietal bones from occipital
    4. ____ ____ synarthortic joint, seperates parietal and temporal bones
    • 1. Sagittal Suture
    • 2. Coronal Suture
    • 3. Lambdoidal Suture
    • 4. Squamosal Suture
  74. Bandage like retaining bands of connective tissue fround primarily around the elbow, knees, ankles and wrists, keeps tendons and tendon sheaths in place.

    A. Periteneum
    B. Retinacula
    C. Rugae
    D. Collagen
    B. Retinacula
  75. Which mechanoreceptors are stretch sensitive and detect sudden motion and cause reflexive muscle contraction.

    A. Golgi Tendon Organs
    B. Muscle Spindles
    C. Stretch Receptors
    D. Krause End Bulbs
    B. Muscle Spindles
  76. Also known as red muscle, these fibers are fatigue resistant. They react and contract slowly, able to produce ATP quickly to avoid fatigue. Seen in long distance runners legs.

    A. Slow-Twitch
    B. Fast-Twitch
    C. Intermediate Twitch
    D. Late-Twitch
    A. Slow-Twitch
  77. Physiological response where by each individual muscle fiber, when sufficently stimulated, contracts to its fullest extent or not at all. Within the muscle fibers of motor units, no partial contraction takes place.

    A. All-Or-None Response
    B. Sliding Filament Theory
    C. Recruitment
    D. Adaptation
    A. All-Or-None Response
  78. The Process of motor unit activation based on need. If more strength is required, additional motor units are then stimulated and the muscle contraction is stronger.

    A. All-Or-None Response
    B. Sliding Filament Theory
    C. Recruitment
    D.Adaptation
    C. Recruitment
  79. Theory of muscle contraction in which thin filaments sliding toward the Sacromeres center shorten the muscle fiber. Muscle contraction has occured, taking just a few thousandsth of a second.

    A. All-Or-None Response
    B. Sliding Filament Theory
    C. Recruitment
    D.Adaptation
    B. Sliding Filament Theory
  80. What is the continued partial contraction of many skeletal muscles is called

    A. Eccentric
    B. Concentric
    C. Tonus
    D. Isotonic
    C. Tonus
  81. Type of Isotonic contraction occurs when contraction results in shortening of the muscle. Example is the lifting phase of a biceps curl.Muscles involved are called accelerators or spurt muscles.

    A. Eccentric
    B. Concentric
    C. Tonus
    D. Isometric
    B. Concentric
  82. Known as lengthening contractions, occur when muscles experience resistance as it is lengthening. The muscles are also known as decelerators or Shunt Muscles.

    A. Eccentric
    B. Concentric
    C. Tonus
    D. Isometric
    A. Eccentric
  83. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a fluid-filled system of cavities, playing a crucial role in muscular contraction by storing and releasing which ion?

    A. Calcium
    B. Sodium
    C. Potassium
    D. Magnesium
    A. Calcium
  84. Composed of myosin and actin filaments, are present in segments along myofibrils, they are bundled together and lie in parallel rows in a honeycomb arrangement, stack end to end in a continous chain or repeating compartments.

    A. Motor Neuron
    B. Muscle Spindle
    C. Motor Unit
    D. Sarcomeres
    D. Sarcomeres
  85. In this Contraction, the muscle length remains the same white the muscletension increases, do work by tightening to resist a force, but they do not produce movements.

    A. Eccentric
    B. Concentric
    C. Tonus
    D. Isometric
    D. Isometric
  86. Also known as dynamic contractions, the tone or tension within a muscle remains the same as the length of the muscle changes. Shortening contraction called concentric and lengthening contractions are call eccentric.

    A. Eccentric
    B. Concentric
    C. Isotonic
    D. Isometric
    C. Isotonic
  87. The junction between the motor neuron and the motor end plate. The space occupying the junction is called a synapse.

    A. Neuromuscular Junction
    B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
    C. Perimysium
    D. Motor-neural Spindle
    A. Neuromuscular Junction
  88. a Single muscle is composed of many of these which is the combination of a single motor neuron and muscle fibers which it attaches to.

    A. Motor Neuron
    B. Muscle Spindle
    C. Motor Unit
    D. Motor End Plate
    C. Motor Unit
  89. Motor neurons connect to folded sections of the sarcolemma on this segment

    A. Motor Neuron
    B. Muscle Spindle
    C. Motor Unit
    D. Motor End Plate
    D. Motor End Plate
  90. What is the cell membrane of a muscle cell that encases the cytoplasm and organelles.

    A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
    B. Sarcoplasm
    C. Sarcolemma
    D. Sarcofasciuli
    C. Sarcolemma
  91. A broad flat cord that attaches skeletal muscle to bone, another muscle or skin.

    A. Retinacula
    B. Muscle Spindle
    C. Aponeurosis
    D. Tendon
    C. Aponeurosis
  92. The absence of the myosin filament at either end of the sarcomere / actin only. The ends of the Sacromere

    A. A-Band
    B. Z-Line
    C. H-Band
    D. I-Band
    B. Z-Line
  93. This neurotransmitter is the principle neurotrasmitter involved in muscle contraction, crosses they synaptic cleft to the sarcolemma, it binds with receptor sites on the motor end plate. The the most common neurotransmitter, is vital for stimulating.

    A. Acetycholine
    B. Adesonine Triphosaphate
    C. Alderstone
    D. Adtreposine
    A. Acetycholine
  94. This compound which is produced by the body's cells which is needed for contraction, the energy for contraction.

    A. Acetycholine
    B. Adesonine Triphosphate
    C. Alderstone
    D. Adtreposine
    B. Adesonine Triphosphate
  95. One of the proprioceptors stimulated during a stretch located in the musculotendinous junction, they detect tension applied to the tendon during a slow, static stretch and inhibits motorneurons.

    A. Golgi Tendon Organs
    B. Muscle Spindles
    C. Krause End Bulbs
    D. Motor End Plate
    A. Golgi Tendon Organs
  96. Refers to the skeletal muscles and related fascia in the muscular system.

    A. Muscle Spindles
    B. Retinacula
    C. Myofascial
    D. Neurtransmitters
    C. Myofascial
  97. Groups of muscle fibers bound together called Fasciuli are covered by what tougher connective tissue envelope?

    A. Muscle Spindles
    B. Retinacula
    C. Myofascial
    D. Perimysium
    D. Perimysium
  98. A red respiratory pigment similar to hemoglobin in red blood cells, oxygen is stored in cells by binding to these large protein molecules

    A. Hemoglobin
    B. Neuroglobin
    C. Myoglobin
    D. Oxyglobin
    C. Myoglobin
  99. Muscles that cross two articulations (joints) acting on both is _______.

    A. Uniarticular
    B. Biaticular
    C. Multiarticular
    D. Triarticular
    B. Biaticular
  100. The (4) muscle cell properties that give them the ability to move
    1. ________ ability to respond to a stimulus
    2. ________ ability of muscle fibers to shorten
    3. ________ ability of muscle fibers to lengthen
    4. ________ ability of muscle fibers to return to their original shape after movement
    • 1. Excitability
    • 2. Contractibility
    • 3. Extensibility
    • 4. Elasticity
  101. What is considered the Thin Myofiliments of a muscle?

    A. Actin
    B. Myosin
    C. Serotinin
    D. Perimysium
    A. Actin
  102. Which are the proteins that prevent muscles from being in constant contraction-

    A. Troponin / Tropomyosin
    B. Thyroxine / Tetraiodothyronine
    C. Triiodothyronine / Troponsine
    D. Melatonin / Calcitonin
    A. Troponin / Tropomyosin
  103. What is considered the Thick Myofiliments of a muscle?

    A. Actin
    B. Myosin
    C. Serotinin
    D. Perimysium
    B. Myosin
  104. What is the stretch receptors located in the wall of the carotid arteries and the aoritic arch which affect blood pressure by sending impulses to the cardiac center of the medulla.

    A. Exteroceptors
    B. Proprioceptors
    C. Baroreceptors
    D.Thermoreceptors
    C. Baroreceptors
  105. Located in the skin, ears, muscles, tendons, joints, and fascia these special sensory receptors respond to movement and position.

    A. Exteroceptors
    B. Proprioceptors
    C. Interoceptors
    D.Thermoreceptors




    B. Proprioceptors


  106. What receptor also referred to as free nerve endings, detect pain and are located in almost every tissue of the body, especially near the surface, except the brain

    A. Interoceptors
    B. Thermoreceptors
    C. Photoreceptors
    D. Nociceptors
    D. Nociceptors
  107. The chemical family containing norepinephrine, epinephrin, and dopamine that has direct effect on the sympathetic nervous system include excitation, metabolic action, and endocrine action

    A. Acetylcholine
    B. Catecholamines
    C. Epinephrine
    D. Norepinephrine
    B. Catecholamines
  108. Similar to epinephrine, both a hormone & neurotrasmitter secreted by the adrenal medulla

    A. Acetylcholine
    B. Catecholamines
    C. Epinephrine
    D. Norepinephrine
    D. Norepinephrine
  109. Located in CNS & Sympathetic division of ANS. Acts as a hormone when secreted by cells of the adrenal medulla (excitatory or inhibitory)

    A. Acetylcholine
    B. Catecholamines
    C. Epinephrine
    D. Norepinephrine
    C. Epinephrine
  110. Found in brain & ANS, mostly inhibitory & is involved in emotions, moods, and learning regulatory motor control.

    A. Acetylcholine
    B. Catecholamines
    C. Epinephrine
    D. Dopamine
    D. Dopamine
  111. Naturally occurring derivative of tryptophan (amino acid) several regions of CNS. Mostly inhibitory, important in sensory preception, mood regulation, and normal sleep

    A. Serotonin
    B. Histamine
    C. Enkephalins
    D. Dopamine
    A. Serotonin
  112. When a stimulus is constant, over time a decrease in sensitivity to a prolonged stimulus may occur. Tends to be rapid regarding pressue, touch and smell, occurs slowly with pain and body position.

    A. Recruitment
    B. Adaptation
    C. Slow-Twitch
    D. Tonus
    B. Adaptation
  113. 3 Meninges & 3 Spaces of the skull
    1. ____ ____ :Innermost layer, is delicate, transparent and vascular and is attached to the surface of the CNS
    A. _________ space: lies between innermost layer and middle layer filled with cerebrospinal fluid and arrangment of collagen & elastic fibers that resembles spider's web.The extension extend into the next meninge
    2. ________ : Middle layer, forms a loose covering around the CNS.
    B. _________ space: filled with circulating serous fluid, lies between the middle layer and outer layer.
    3. ____ ____ : Outermost layer, thick & dense lies against the bone and contains a double layer of connective tissue
    C. _______ space: lies between the outermost layer and the vertebral canal. Safest place for injections such as saddle blocks, contains adipose tissue, connective tissue, and blood vessels
    • 1. Pia Mater
    • A. Subarachnoid Space
    • 2. Arachnoid
    • B. Subdural Space
    • 3. Dura Mater
    • C. Epidural Space
  114. Connective tissue coverings deep in the skull and spine surrounding the brain and spinal cord. In between each layer is a fluid-filled space.

    A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
    B. Aproneurosis
    C. Meninges
    D. Perioteneum
    C. Meninges
  115. The state of Consciousness where the subject is awake but relaxed and nonattentive.

    A. Beta
    B. Alpha
    C. Theta
    D. Delta
    B. Alpha
  116. What is the most inferior portion of the brainstem, this section conducts sensory and motor impulses between other parts of the brain and the spinal cord.

    A. Midbrain
    B. Pons
    C. Medulla Oblongata
    D. Thalamus
    C. Medulla Oblongata
  117. The Lobes of the Brain
    1. ______ Lobe: regulates motor output, cognition, and speech production (Broca's area, typically left hemisphere only)
    2. ______ Lobe: governs somatosensory input (namely the skin and muscles) and taste. The postcentral gryus are located here.
    3. ______ Lobe: house auditory, olfactory area and Wernicke's area (an area critical to language comprehensioin that is typically in the left hemisphere only)


    • 1. Frontal
    • 2. Parietal
    • 3. Temporal


  118. Occupies a central or medial position in the body, concerned with interpreting incoming sensory information and issuing instructions in the form of motor responses. Major components are brain, meninges, cerebospinal fluid and spinal cord.

    A. Central Nervous System
    B. Autonomic Nervous System
    C. Peripheral Nervous System
    D. Somatic Nervous System
    A. Central Nervous System
  119. What structure located in the center of the brain houses the thalamus and the hypothalamus?

    A. Pituitary
    B. Pineal
    C. Diencephalon
    D. Insula
    C. Diencephalon
  120. What is the connective tissue that supports, nourishes, protects, insulates, and organizes neurons. Because it is not neural issue, is unable to transmit impulses. Cells are able to replicate through cell devision, most brain tumors are made up of glial cells.

    A. Cytoplasm
    B. Endoplasm
    C. Neuroglia
    D. Axon
    C. Neuroglia
  121. 3. ______ nervous system (SNS) has sensory neurons that carry information from bones, muscles, joints and the skin as well as from sensory receptors from the special senses. Motor neurons in SNS carry impulses to CNS, considered Voluntary System
    4. ______ nervous system (ANS) is an involuntary system supplying impulses to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands. Also has a devisonin itself with complementary responses; ______ division and _____ division.
    5. ______ nervous system, also known as rest-and-digest divison of ANS that conserve & restore body energy, such as digestion. Referred to the housekeeping system as it works under calm conditions and maintain homeostasis.
    6. ______ nervous system, this division overrides the other division during physical exertion or emotional stress, names fight-or-flight division. Requires body energy, nerves cause adrenal gland to secrete epinephrine.
    • 3. Somatic Nervous System
    • 4. Autonomic Nervous System
    • 5. Parasympathetic Nervous System
    • 6. Sympathetic Nervous System
  122. Which part of the nervous system is composed of cranial nerves and spinal nerves. (12 pairs of cranial, 31 pairs of Spinal)

    A. Central Nervous System
    B. Autonomic Nervous System
    C. Peripheral Nervous System
    D. Somatic Nervous System
    C. Peripheral Nervous System
  123. Which Gland connected to Hypothalumus by a slender stalk (infundibulum) and sits on the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.

    A. Pituitary Gland
    B. Pineal Gland
    C. Adrenal Gland
    D. Medulla Oblengata

    • A. Pituitary Gland
  124. Shaped like a boxing glove, this is the largest part of the brain. Where sensations (smell, taste, body movements) are consciously perceived and where all decisions are made. Language centers, sensory input, skeletalmuscle motor movement are also located here.Contains Cerebral cortex (think layer of gray matter), two large (left and right) cerebral hemispheres connected by the Corpus Callosum

    A. Cerebum
    B. Cebum
    C. Cerebellum
    D. Mendulla Oblengota
    A. Cerebum
  125. A cauliflower-shaped structure located posterior and inferior to the cerebrum in the brain. Second largest part of the brain and consists of two Cerebellar hemispheres.Also contains the Cerebral cortex (thin out layer of gray matter). Concerned with muscle tone, coordinates complex movements and regulates posture and balance. If this was damaged, you would have lack of coordination

    A. Cerebum
    B. Cebum
    C. Cerebellum
    D. Mendulla Oblengota
    C. Cerebellum
  126. Connecting the two cerebral hemispheres of the Cerebrum, these large fibrous bundles of transverse fibers. Provides a communicative pathway for impulses to move from one hemisphere to the other.

    A. Cerebum
    B. Cebum
    C. Cerebellum
    D. Corpus Callosum
    D. Corpus Callosum
  127. A abnormal arc, this is caused by increased stimuli or an increase in amount of afferent impulses entering the cord. Might be result from pain, emotional stress, biomechanical dysfunction, or poor posture.

    A. Reflex Arc
    B. Physiological Reflex Arc
    C. Physiopathological Reflex Arc
    D. Pathological Reflex Arc
    C. Physiopathological Reflex Arc
  128. Known as the simplest functional unit of the Nervous System, consisting of an afferent, interneuron and efferent neuron. Essentially a conduction route to and from the CNS

    A. Neuron
    B. Motor End Plate
    C. Reflex Arc
    D. Motor Neuron



    C. Reflex Arc
  129. A network of intersecting Nerves in the Peripheral nervous System is a ______

    A. Nerve Spindle
    B. Plexus
    C. Reflex Arc
    D. Motor Neuron

    B. Plexus
  130. The method that produces and maintains the resting potential by this active transport system. Located in the plasma membrane, This mechanism is used for the resting potential of a neural cell membraneTransports sodium Ions and Potassium Ions.

    A. Sodium-Potassium Pump
    B. Rods
    C. Cones
    D. Muscle Spindles
    A. Sodium-Potassium Pump
  131. One of the two photoreceptors located in the retina, these structures are needed for color vision, they are short and thick with blunt projections, mostly found in the center of the retina, each retina containing over 100 million of them.

    A. Sodium-Potassium Pump
    B. Rods
    C. Cones
    D. Muscle Spindles
    C. Cones
  132. One of the Mechonorecptors, they are stretch-sensitive receptors wrapped around intrafusal muscle fibers and monitor changes in the muscle length, as well as the rate of change.

    A. Sodium-Potassium Pump
    B. Rods
    C. Cones
    D. Muscle Spindles
    D. Muscle Spindles
  133. When stimulus is added to neuron, Sodium channels open or gates open and Sodium rushes in changing the electrical charge inside is positive, outside now negative, creating nerve impulses considered the all-or-none
    response. Neurons become ______

    A. Polarized
    B. Depolarized
    C. Repolarized
    D. Unpolarized
    C. Repolarized
  134. The posterior lobe of the Pituitary Gland also known as neurohypophysis, this lobe is not technically a gland as it does not produce the hormones it releases, it Stores and releases hormones from which area?

    A. Anterior Lobe
    B. Thalumus
    C. Hypothalumus
    D. Medulla Oblengata
    C. Hypothalumus
  135. Which gland is a bilobed gland posterior to the sternum. hormones thymosin and thymopoietin are produced and secreted, giving it a endocrine gland role and receives Immature T Cells

    A. Anterior Lobe
    B. Thalumus
    C. Thymus
    D. Medulla Oblengata
    C. Thymus
  136. Which gland, arise from embryonic tissue endoderm, releasing the hormone Aldosterone, which stimulates kidneys to conserve sodium, which triggers the release of antidiuretic hormone and results in water retention

    A. Adrenal Medulla
    B. Adrenal Cortex
    C. Thalamus
    D. Hypothalamus
    B. Adrenal Cortex
  137. Which cell secretes the hormone Renin?

    A. Scwhann Cells
    B. Juxtaglomerular Cells
    C. Sattelite Cells
    D. Dendrites
    B. Juxtaglomerular Cells
  138. One of the hormones of Thyroid Gland, this hormone increases the rate of metabolism:

    A. Triiodothyronine (T3)
    B. Thyroxine (T4)
    C. Calcitonin (CT)
    D.Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)




    B. Thyroxine (T4)
  139. What is the ONLY hormone of the Pineal Gland involved in control of circadian rhythms (24 hour cycle) & development of sexual organs. When injected, actually produces drowsiness & inhibits LH hormone.

    A. Oxytocin
    B. Insulin
    C. Glucagon
    D. Melatonin
    D. Melatonin
  140. Which hormones of the Posterior Pituitary Gland promotes water retention by kidneys, alcahol consumption inhibits secretion thereby increasing urine production

    A. Antidiuretic Hormone
    B. Oxytocin
    C. Insulin
    D. Glucagon
    A. Antidiuretic Hormone
  141. Glandular secretions that act as catalysts in biochemical reactions and regulate the physiological activity of other cells. Because they circulate freely in the blood, they have the potential of coming into contact with every type of cell, however, they do not effect every cell they come in contact with.

    A. Hormones
    B. Acetones
    C. Motor Neurons
    D. Acetycoline
    A. Hormones
  142. 1. _____ parts of the hearts conduction system which coordinate and sychronize the hearts activity
    2. ___ __ Sinoatrial node, lies between the right atrium, intiates cardiac impulse, also known as pacemaker
    3. _____ known as being capable of self-excitation
    4. ___ __ atrioventricular node, runs in interventricular septum to the right/left ventricles
    5. ___ __ also known as the bundle of His
    6. ___ __ also known as conducting fibers and coordinate the simulanous contraction of ventricles
    • 1. Nodes
    • 2. SA Node
    • 3. Autorhythmic
    • 4. AV Node
    • 5. AV Bundle
    • 6. Purkinje Fibers
  143. The duct drains lymph from the right arm, right lymphatic side of head and right half of thorax in right subclavian vein.

    A. Lymphatic Duct
    B. Left Lymphatic Duct
    C. Right Lymphatic Duct
    D. Splenic Duct
    C. Right Lymphatic Duct
  144. What structure produces precursor blood cells, or Pluripotent Stem Cell in which all blood cells are produced by this single, undifferneatiated cell

    A. Bone Marrow
    B. Thymus
    C. Tonsils
    D. Lymphocytes
    A. Bone Marrow
  145. Which organ is the largest lymphatic organ, lies within the left lateral rib cage (between 9th & 11th ribs), posterior to stomach. Stores blood cells and destroys old worn-out RBC's and platelets

    A. Spleen
    B. Gallbladder
    C. Peyer's Patches
    D. Thymus Gland
    A. Spleen
  146. What is the process that brings deoxygenated blood from right ventricle to the lungs to release carbon dioxide and reacquire oxygen.

    A. Pulmonary Circuit
    B. Pulmonary Valve System
    C. Heart Beat
    D. Pulse
    A. Pulmonary Circuit
  147. What is the name of the expansion effect that occurs when the left ventricle contracts, producing a wave of blood that surges through and expands arterial walls.

    A. Pulse
    B. Vasoconstriction
    C. Pulmonary Circuit
    D. Heart Beat
    A. Pulse
  148. The circle of events occuring with each alternating contraction and relaxtion of the heart muscle, coordinated by the conducting system. SA Nodes fire, squeezing atria to fill ventricles, signal travels to AV node, slows signal and sends to AV node, slows signal to apex of heart via bundle of His. Purkinje fibers coordinate simultaneous contraction of the ventricles.

    A. Cardiac Cycle
    B. Pulse
    C. Heartbeat
    D. Arremythia
    A. Cardiac Cycle
  149. . ______ is when the diameter of vascular lumen becomes narrower, and ______ is when diameter of vascular lumen becomes enlarged.

    Vasoconstriction / Vasodialation

  150. 1. _____ is local decrease blood flow is often marked by pain and tissue dysfunction. Occurs when blood flow is disturbed, such as sustained muscular contraction or spasm
    2. _____ is local increase blood flow causing skin to become reddened and warm. Condition occurs during massage or heat application
    3. _____ any deviation from a normal heart rate patter, or number of ventricular contractions per minute (bpm)
    4. _____ or slow heart rate (less than 50 bpm) condition may result from disease or often nornal for physically fit.
    5. _____ or rapid heart rate (greater than 100 bpm) conditon may result from fever, exercise, or emotions such as anxiety. Body's respone to increased demand for oxygen by the tissues.
    • 1. Ischemia
    • 2. Hyperemia
    • 3. Arrhythmia
    • 4. Bradycardia
    • 5. Tachycardia
  151. The two measurments of blood pressure are _____ (bottom number) or pressure against the arterial wall during rest or pause between contractions, and _____ (top number) or pressue exerted on the arterial wall during ventricular contraction
    Diastole / Systole
  152. What is also know as the Universal Donor Blood Type?

    A. A
    B. AB
    C. B
    D. O
    D. O
  153. The Structures of the Heart
    1. The heart has covering called _____, a double-layered sac. Outer layer is tough Fibrous connective tissues, inner layer is full of serous fluid to decrease friction.
    2. The heart wall has three layers ______ (thin outer layer of serous membrane), _____ thick cardiac muscle layer that makes up bulk of heart wall and _____ a thin inner lining of the heart chambers and vessels of the heart.
    3. Part of the makeup of the heart, _____ are little flaps of endothelium located between the chambers of the heart and between the ventricles and some of the great vessels.
    4. The heart has four chambers. The Superior chambers, or ______ take in blood through large veins and then pump it to the inferior chambers.
    5. The Inferior chambers, or _____ these lower chambers pump blood to the body's organs and tissues.
    6. A way to remember this is the short words R.A.T. L.A.M.B.
    • 1. Percardium
    • 2. Epicardium / Myocardium / Endocardium
    • 3. Valves
    • 4.Atria
    • 5. Ventricles
    • 6. Right Atrioventricular Tricuspid | Left Atrioventricular Mitral Bicuspid
  154. phospholipids that assist in the exchange of gas by reducing surface tension, which contributes to lung elasticity and thereby contributes to its general compliance. They also stabilize the alveoli.

    A. Surfactants
    B. Astrocytes
    C. Dendrites
    D. Lymphocytes
    A. Surfactants
  155. Also known as inhalation, the process that is responsible for drawing air into the lungs. Diaphragm contracts and decends into abdominal cavity to increase size of thoracic cavity. Accessory muscles raise chest and ribs. Can be forced.

    A. Inspiration
    B. Expiration
    C. Cardiac Inhalation
    D. Respitory Exhalation
    A. Inspiration
  156. Also know as exhalation, process responsible for expelling air from the lungs. Diaphragm relaxes and ascends toward thoracic cavity to decrease in size, creating an increase in air pressure. Expels air back into the atmosphere.Can be forced.

    A. Inspiration
    B. Expiration
    C. Cardiac Inhalation
    D. Respitory Exhalation
    B. Expiration
  157. Also called the throat, a muscular tube approximately 5 inches long that is shared by the respitory and digestive systems. Located anterior to cervical vertebrae. Contains the tonsils (pharengyeal, adnoids, palatine and lingual) which help the immune system.

    A. Pharynx
    B. Larynx
    C. GI Tract
    D. Endometrium
    A. Pharynx
  158. One of the three structures of the mucosal lining in the nasal cavity, cells that produce mucus that moistens the air and traps incoming foreign particles

    A. Juxometular Cells
    B. Goblet Cells
    C. Scwhann Cells
    D. Sattelite Cells
    B. Goblet Cells
  159. 1. _______ refers to labored or difficult breathing.
    2. _______ refers to the temporary cessation of breathing
    3. _______ refers to inadequate oxygen at the cellular level. characterized by cyanosis, tachycardia, hypertension, and mental confusion.
    4. _______ a condition of lack of oxygen either locally or systemically, inability for body to carry oxygen in the bloodstream.
    • 1. Dyspnea
    • 2. Apnea
    • 3. Hypoxia
    • 4. Anoxia
  160. The total amount of air that can be forcibily inspired and expired from the lungs in one breath.

    A. Internal Capacity
    B. Vital Capacity
    C. Forced Inhalation
    D. Forced Exhalation
    B. Vital Capacity
  161. During inhalation, the ability of the thorax and lungs to stretch during inspiration.

    A. Adaptation
    B. Compliance
    C. Palpation
    D. Retraction
    B. Compliance
  162. What is the Primary Muscle of Inspiration (Inhalation)?

    A. Lungs
    B. Pharynx
    C. Diaphragm
    D. Posterior Nares
    C. Diaphragm
  163. What is another name for the mechanism of breathing?

    A. Pulmonary Respiration
    B. Expiration
    C. Inspiration
    D. Pulmonary Ventilation
    D. Pulmonary Ventilation
  164. Considered Intestinal Tonsils, are groups of lymphatic nodules found in the mocous membrane of the small instestine, usually in the ileum and jejunum.

    A. Peyer's Patches
    B. Lymph Nodes
    C. Vermiform Appendices
    D. Lymphoid Tissues
    A. Peyer's Patches
  165. Also known as the Gastrointestinal (GI) tract, is the mostly coiled, muscular passageway leading from the mouth to the anus made of mostly smooth muscle. Approximately 30 feet long and itself has four layers, or Tunics.

    A. Alimentary Canal
    B. Digestive Canal
    C. Maxilla Canal
    D. Esophageal Tract
    A. Alimentary Canal
  166. Which organ helps digest proteins, carboydrates and fats within the body?

    A. Pancreas
    B. Spleen
    C. Liver
    D. Pineal Gland
    A. Pancreas
  167. Secreted by glands for the process of digestion, this is the catalyst that accelerates chemical reactions.

    A. Chyme
    B. Enzyme
    C. Gastrin
    D. Bile
    B. Enzyme
  168. A ring of muscle fibers that regulates movement of materials from one compartment of the GI tract to another.

    A. Sphincter
    B. Flexure
    C. Canal
    D. Haustra
    A. Sphincter
  169. What part of the Colon contains the insigmoid and Splenic Flexure?

    A. Ascending Colon
    B. Transverse Colon
    C. Descending Colon
    D. Cecum
    C. Descending Colon
  170. What is the building blocks for building muscles, blood, skin, hair, nails and visceral organs?

    A. Amino Acids
    B. Proteins
    C. Glycogen
    D. Vitamins
    A. Amino Acids
  171. The largest serous membrane in the body, this retroperitoneal membrane envelops the entire abdominal wall and is lubricated with a serous fluid, permitting the digestive structures and other visceral organs to glide easily against the abdominal wall without friction. Contains blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves.

    A. Epididymis
    B. Peritoneum
    C. Endometrium
    D. Ectodetrium
    B. Peritoneum
  172. As food is further blended and digested, a bolus of food is reduced to a thin viscous fluid called _________.

    A. Bolus
    B. Gastrin
    C. Bile
    D. Chyme
    D. Chyme
  173. What cells are the endocrine cells that secrete the hormone gastrin, which inititates the production and secretion of gastric juice and stimulates bile.

    A. G-Gells
    B. Cheif Cells
    C. Parietal Cells
    D. T-Cells
    A. G-Gells
  174. One of the two types of Exocrine cells in the stomach, these cells secrete intrinsic factor, a product needed for (B12 absorption) from the small instesting to the bloodstream (breaks down proteins and activates enzymes)

    A. G-Gells
    B. Cheif Cells
    C. Parietal Cells
    D. T-Cells
    C. Parietal Cells
  175. One of the two Exocrine cells in the stomach, produce the gastric enzyme pepsinogen, a precursor to pepsin (protein digestion). Converts pepsinogen into pepsin when it comes into contact with hydrochorlic acid and begins the chemical digestion of proteins

    A. G-Gells
    B. Cheif Cells
    C. Parietal Cells
    D. T-Cells
    B. Cheif Cells
  176. What is the sphincter is also know as the superior sphincter, found at the junction between the esophagus and stomach.

    A. Pyloric
    B. Fundial
    C. Cardioesophageal
    D. Sigmoidal


    A. Pyloric
  177. What are the numerous fingerlike projections found in the small instestine lining that house blood and capillaries

    A. Villi
    B. Goblet
    C. Lacteals
    D. Microvilla
    A. Villi
  178. What is the body's preferred source of energy?

    A. Proteins
    B. Vitamins
    C. Minerals
    D. Carbohydrates
    D. Carbohydrates
  179. What part of the Intestine absorbs water, vitamins and minerals but few other substances.

    A. Ileum
    B. Colon
    C. Jejunum
    D. Haustra
    B. Colon
  180. Large fan-shaped section of peritoneum that connect all divisions of the small intestines to each other and to the posterior abdominal wall. Contains two Omentums; Greater Omentum and Lesser Omentum.

    A. Endometrium
    B. Mesenteries
    C. Ectometrium
    D. Lymphoid Tissue
    B. Mesenteries
  181. What is the most important digestive organ in the body due to the multitude of enzymes and cells is produces and contains?

    A. Spleen
    B. Pancreas
    C. Tonsils
    D. Lymph Nodes
    B. Pancreas
  182. Produced form the hemoglobin in worn-out red blood cells in the liver, it physically breaks apart large fat globules into smaller ones and provides a larger surface area for the fat-digesting enzymes to work. It also gives urine and the stool their chararistic
    colors.

    A. Chyme
    B. Gastrin
    C. Bile
    D. Villi
    C. Bile
  183. What are the filtering units in kidney, approximately 1.25 million in each kidney. Approximately 85% are located almost entirely in the renal cortex with the remainder in the Medulla?

    A. Nephrons
    B. Renal Medulla
    C. Renal Cortex
    D. Medulla Pryamids
    A. Nephrons
  184. What are the minute blood vessels within the Glomerus Capsule?

    A. Villi
    B. Glumeruli
    C. Rugae
    D. Pulmiri
    B. Glumeruli
  185. What structure consists of a descending limb ascending deep into the Medulla.

    A. Loop of Henle
    B. Medulla
    C. Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
    D. Proximal Convolutel

    A. Loop of Henle
  186. A dozen or so triangular wedges that make up much of medullary tissue of the kidney, made up of numerous collecting tubules that organize themselves into the wedges. This is where Urine is stored.

    A. Medullary Pyramids
    B. Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
    C. Loope of Henle
    D. Glomerulus
    A. Medullary Pyramids
  187. Located where the afferent arterioles touches the distal convoluted tuble (DCT), this structure within the kidneys is equpped with cells that measure blood pressure, the force behind filtration.

    A. Medullary Pyramids
    B. Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
    C. Loope of Henle
    D. Glomerulus
    B. Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
  188. Hormone produced in the adrenal cortex, works in concert with ADH to maintain homeostasis of bodily fluids.

    A. Alderstone
    B. Thyroxine
    C. Glumerulli
    D. Anti-Diriuretic Hormone
    A. Alderstone
  189. The mechanism for releasing urine, begins with a voluntary relaxation of the external sphincter muscle of the bladder. Parasympathetic fibers transmit the impulses that cause contractions of the bladder and relaxation of the internal sphincter.

    A. Mictrurition
    B. Urination
    C. Defecation
    D. Voiding
    A. Mictrurition
  190. The female egg that is matured and ready for implatation and ovulation

    A. Oocyte
    B. Zygote
    C. Ovum
    D. Gamete
    C. Ovum
  191. Gland located on either side of the prostate that secretes an alkaline substance making up approximately 5% of semen volume

    A. Bulbourethal (Cowper's) Glands
    B. Endocrine Glands
    C. Pineal Glands
    D. Gonads
    A. Bulbourethal (Cowper's) Glands
  192. Chemical within chromosomes that resembles, small coiled string.

    A. Glumerulic Acid
    B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
    C. Cytoplasm
    B. Neucolpasm
    B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
  193. Endocrine cells located in the testes that produce testosterone.

    A. Glomerial Cells
    B. Cheif Cells
    C. Parietal Cells
    D. Interstitial Cells of Leydig
    D. Interstitial Cells of Leydig
  194. When a female woman mature and hits puberty, she also hits her menstrual cycle. What is the first phase of the Mentrual Cycle?

    A. Ovulation
    B. Menstruation
    C. Follication
    D. Before Ovulation
    B. Menstruation
  195. Embryonic cell layer giving rise to muscles and connective tissues of the body

    A. Ectoderm
    B. Endoderm
    C. Mesoderm
    D. Lutoderm
    C. Mesoderm
  196. Donut shaped Gland located inferior to the urinary bladder that produces an alkaline secretion, making up approximately 25% of semen volume.

    A. Prostate
    B. Ovary
    C. Vas Deferens
    D. Bladder
    A. Prostate
  197. Within the testes are _________, tightly coiled tubes that produce sperm.

    A. Cremaster
    B. Vas Deferens
    C. Seminiferous Tubles
    D. Rugae

    C. Seminiferous Tubles
  198. A comma-shaped, tightly coiled duct approximately 20 feet long and is the site for final sperm maturation.

    A. Vas Deferens
    B. Seminiferous Tubules
    C. Epididymis
    D. Gonads
    C. Epididymis
  199. What is the tube that transports sperm from the Vas Deferens to the during ejaculation.

    A. Urethra
    B. Ejaculatory Duct
    C. Epididymis
    D. Seminiferous Tubules
    B. Ejaculatory Duct

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview