Surface Warfare Board Questions

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  1. How many potable water pumps are there?
    4 total

    • -2 in 1MMR
    • -2 in 2MMR
  2. What is the purpose of the HPAC?
    Starting EDG, pneumatic automatic controls, supplies back up to LP air system
  3. What is "CRA" and what is the CRA's job?
    Chemical Radiological Assistant

    -responsible to Repair Officer for maintaining chemistry in the reactor and steam plants along with radiological concerns
  4. What are the responsibilities of the load dispatcher?
    Responsible to the EOOW regarding load distribution
  5. What type of fuel is used onboard?
    Enriched Uranium-235
  6. What is the name of the first nuclear destroyer?
    USS Bainbridge
  7. What does NPMTT stand for?
    Nuclear Power Mobile Training Team
  8. What advantages are there using nuclear fuel over fossil fuel?
    • 50% more weps. capacity
    • stay on station longer
    • 5 days faster (conus to med) than cv's
    • less vulnerable to fire damage
    • require fewer support ships
  9. What are the 8 divisions of Reactor Department?
    • RA - Auxiliary
    • RL - Laboratory
    • RM - Mechanical
    • RE - Electrical
    • RXDX - Damage Control
    • TPL - Technical Publications Library
    • RP - Propulsion
    • RC - Controls
  10. What is the capacity of the distilling unit?
    100,000 gallons
  11. What are some loads that run off of main steam?
    • Catapults
    • Main engine
    • SSTGs
  12. Who is the father of Naval nuclear power?
    Admiral Hyman Rickover
  13. What does MPA stand for?
    Main Propulsion Assistant
  14. Who is the Repair Officer?
    CDR Curtis
  15. What color does Reactor wear?
    Red, maroon, or crimson red
  16. What was the first nuclear powered vessel?
    USS Nautilus (SSN-571)
  17. What was the first nuclear powered carrier?
    USS Enterprise (CVN-65)
  18. Can the HST run off of 1 reactor?

    How or how not?
    Yes it can, but the steam piping has to be cross connected in order to do so
  19. What do ELTs do?
    -Work for the CRA and is responsible to the RO for maintaining chemistry in the reactor and steam plants along with radiological concerns and responsible to the PPOW
  20. How many potable water tanks are there?
    26 total

    -11 under 1MMR

    -15 under 2MMR
  21. Where are the reboilers located?
    1A and 4B shaft alleys
  22. What's the normal steaming line-up electrical?
    All 4 generators providing electrical power
  23. What is the basic refer cycle?
    • Compression
    • Condensation
    • Expansion
    • Evaporation
  24. Where does the PPOW stand watch and who are they responsible to?
    Enclosed Operation Station (EOS) and responsible to the EOOW
  25. What is ORSE and how often does it occur?
    Operational Reactor Safeguard Exam occurs every year
  26. What is the purpose of the emergency bilge suction on the main circulation pump and how much can it discharge over the side?
    Purpose is to pump water out of the bilges in an emergency and is capable of pumping 5000 gpm
  27. What type of power plant does the HST use?
    A4W pressurized water reactor
  28. Where are the HPACs located?
    • 2 in 1MMR (forward)
    • 2 in 2MMR (aft)
  29. How many distilling plants are there?
  30. Where are the main engines located?
    -1 & 4 in 1MMR

    -2 & 3 in 2MMR
  31. What is a TLD and what is it used for?
    Thermal Luminescent Dosimeter

    • -measures how much radiation a person has been exposed to
    • -required to be worn by all reactor personnel
  32. What is the bearing outside the ship next to the screw?
    Strut bearing
  33. What's the difference between potable water and feedwater?
    -Potable water is used for crew living

    -Feedwater is purified and used for reactor operation
  34. What does RMA stand for?
    Reactor Mechanical Assistant
  35. What does it mean to trail shaft?
    No steam is applied to main engine and the shaft spins freely
  36. How many reboilers are there and where are they located?
    2 reboilers

    -located in 1A & 4B shaft alley
  37. What is the PSI for the HPACs?
    4200 PSI
  38. What is the purpose of the main condenser?
    Condenses gas to water from the main engine and sends it back through the feed system
  39. What is the basic heat transfer process?
    • Generation
    • Expansion
    • Condensation
    • Feed
  40. What's the purpose of the Ship's Service Turbine Generators (SSTGs)?
    Converts steam to electrical power
  41. What do the reboilers load?
    -Water heater


  42. What type of distilling units do we have?
    Low pressure, 6 stage, flash type
  43. What was the first nuclear powered surface ship?
    USS Long Beach (CGN-9)
  44. What does EOS stand for and what is it's purpose?
    Enclosed Operation Stations

    -maintains control of the reactor in the event of a main space casualty
  45. How is potable water purified?
    -P-wedges, 2 located in each MMR that use electicity and salt

    -Altenative is using Bromide cartridges and hypochloride
  46. What is the total capacity of the potable water tanks?
    485,859 gallons
  47. What is an ELT?
    Engineering Laboratory Technician
  48. What is the last bearing to penetrate the ship from the inside?
    Stern tube bearing
  49. What is the purpose of SCRAM?
    Rapid insertion of control rods to shut down the reactor
  50. What does RAM stand for?
    Radioactive Material
  51. What does EOOW stand for?
    Engineering Officer of the Watch
  52. What are the 3 watches stood in DCC by Reactor?

    -Water Controller

    -Load Dispatcher
  53. What is the strut bearing lubricated with?
    Sea Water
  54. What is the output of the SSTGs and EDGs in volts, amps, megawatts, and kilowatts?
    -4160 V

    -1388 amps

    -8 megawatts

    -8000 kilowatts
  55. Low pressure air compressors are rated at what pressure?
    125 PSI
  56. What is the function of the astern throttle valve?
    When opened, the valve lets steam into the low pressure turbine's astern elements allowing the ship to slow down or go in reverse
  57. What is the purpose of the ahead throttle valve?
    When opened, the valve lets steam into the high pressure turbine allowing the ship to go forward
  58. Where are the distilling plants located?
    -2 in 1MMR

    -2 in 2MMR
  59. What is meant by "the reactor is critical"?
    Normal Operation (stable)
  60. How many EDGs are onboard?
    4 total

    • -2 FWD
    • -2 AFT
  61. What is the range of the SPS-49?
    256 NM
  62. What is the purpose of the ship's gyros pertaining to weapons systems?
    Provides pitch, roll and heading for ordnance on target
  63. What is RF?
    A high-pulsed microwave energy that travels and is bounced (reflected) back to it's source
  64. What is ES, EA, and EP?
    • -Electronic support
    • -Electronic attack
    • -Electronic protection

    -The analyzation of intercepted signals and classification of them
  65. What are the 3 types of data links?
    Links 11/16/4A

    • 11 (Alligator)
    • 16 (Timber)
    • 4A (Dolly)
  66. What does CSMC stand for?
    Combat Systems Maintenance Central
  67. What is the purpose of AIMD?
    Support the air wing
  68. What is the displacement of the ship in tons?
    93,500 or 97,000 tons
  69. What is the range of the SPS-48?
    220 NM
  70. What does NSSMS stand for and how many are there?
    Nato Sea-Sparrow Missile System

    -2 onboard
  71. In regards to aircraft, what is hot and cold refueling?
    -Hot is with engine turning

    -Cold is after aircraft shutdown
  72. What is the difference between 2D and 3D?
    -2D shows range and bearing

    -3D shows range, bearing, and altitude
  73. What is the mission of the E2-C Hawkeye?
    Provide early warning of approaching air missile targets
  74. What is the salvo alarm and what safety precautions must be observed when it sounds?
    Salvo alarm means that missile launch is imminent.

    Personnel must take cover because there are 15 seconds to launch
  75. What is the purpose of the Nixie and how many do we have?
    There are 2 Nixies and the purpose is for torpedo countermeasure
  76. Where is the underwater log located?
    JP-5 pump room #2
  77. What is the only response to a beadwindow?
    Roger Out!
  78. How many SLQ-32s are onboard and where are they located?
    2 located on the fwd/port side of the island 
  79. How many targets can be engaged by RAM at a time and at what rate?
    21 targets (1 every 2 seconds)
  80. What are the 2 modes of operation for the SLQ-32?
    Active and passive
  81. What is the primary mission of the SLQ-32?
    Anti-ship missile defense (ASMD)
  82. What does MIO stand for?
    Maritime Interdiction Operations
  83. What are the 4 types of CASREPS?
    • Initial
    • Correction
    • Update
    • Cancel
  84. What does TOP stand for and where is it located?
    Tactical Operations Plot

    -Located on 09-level behind the bridge
  85. What does ASTAC stand for?
    Anti-Submarine Tactical Air Controller
  86. What are all modules in CDC?
    • Air D&T
    • Surface D&T
    • D&D
    • EW
    • ASW
    • Top
    • AIC
  87. What is the effective range of RAM and what type of missile does it use?
    Range is 3NM

    Missile is RIM-116
  88. What is the range of the SPS-67?
    55-100 NM
  89. What is the effective range of the NSSMS radar and the missile?
    Radar = 50 NM

    Missile = 12 NM
  90. Where are the gyros located?
    FWD and AFT IC
  91. What does CSOSS stand for and what is it's purpose?
    Combat Systems Operational Sequencing System is used to maintain the highest level of readiness
  92. What is an OPREP Navy Blue message used for?
    Notifies the CNO of any incidents that are of interest to the press
  93. What does HERO stand for and what is the purpose?
    Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance

    Purpose is to take procedures or precautions necessary to prevent the accidental initiation of ammunition
  94. What is the length of the ship?
    1098 feet
  95. What does RAM stand for and how many mounts are there?
    Rolling Airframe Missile

    2 mounts
  96. What is the primary and secondary surface search radar?
    Primary = SPS-67

    Secondary = SPS-49
  97. Where are RAMs located and what are the modes of operation?

    2 modes of operation are local and remote
  98. What are the duties of the CSOOW?
    Responsible for tracking the status of all CS gear and their spaces
  99. What does CSRO stand for?
    Combat Systems Readiness Officer
  100. What is the time frame to release a flash message?
    Within 10 minutes
  101. What is the purpose of data links?
    For the exchange of tactical data amongst ships and aircraft
  102. What is another name for C-2 Greyhound?
    Carrier Onboard Delivery (COD)
  103. What are the 3 radars used in CATCC?
    SPN-41, 43, and 46
  104. What is the primary air search radar?
  105. What is the secondary air search radar?
  106. What are the security classifications?
    Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, Unclassified
  107. What type of ship is an SSBN?
    Fleet Ballistic Missile Submarine
  108. What does ASTAB stand for and what is their purpose?
    Automated status board

    Television monitors that display various data
  109. How many NSSMS targets can be displayed at one time and engaged at one time?
    4 displayed / 2 engaged
  110. What is an LCC?
    Amphibious Command Ship
  111. What is an LPD?
    Amphibious Transport Dock
  112. What does AIC stand for?
    Air Intercept Controller
  113. What does SSDS stand for?
    Ship's Self Defense System
  114. How far can CIWS search, track, and engage a target?
    • Search = 5 NM
    • Track = 3 NM
    • Engage = 1 NM
  115. What are the 4 components of a weapons system?
    • Detect
    • Direct
    • Deliver
    • Destroy
  116. What is a PC?
    Patrol Craft
  117. What is the range for High Frequency?
    3-30 MHz
  118. What does CASREP stand for?
    Casualty Report
  119. How many .50 Cal mounts are there?
  120. What is a misfire?
    When nothing occurs when firing action is initiated
  121. What does EMCON stand for?
    Emission Control
  122. What does red, amber, and green decks mean?
    Red = ship's not ready for flight operations or the deck is fouled

    Amber = helo operations, 2 minutes to launch

    Green = ready for flight operations
  123. How many missiles can the NSSMS launcher hold?
  124. What does IFF stand for?  How many modes are there?
    Identify Friend or Foe

    -5 modes
  125. What does CSTT stand for and what does it do?
    Combat Systems Training Team

    Responsible for training personnel involved in ship's combat systems
  126. What is a hot gun?
    When 300 or more rounds are fired within a 5 minute period
  127. What does MCM stand for?
    Mine CounterMeasure
  128. What is the purpose of METOC?
    To provide the most up-to-date weather info and to ensure that nothing will interfere with ship's operation in any way
  129. What does TACAN stand for?
    Tactical Air Navigation
  130. What is the primary fire control radar?
  131. What is the maximum rate of fire for the CIWS?
    4,500 rpm

    • -4,500 rpm on air contacts
    • -3,000 rpm on surface contacts
    • -Max load out is 1550
  132. What is the ship's top speed?
    30+ knots (classified)
  133. What is a hang fire?
    Delay of fire
  134. What is the mission of the SH-60?
    • SAR
    • Anti-Sub
    • Personnel Transfer
  135. What is WQC-2?
    Underwater telephone used to talk to subs, nicknamed "Gertrude"
  136. What does CDC stand for and what are their missions?
    Combat Direction Center

    -provide the bridge with the current tactical picture, decipher and disseminate pertinent mission data
  137. What is FURUNO?
    Commercial, color, navigation radar
  138. What are the 4 physical stages to RF radiation?
    • Hair on body stand straight up
    • Warm glowy sensation in chest
    • Red burn circle in chest area
    • Death
  139. What are the missions of the TAO and where does he work?
    Self defense of the ship, navigation during GQ and man overboard, weapons release authority

    -works from the D&D in CDC
  140. How long is the Nixie reel?
    1,600 feet
  141. Where would you find the SLQ-32 operator?
    EW module
  142. What antenna is nicknamed "spider"?
  143. What antennas are nicknamed "stubbies"?
  144. Where are the CIWS mounts located?
  145. What is the range for very high frequency (VHF)?
    30-300 MHz
  146. What is the range for Ultra High Frequency (UHF)?
    300 MHz - 3 GHz
  147. What is the range of SHF and what is it used for?
    3-30 GHz and is used for pots lines and internet use
  148. What is the range of Extremely High Frequency (EHF)?
    30-300 GHz
  149. What does CIWS stand for and how many mounts are there?
    Close-In Weapons System

    -2 mounts
  150. What is an LHA?
    Amphibious Assault Ship
  151. What does CATCC stand for?
    Carrier Air Traffic Control Center
  152. What does CSOOW stand for?
    Combat Systems Officer of the Watch
  153. What does CVIC stand for?
    Carrier Intelligence Center
  154. How many gyros are onboard and what type?
    2 gyros

  155. What type of missile does the NSSMS use?
  156. What is the mission of the F/A-18?
    Fighter/Attack aircraft
  157. What are the nicknames for the following radars?

    • SPN-41 "Bullseye"
    • SPN-43 "Marshall"
    • SPN-46 "Easy Rider" or "Needles"
  158. What is drag circle?
    Pe-lor-us plus the hawsepipe
  159. Who wears a green hard hat?
  160. What color is the 5th shot of the anchor chain?
    White with 5 white links on each side
  161. What does stream stand for?
    Standard Tension Replenishment Alongside Method
  162. What does "IALA" stand for?
    International Lighthouse Authorities
  163. What are the colors on the P&D lines?
    • Green
    • Red
    • Yellow
    • Blue
    • White
    • Green
  164. What is 1st substitute for absentee?
    Commodore is ashore
  165. What does bridge crane do?
    Moves stopper and hawespipe
  166. What is the detachable link color sequence?
    • 1-red
    • 2-white
    • 3-blue
    • 5-white
    • 11-yellow
    • 12-red
  167. How many stations do we have to take on fuel and which ones are they?
    3 stations

    -Stations 5, 11, & 13
  168. What does a gypsy witch do?
    Haul in and pay out line
  169. What is a capstain?
    Cylinder device used to heave in line
  170. What is 2nd substitute?
    Chief of Staff ashore
  171. What is a gypsy?
    Horizontal drum
  172. What is the maximum capacity of the rhib?

    -book says 16
  173. What is the lima flag?
    HERO flag
  174. What do 3 black balls indicate?
    Vessel aground
  175. What is the bravo flag used for?
    Fuel and ordnance tranfer
  176. What color hard hat do riggers wear?
  177. What kind of smoke floats do we have? 

    Where are they located?

    What are they used for?
    Mk-58 MLMs

    Fantail, 09 & 010 levels

    Mark position for man overboards
  178. What is a caternary?
    A dip in the line
  179. Where are stations 5, 11 & 13 located?
    -5 is near metal and trash

    -11 is in the outer-CO p-way

    -13 is near the Officer Quarterdeck
  180. Name 2 animals in the fo'csle?
    • Bridge crane
    • Pelican hook
    • Bullnose
    • Wildcat
    • Monkey fist
    • Camel humps
    • Frog feet
    • Alligator back
  181. What is slack?
    To ease out a line
  182. How many cargo stations to we have?
  183. What are 3 common types of man over board recovery?
    • Ship
    • Helo
    • RHIB
  184. What does the oscar flag indicate?
    Man overboard
  185. Where did the anchor chain come from?
    USS Saratoga
  186. Where did the anchor come from?
    USS Forrestal
  187. Who is overall in charge on the bridge when CO is not present?
  188. What color hard hat does safety wear on station?
    White with a green cross
  189. What are some items stored in life rafts?
    • Water
    • Food
    • Distilling kit
    • Flares
    • Fishing Equipment
    • Mirror
    • Ores
    • Lifeboat repair kit
    • Sea anchor
  190. What is VERTREP?
    Vertical Replenishment
  191. What color hat does the OOD wear?
  192. What does 1 black ball indicate?
  193. What does ease mean?
    To do something slowly and keep strain off the line but not to allow for a caternary
  194. What is "hold"?
    Not to allow line to run out or take in
  195. What is a turnbuckle?
    Tighten something down or loosen
  196. What are the purposes of the stern dock?
    Liberty boats
  197. What is the poppa flag for?
    Personnel recall
  198. How much chain is there all together?
    24 feet (12 feet on each side)
  199. What are the colors of detachable links?
    • Red
    • White
    • Blue
  200. What is the length of chain?
    1,080 feet
  201. What is the MOBI system?
    Personal saltwater or manually activated alarm system that aids in detection, location, and recovery of man overboard
  202. What color is the danger shot?
  203. How many whistles are given for man overboard?
    5 police whistles
  204. What are the navigational lights in regards to restricted maneuvering?
    Red, white, red
  205. Who do the helm and lee helm make all reports to?
    Conning officer
  206. How do you measure line, wire rope, and small stuff?
    -Line measured by circumference

    -Wire rope measured by diameter

    -Small stuff is any line 1 3/4" or less in circumference
  207. What is the safe distance from all chocks, cleats, gypsy heads and capstain?
    6 feet
  208. What is the chain stopper?
    Secures the chain and is a quick release
  209. What are the cargo stations and their locations?
    7 & 9 in HB2

    17 & 19 in HB3
  210. What does the term avast mean?
    Stop, you have reached the line's SWL
  211. What is a magnetic compass?
    Compass that points to magnetic north
  212. Where does a gyro compass point towards?
    True north
  213. What do the helmsman and lee helmsman do?
    Helmsman keeps the ship on course/navigation

    Lee helmsman maintains the speed of the ship
  214. 4th absentee penant is what?
    Civilian or military official
  215. What is a capstain?
    Vertical drum
  216. What is a hawsepipe?
    Large pipe that the anchor runs through
  217. What is a bitt?
    Metal cylinder to which mooring lines are secured
  218. What is a pelican hook?
    Located at the end of a turnbuckle and passed over a link of chain
  219. What is a chock?
    Metal fitting that serves as a lead for lines to pier or other ships
  220. What is a cleat?
    Metal horns on which lines are belayed
  221. What does it mean to check line?
    To keep a strain on the line and ease it out
  222. How many life rafts are onboard?
  223. What is the purpose of the fantail watch?
    Life bouy watch
  224. What is hawser?
    Line that is over 5" in circumference
  225. What is the bullnose?
    FWD most chock on the fo'csle
  226. What is the quebec flag used for?
    Small boat recall
  227. What color hard hat does the winch operator wear?

    What is the winch operator's job?

    -Job is to heave in all line
  228. What is the safest distance between ships during UNREP?
    180 feet
  229. What does the RHIB crew consist of for man overboard?
    • Coxswain
    • Boat engineer
    • SAR swimmer
    • Boat officer
  230. What does DR stand for?
    Dead Reckoning
  231. What does the term "take in" mean?
    To heave in on a line
  232. What kind of padeyes are at cargo stations?
    Sliding padeyes
  233. What is the fuction of the P&D line?
    Maintain communications and mark distance between 2 ships
  234. What is the tattle tale card?
    Small stuff:

    when line reaches SWL
  235. Where is the bridge crane located?
    Up FWD in the Fo'csle
  236. What is the SWL for the B&A crane?

    Where is it located?
    50,000 lbs.

    FWD/STBD side
  237. What is a sexton?
    Used for celestial navigation
  238. How many mooring lines are there?
    12 + 2 storm lines
  239. What does RHIB stand for?

    How long is it?
    Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat

    -7 meters long (24 feet)
  240. What do steady lines do?
    Steady the RHIB as you raise and lower
  241. What are the types of chain stoppers?
    Housing and Riding
  242. What type of anchor is onboard and what is the weight?
    Mk-2 standard stocklace

    -weighs 30 tons
  243. What's a long splice?
    Connects 2 lines without changing circumference
  244. What does P & D stand for?
    Phone & Distance
  245. What is the SWL for lifting the RHIB?
    5,600 lbs.
  246. What is a swing circle?
    Anchor chain plus the length of the ship
  247. 3rd absentee penant is what?
  248. What are the responsibilities of BMOW?
    All watchstanders on the bridge
  249. Who is responsible for the safe navigation of the ship?
    QuarterMaster Of the Watch (QMOW)
  250. What do detachable links do?
    Connects 2 chains together
  251. What does ball over ball dayshape indicate?
    Vessel not under command
  252. What is the code/flag A?
  253. What are the 4 watches deck department stands underway?
    • BMOW
    • AFT/FWD Lookout
    • Helm
    • Lee Helm
    • Aft steering
  254. Who orders abandon ship?
  255. What does a BM carry in his/her front breast pocket and their rear back pocket?
    -Boatswain's pipe in front

    -Marlinspike in back
  256. Who receives 4 bells?
  257. What station is used for sending fuel only?
  258. What is ship's ideal speed during UNREP?
    12-16 knots
  259. What is the kilo flag used for?
    Man working aloft
  260. How many shots are on the anchor chain?
    12 shots
  261. What color is a caution shot?
  262. Who wears a yellow hard hat?
    Rig captain
  263. How far apart are the marks on the P&D lines?
    20 feet
  264. What is the navigational lights for man overboard?
    Red, Red
  265. What does the term cast off mean?
    To throw a line
  266. What type of signal does the Mk-58 give off?
    Smoke and flames
  267. What does Ball, Diamond, Ball day shape indicate?
    Restricted maneuvering
  268. What 2 places can the ship be steered from?
    Helm and Aft steering
  269. What are some things found on the MSDS?
    • Manufactorer
    • First Aid
    • Flashpoint
    • Disposal methods
  270. What is oily waste?
    Oil that has mixed with other fluids
  271. What is the SUPPO's primary responsibility onboard?
    Proper performance and adminstration of all Supply Department functions
  272. What division is S-8?
    Shipping and receiving
  273. What does "UMMIPS" stand for?
    Uniform Military Movement Issue Priority System
  274. What is the fleet freigh cargo message?
    Naval message sent to notify of a ship's location to receive stores and/or fuel
  275. What are DLRs and what is the Cognizant symbol used?
    Depot Level Repairables

    -Cog 7
  276. What does AEL stand for?
    Allowance Equipment list
  277. How many days can you hold hazardous waste onboard?
    90 days
  278. What division is S-1?
    Stock Control
  279. What's the minimum number of hazmat spill kits onboard?
  280. What is the S-10 division?
  281. Who is the FSO?
    CWO Armstrong
  282. What does NAVOSH stand for?
    Naval Occupational Safety and Health Program
  283. What are MAMs?
    Maintenance Assist Modules
  284. What division is S-6?
    Aviation Supply
  285. What division is S-13?
  286. What division is S-7?
  287. What is the discharge limitation for blackwater?
    50 NM
  288. What division is primarily responsible for DLRs?
  289. The principal assistant for logistic is responsible for what divisions?
    • S-1
    • S-1A
    • S-6
    • S-8
    • S-8A
  290. The principal assistant for service is responsible for what divisions?
    • S-2
    • S-3
    • S-4
    • S-5
    • S-7
    • S-11
  291. What are the 6 categories of hazmat?
    • Flammable
    • Aeresol
    • Toxic
    • Corrosive
    • Oxidizer
    • Compressed Gas
  292. What is the instruction for underway and inport discharge limitations?
    OPNAVINST 5090.1C
  293. What legislation governs the discharge of Oily waste?
    Clean Water Act
  294. What is the NSTM-650?
  295. What is the procedure when discovering an HM/HW spill?
    • Report
    • Secure area
    • Contain
    • Report
  296. What divisions use the NAVSUP P-727?
    • S-2
    • S-3
    • S-4
    • S-5
    • S-7
    • S-11
  297. What supply pub is the afloat supply?

    Which one is for general mess?

    Which one for ship store?

    486- mess

  298. What determines the BDFH?
    Size of the crew and rations rate
  299. What does CMP stand for?
    Continuous Monitoring Program
  300. What rate uses the NAVSUP P-487?
  301. What are the ASUPPO's responsibilities?
    Administration and training

    -Principal assistant to the SUPPO
  302. What rate uses the NAVSUP P-485?
  303. What division is S-1A?
    Post Office
  304. What division is S-1?
    Stock Control
  305. What percent of HST inventory is DLR?
  306. What are the 2 types of OPTAR?
    -Equipment Maintenance Related Material   (EMRM)

  307. What rate uses the NAVSUP P-486?
  308. What division is S-4?
  309. What division is S-8A?
  310. What divisions use the CMP?
    S-1, S-2, & S-3
  311. What does APL stand for?
    Allowance Part List
  312. What does waste oil mean?
    Oil that can no longer be refined or reused
  313. What does NIIN stand for?
    Naval Item Identification Number
  314. What is graywater?
    Scullery or shower water
  315. What is blackwater?
  316. What does NSN stand for?
    National Stock Number
  317. Where can you find the MSDS?
  318. HAZMAT training is how often?
  319. Who's permission is needed to discharge oily waste?
  320. What is the purpose of the ship's store?
    • Improve crew morale
    • Day-to-day living
    • MWR support
  321. What does BDFA stand for?
    Basic Daily Food Allowance
  322. What is the discharge limitation for paint?
  323. How many digits are in an NSN?
  324. What division is S-2?
    Food service
  325. When was Navy Cash established and for what purpose?
    Established in 1988 to eliminate cash onboard ships
  326. What does the term incompatible mean?
    Any substance that may cause death or bodily harm
  327. What are MAMs used for?
  328. How does split pay work?
    Sailors can have a portion of their paychecks sent directly to their Navy Cash accounts each payday
  329. What does DDS stand for?
    Direct Deposit System
  330. What are bulkhead ready spares?
    Ready to use parts for emergency use until new part is ordered and received

    -used in machinery spaces
  331. What division is S-5?
    Hotel Service or Wardrooms
  332. If no galley or personnel are available, what kind of rations are served?
    MREs or B-rations
  333. What is the BDFA breakdown?
    • 20% breakfast
    • 40% lunch
    • 40% dinner
  334. Where is the COSAL located?
  335. What division is S-11?
    CPO mess
  336. What is the purpose of endurance level loading of subsistence?
    To last a duration of 35-45 days
  337. What is hazardous waste?
    Any waste that can harm the environment and human health
  338. What does COSAL stand for?
    Coordinated Shipboard Allowance Listing
  339. What is the discharge limits for plastic?
  340. How many digits are in a NIIN?
  341. What are some items on the "never out" list?
    • Toilet paper
    • Soap
    • Paper
    • Rags
    • Papertowels
    • Novocain for dental procedures
  342. What does OPTAR stand for?
    Operational Target
  343. What does MSDS stand for?
    Material Safety Data Sheet
  344. What is the distance from land to dump trash?
    3 NM
  345. What items are found in a spill response kit?
    • Absorbant pad
    • Coveralls
    • Goggles
  346. What is the PPE for HAZMAT?
    • Boots
    • Rubber Apron
    • Rubber Gloves
  347. How are plastic and paint discharged while out to sea for a long period of time?
  348. What is compressed gas?
    Gas in a cylinder that is under extreme pressure
  349. Who is the SUPPO?
    CDR Clark
  350. What does OSI stand for?
    Operating Space Items

    -consumables necessary for safety care upkeep of ship
  351. When was the voyage of the great white fleet?
    16 DEC 1907
  352. Who is the Secretary of Defense?
    Chuck Hagel
  353. What is the significance of the Battle of Guadalcanal?
    It was the death of the Sullivan brothers.

    Allied forces defeated the Japanese at the Solomon Islands in November 1942
  354. What was the significance of the Battle of Normandy?
    Largest amphibious operation in history

    Occurred on June 6, 1944
  355. When and what was the Battle of Leyte Gulf?
    The final blow to the Japanese Navy, which saved the Phillipine Islands

    -Occurred Oct 23, 1944
  356. What is the 10th Fleet?
    Fleet Cyber Command
  357. How many guns to ships-of-the-line have?
  358. How many guns are on sloops-of-war?
  359. When was the attack on the USS Cole and where did it happen?
    12 OCT 2000 off the coast of Yemen
  360. What does EDVR stand for and what does it mean?
    Enlisted Distribution Verification Report

    -It is a monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account
  361. What are the 5 characteristics of terrorist operations?
    • Political
    • Psychological
    • Violent
    • Dynamic
    • Deliberate
  362. What are the 7 principles of Naval logistics?
    • Responsiveness
    • Simplicity
    • Flexibility
    • Economy
    • Attainability
    • Sustainability
    • Survivability
  363. What are the characteristics of terrorist cell?
    -Each cell has a higher level of contact

    -Each cell operates independently

    -Destroying or capturing a cell does not necessarily lead to finding out more about the organization
  364. What are the 6 areas of the Naval Doctrine?
    • Command & Control
    • Operations
    • Warfare
    • Logistics
    • Intelligence
    • Planning
  365. What does UCMJ stand for?
    Uniform Code of Military Justice
  366. When is the Navy's birthday?
    October 13, 1775
  367. What does MSC stand for and what is it's AOR?
    Military Sealift Command

    -AOR is worldwide
  368. What does TYCOM stand for and who is our's?
    Type Commander

    -our TYCOM is AIRLANT
  369. Who is Secretary of the Navy?
    Ray Mabus
  370. Who is Chief of Naval Operations?
    ADM Johnathon Greenert
  371. What is 5th Fleet AOR?
    Indian Ocean
  372. What does RAM stand for?
    Random Anti-Terrorism Measures
  373. What is the 10th General Order?
    To salute all officers and all colors and standards not cased
  374. What is the 9th General Order?
    To call the Officer of the Deck in any case not covered by instruction
  375. What is the 8th General Order?
    To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder
  376. What is the 7th General Order?
    To talk to no one except in the line of duty
  377. What is the 6th General Order?
    To receive, obey and pass on to the sentry who relieves me, all orders from the commanding officer, officer of the deck, and all officers and petty officers of the watch only
  378. What is the 11th General Order?
    To be especially watchful at night and during the time for challenging, to challenge all persons on or near my post, and to allow no one to pass without proper authority
  379. What is the 5th General Order?
    To quit my post only when properly relieved
  380. What is the 4th General Order?
    To report all calls from posts more distant from the guardhouse than my own
  381. What is the 3rd General Order?
    To report all violations of orders I am instructed to enforce
  382. What is the 2nd General Order?
    To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on the alert, and observing everything that takes place within sight or hearing
  383. What is the 1st General Order?
    To take charge of this post and all government property in view
  384. Gun salutes are fired at what intervals?
    5 second intervals and always in odd numbers
  385. What does deadly force mean?
    Force that a person knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm
  386. Where does a sentry get their authority from?
    US Navy regulations
  387. What was the largest of the colonial warships?
  388. What are the 3 defense zones?
    • Assessment
    • Warning
    • Threat
  389. How many gun salutes does a Vice Admiral rate?
  390. How many gun salutes does a Commodore rate?
  391. Who is MCPON?
    MCPON Rick Stevens
  392. What color hats do ATT members wear?
  393. What does BRF stand for?
    Basic Reaction Force
  394. What is the significance of the Battle of Midway?
    It was the turning point of WWII in the Pacific
  395. What does Anti-Terrorism mean?
    Defense measures taken against terrorism
  396. What does COG stand for and what are the responsibilities of the COG?
    Chief Of the Guard

    -senior security force member on the pier and is responsible for all pier watches
  397. What does SORM stand for?
    Ship's/Command's Organization and Regulations Manual
  398. What does a Page 4 include?
    • Documented completed training
    • Completed courses
    • NECs
    • Enlisted Qualification History
  399. What is 3rd Fleet's AOR?
    Eastern and Northern Pacific
  400. What is 4th Fleet's AOR?
    • South Atlantic
    • Carribean
    • Central and South Americas
  401. How many gun salutes does a Rear Admiral Upper and Lower Half rate?
    Upper Half = 13

    Lower Half = 11
  402. What is FPCON Normal?
    No threat of terrorist activity
  403. What is counterterrorism?
    Offensive measures taken against terrorism
  404. What is a Page 13?
    Administrative remarks
  405. In what defense zone is intent determined?
    Warning zone
  406. What are requirements for a Good Conduct Award?
    • No performance mark below 3.0 in any trait
    • No prior NJP or court martial convictions given in last 3 years
  407. What is the 7th Fleet's AOR?
    Western Pacific and is based out of Japan
  408. How many gun salutes does an Admiral rate?
  409. What are the 3 levels of war?
    • Tactical
    • Operational
    • Strategic
  410. What phase of terrorist operations is Intelligence and Surveillance?
    Phase 2
  411. What is the inner defense zone called?
    Threat zone
  412. What does NSF stand for?
    Naval Security Force
  413. What does VBIED stand for?
    Vehicle-Born Improvised Explosive Device
  414. What are the 3 major classes of warships in the Continental Navy?
    • Ships-of-the-line
    • Frigates
    • Sloops-of-war
  415. What does SRF stand for and what is their response time?
    Secondary Reaction Force

    -10 minute response time
  416. What phase of terrorist operations is Actions on the Objective?
    Phase 6
  417. What does ATTWO stand for?
    Anti-Terrorism Tactical Watch Officer
  418. What is FPCON Bravo?
    When there is a more predictable terrorist threat existence but installations are not targeted
  419. What does PPR stand for?
    Pre-Planned Responses
  420. What phase of terrorist operations is Rehearsals?
    Phase 5
  421. What phase of terrorist operations is Escape and Exploitation?
    Phase 7
  422. What does SORM do?
    Governs a specific unit's Admin organization (including watches)
  423. What does it mean if the union jack is flown from the yard arm?
    Court martial or court of inquiry is in session
  424. What are the steps of ORM?
    • Identify hazards
    • Access the hazards
    • Make risk decisions
    • Implement controls
    • Supervise
  425. What phase of terrorist operations is Specific Target Selection?
    Phase 3
  426. How many guns would a frigate typically carry?
  427. What is Fleet Forces AOR?
    Atlantic Ocean
  428. What was the first Naval ship named after an enlisted man?
    USS Osmond Ingram (DD 255)
  429. What does SROE stand for?
    Standing Rules Of Engagement
  430. What is RF and what is their response time?
    Reserve Force

    -20 minutes response time
  431. What is SROE for?
    Provides guidance in regards to when the use of deadly force is authorized
  432. Who are the only 3 personnel that have weapon release authority?
    • ATO
    • ATTWO
    • TAO
  433. How many people on a BRF team?
  434. How long does the BRF team have to respond?
    5 minutes
  435. Who is our TYCOM?
    Commander, Naval Air Forces Atlantic
  436. What is the oldest US Navy commissioned vessel?
    USS Constitution
  437. What is the significance of the Battle of Coral Sea?
    The 2 fleets never saw each other
  438. What color weapons does Security use during drills?
  439. What levels of FPCONs are there?
    • Normal
    • Alpha
    • Bravo
    • Charlie
    • Delta
  440. How do terrorists identify their targets?
    They attack soft targets and aim to get the most media coverage
  441. What is the purpose of PPRs?
    They are general guidelines for handling incidents.  They contain a list of expected notifications and actions
  442. When is FPCON Charlie set?
    When intelligence indicates that an attack is being planned on installations or personnel
  443. When is FPCON Delta set?
    When an incident has occurred or intelligence indicates imminent terrorist activities against specific locations
  444. What phase of terrorist operations is Broad Target Selection?
    Phase 1
  445. what does ATT stand for?
    Anti-terrorism Training Team
  446. What is 2nd Fleet's AOR?
    Atlantic Ocean
  447. What is 6th Fleet's AOR?
    Europe and Mediterranean
  448. What type of reefer units are there?
    7 ton, York, 6-cylinder

    -reciprocating motor driven via V-belt
  449. What type of A/C units are there onboard?
    York, 363 ton, single stage, centrifugal motor driven
  450. Where are #14 and #15 motor-driven fire pumps?
    #2 A/C machinery room
  451. What spaces will you find the 50 pound CO2 hose reel system?
    • MMR
    • RAR
    • EDG
  452. Where are #8 and #10 A/C & load center 73?
    #3 A/C machinery room (XO Pway)
  453. How many gallons per minute are the motor- driven fire pumps?
    1000 gpm
  454. How many gallons per minute are the list pumps?
    1800 gpm
  455. How does the Damage Control Watch Supervisor (DCWS) determine the list?
  456. How many refrigeration plants are there?
  457. What is the effective range of the portable AFFF bottle?
    15 feet and decreasing
  458. What does Guarding mean?
    Protects the turbines during certain steam plant casualties
  459. How many list tanks are there?
  460. What is EOSS?
    Engineering Operational Sequencing System
  461. Who is the Repair Officer (REPO)?
    CWO3 Hughes
  462. What are the characteristics of a Class Bravo fire?
    Burning liquids or fuels with black smoke
  463. Where is #5 A/C located?
    #1 MMR
  464. Where is the list control pump located?
    Shaft Alley 4A
  465. What does MSSS stand for?
    Main Space Sanitation System
  466. Which A/C is the most FWD part of the ship?
    #9 A/C
  467. What are the characteristics of a Class Charlie fire?
    Electrical fire, with sparks and blue flames
  468. What is liquid nitrogen used for?
    • Freeze warts in medical
    • Shrink metal
    • Fill tires
  469. How many deguassing coils do we have and what are they?

    • M-coil = horizontal
    • A-coil = vertical
  470. How do you extinguish a trough fire?
  471. How many fire pumps are there?
  472. What distance from land can we dump trash over the side?
    12 NM
  473. What does PPM stand for?
    Parts Per Million
  474. Where are #1 and #2 refers located?
    #1 A/C machinery room
  475. How many HPACs are there?

    -2 in each MMR on 4th deck
  476. Who is the ADCA?
    LTJG Van Dyke
  477. What is the capacity of AFFF reserve tanks?
    3,500 gallons
  478. What are the 3 types of shoring?
  479. What are the 3 main material conditions of readiness?
  480. How many repair lockers are there?
  481. What toxic gas is associated with CHT?
  482. What is the voltage of the electrical distribution system?
    4160 V
  483. Which 2 repair lockers are designated as propulsion plant repair lockers?
    4 & 5
  484. How many CHT tanks are there?
    2 CHT tanks & 1 MSSS tank
  485. Who normally determines the list while underway?
  486. What is the purpose of liquid oxygen?
    • Pilot's air
    • Medical/dental uses
  487. What does APC stand for?
    Aqueous Potassium Carbonate
  488. What does SCBA stand for?
    Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus
  489. Who is the CHENG?
    CDR Rossler
  490. How far out to sea can we dump CHT?
    3 NM
  491. What area is repair locker 1B responsible for?
    The middle part of the ship
  492. What powers the ship inport?
    High Voltage Shore Power (HVSP)
  493. Who is the Fire Marshall?
    CWO4 Sullivan
  494. Who controls the list underway?
    Damage Control Watch Supervisor (DCWS)
  495. What system provides power when the SSTGs fail?
    Emergency Diesel Generators (EDGs)
  496. What are the 4 casualty agents used in chemical warfare?
    • Nerve
    • Choking
    • Blood
    • Blister
  497. What color is oxygen in liquid form?
    Pale blue
  498. What are 3 modes of CHT and what does it stand for?
    Collection, Holding, and Transfer

    • -Inport
    • -Transit
    • -At sea
  499. How many MOPP levels are there?

    • 0= not issued (shipyards)
    • 1=issue
    • 2=carry
    • 3=GQ
    • 4=don
  500. How many blades does the screw have?
  501. What does MOPP stand for?
    Mission-Oriented Protective Posture
  502. What are the characteristics of a Class Alpha fire?
    Anything that leaves an ash
  503. Where do we get steam?
  504. Where are the reactors located?
    #1 and #2 RARs
  505. How many list control pumps are there?
  506. How many unit repair lockers?
  507. What is the pressure of the catapult steam?
    450 PSI
  508. What does BFTT stand for?
    Battle Force Training Team
  509. Where are #2 and #4 steering units?
    AFT/PORT Steering
  510. What are the CHT tank capacities?
    CHT=50,000 gallons

    MSSS=250 gallons
  511. What agent is used for deep fat fryer galley fires?
  512. How many rudders are there?
  513. Can LPACs be cross-connected?
  514. How many AFFF tanks are there?
  515. In HB 1 & 3, what does the red flashing light indicate?
    LOX transfer
  516. How tall is the rudder?
    29 feet
  517. What is aeration in regards to the CHT system?
    Growth of good bacteria in order to kill the bad bacteria
  518. What are the uses for LP air?
    • Dental tools
    • Flight deck cameras
    • A/C plants
    • Pneumatic tools
    • Rigging gear
  519. When can we dump plastic over the side?
  520. How many A/C plants are there?
  521. What is the color of the condenser?
  522. What type of refrigerant is used in the A/Cs?
  523. What does MSSS service?
    Reactor deep sinks and urinals only
  524. Where are Repair 7F,7B,7A?
    7F - 03 level all the way FWD (FWD-128)

    7B - 03 level amid ship (128-180)

    7A - 03 level AFT (180-AFT)
  525. Where are Repair 1F,1B,1A?
    1F - near OC (FWD-128)

    1B - By AWSE (120-180)

    1A - By AFT trash (180-AFT)
  526. What are the divisions in Engineering?
    • A
    • E
    • R
    • DC
    • MSC/QA
  527. Where is Repair 3 at?
    Back aft outside XO's P-way (180-Stern)
  528. What does SCRAM stand for?
    Super Critical RX Axe Man
  529. What type of tools are used in O2N2 and why?
    Brass because they're non-sparking
  530. How many LPACs are there?
  531. Who is the DCA?
    LCDR Culver
  532. How much air is stored in a full SCBA bottle?
    4,500 psi
  533. What is the all-purpose nozzle used for?
    Indirect firefighting
  534. What are some compartment designations?
    • G-Gasoline
    • J-JP-5
    • K-Chemical
    • V-Void
    • T-Vertical Access Trunk
  535. What color does M-9 paper turn and what agent does it detect?
  536. What repair locker acts as secondary DCC?
    Repair 3
  537. What does the acronym IDLH stand for?
    Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health
  538. What area is repair locker 7F responsible for?
    03 level and above, except flight deck with airwing embarked

    -FWD of frame 128
  539. After completion of hot work, how long must the fire watch stay on station?
    30 minutes or cool to the touch, whichever is longer
  540. What is the AFFF concentration to water ratio?
    6% concentrate to 94% water
  541. What type of refrigerant is used in the refers?
  542. What is special about the deck in the O2N2 plants?
    The deck is aluminum
  543. Where is repair locker 4?
    Behind security window (96-128)
  544. Where is repair locker 5?
    Aft mess decks by the drink machines (128-180)
  545. Where is repair locker 2?
    FWD on 2nd deck (near Weps female berthing)

  546. At what maximum PSI are the EWARP, Jubilee, and soft patches rated at?
    • EWARP - 300 PSI
    • Jubilee - 100 PSI
    • Soft     - 150 PSI
  547. What is the location of the O2N2 plants?
    HB1 (Port) and HB3 (STBD)
  548. Which locker has the most unit lockers?
    Repair 3
  549. What does FFE, EEBD, NFTI, and PECU stand for?
    • FFE = Firefighting Ensemble
    • NFTI = Naval Firefighters Thermal Imager
    • EEBD = Emergency Escape Breathing Device
    • PECU = Portable Exothermic Cutting Unit
  550. What are the watch stations in DCC?
    • Load center rover
    • Damage Control Watch Supervisor (DCWS)
    • Chief Auxiliary Operator (CAO)
    • Inport Engineering Watch (IEW)
    • Engineering Officer Of the Watch (EOOW)
    • Load dispatcher
    • Water control
    • Sounding and Security
    • Aux rover
  551. Where are 3,4,5 refers located?
    #2 A/C machinery room
  552. What are the modes of steering?
    • Non-follow up
    • Automatic
    • Emergency
    • Trick Wheel
    • Hand Electric
  553. What is required for CHT clean up?
    • Tyvek coveralls
    • Rubber boots
    • Rubber gloves
    • Face shield
    • Betadyne
  554. What are the characteristics of the reduction gears and what are they used for?
    • Articulated
    • Double helical
    • Locked train
    • Double reduction

    -Used to reduce speed from the turbine to the shaft

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Surface Warfare Board Questions
2014-02-28 21:10:02
Surface Warfare Board Questions

Surface Warfare Board Questions
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