Anatomic Sciences 3

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Titi
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264309
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Anatomic Sciences 3
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2014-03-07 19:40:15
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NBDE
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1987
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I-H December 1987
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  1. Which of the following may cause dead tracts in dentin?
    1. Caries
    2. Erosion
    3. Cavity preparation
    4. Odontoblastic crowding
    5. Any of the above
    5. Any of the above
  2. The component of bone tissue that gives bone tensile strength is the
    1. elastic fibers
    2. Calcified ground subtance
    3. Interconnecting canaliculi
    4. Periosteal connective tissue
    5. Collagenous fibrils of matrix
    5. Collagenous fibrils of matrix
  3. The cerebellar cortex is characterized histologically by which of the following types of cells?
    1. Basket
    2. Purkinje
    3. Pyramidal
    4. Martinotti
    5. Horizontal
    2. Purkinje
  4. If the spinal tract of the fifth cranial nerve were sectioned at the level of the caudal medulla, which of the following modalities would be most affected?
    1. Taste
    2. Proprioception
    3. Pain from the ipsilateral side of the face
    4. Light touch from the contralateral side of the face
    3. Pain from the ipsilateral side of the face
  5. The junction between primary and secondary dentin is characterized by a
    1. Resting line
    2. Reversal line
    3. Sharp reduction in number of dentinal tubules
    4. Sharp change in direction of dentinal tubules
    5. Both (1) and (3) above
    4. Sharp change in direction of dentinal tubules
  6. The postganglionic sympathetic fibers to the vessels of the submandibular salivary gland arise from cells in the 
    1. Otic ganglion
    2. Submandibular ganglion
    3. Ptrygopalatine ganglion 
    4. Superior cervical ganglion
    4. Superior cervical ganglion
  7. Skeletal muscle enlarges with prolonged activity as a Consequence of 
    1. Differentiation of myoblasts
    2. Mitotic division of muscle fibers
    3. An increase in endomysial connective tissue
    4. An increase in sarcoplasm and in the number of myofibrils of existing muscle fibers
    4. An increase in sarcoplasm and in the number of myofibrils of existing muscle fibers
  8. Enamel spindles are formed by 
    1. Cracks
    2. Ameloblasts
    3. Odontoblasts
    4. Hypoplastic rods
    5. Hypocalcified rods
    3. Odontoblasts
  9. The structure first formed by the tooth bud that remains in evidence in the formed tooth is the
    1. Primary cuticle 
    2. Secondary cuticle
    3. Inner enamel epithelium 
    4. Cementoenamel junction
    5. Dentinoenamel junction
    5. Dentinoenamel junction
  10. The thick myofilaments observed in transmission electron microscopic preparations of skeletal muscle are
    1. Composed mainly of actin
    2. Present only in the A band
    3. present in both A and I bands
    4. Traversed or crossed by the Z band
    2. Present only in the A band
  11. From an anatomic standpoint, an emergency airway may be established more readily by opening into the trachea
    1. Between the thyroid cartilages
    2. At the level of the jugular notch
    3. Through the thyrohyoid membrane
    4. Through the median cricothyroid ligament
    4. Through the median cricothyroid ligament
  12. The organelle that binds and releases calcium during relaxation and contraction of skeletal muscle is
    1. Nucleus
    2. Lysosome
    3.Mitochondrion 
    4. Transverse tubule
    5. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
    5. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
  13. Right subclavian and right common carotid arteries arise from the 
    1. Thoracic aorta
    2. Ascending aorta
    3. Arch of the aorta
    4. Pulmonary artery
    5. Brachiocephalic artery
    5. Brachiocephalic artery
  14. The commoon bile duct, the hepatic artery and the portal vein are found grouped in the
    1. Mesocolon
    2. Lesser omentum
    3. Greater omentum
    4. Gastrosplenic ligamentum
    2. Lesser omentum
  15. in the sketch below, the arrow labeled D points the

    1. Dental papilla
    2. Dental sac
    3. Inner enamel epithelium
    4. Outer enamel epithelium
    5. Bone of the crypt surrounding the tooth germ
    1. Dental papilla
  16. The greater peritoneal sac communicates with the lesser peritoneal sac by means of the
    1. Aortic hiatus
    2. Inguinal canal
    3. Epiploic foramen
    4. Lesser pelvic aperture
    5. Superior pelvic aperture
    3. Epiploic foramen
  17. When a tooth first erupt into the oral cavity, the attachment epithelium is derived
    1. Oral mucosa
    2. Reduced enamel epithelium
    3. Epithelial rests of Malassez
    4. The epithelial root sheath (Hertwig)
    2. Reduced enamel epithelium
  18. The number of roots that are formed is determined by the
    1. Thickness of the cervical loop
    2. Number of root sheaths developed by the enamel organ
    3. number of discontinuities developed in the root sheath
    4. Number of medial ingrowths of the cervical loop
    4. Number of medial ingrowths of the cervical loop
  19. In a routine demineralized histologic section of an adult tooth, the area representing enamel is generally optically clear because
    1. Enamel is very poor in organic matrix
    2. Enamel is very brittle and breaks off during sectioning
    3. Ordinary stains do not stain the organic matrix of enamel
    4. The mounting medium has the American refractive index as enamel
    1. Enamel is very poor in organic matrix
  20. The posterior cervical triangle is bounded partly by
    1. Trapezius and subclavius muscles
    2. Splenius capitis and trapezius muscles
    3. Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles
    4. The clavicle and the longus colli muscle
    3. Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles
  21. The primary histologic characteristic of the pancreas is 
    1. Follicles filled with secretion
    2. groups of special cells scattered among glandular alveoli
    3. Small groups of cells scattered between follicles
    4. Cells arranged in layers among which are special cells
    2. groups of special cells scattered among glandular alveoli
  22. The middle constrictor muscle of the pharynx originates from the
    1. Hyoid bone
    2. Thyroid cartilage
    3. Pterygoid hamulus
    4. Pterygomandibular raphe
    1. Hyoid bone
  23. Pharyngotympanic (eustachian) tubes connect the nasopharynx with the
    1. Outer ear
    2. Middle ear
    3. Semicircular canals
    4. Vestibule of the inner ear
    2. Middle ear
  24. Bacteria are frequently ingested by
    1. Mast cells
    2. Fibrocytes
    3. Small lymphocytes
    4. Basophilic leukocytes
    5. Neutrophilic leukocytes
    5. Neutrophilic leukocytes
  25. Considering number and location, the parathyroid glands are usually
    1. Single and dorsal to the thyroid gland
    2. Single and embedded in the dorsum of the thyroid gland
    3. Multiple and embedded in the dorsum of the thyroid gland
    4. Multiple and just superior to the thyroid gland
    5. Not related to the thyroid gland
    3. Multiple and embedded in the dorsum of the thyroid gland
  26. A portion of which of the following muscles has fibers inserting into the Articular disk of the temporomandibular joint?
    1. Upper head of the lateral pterygoid
    2. Lower head of the lateral pterygoid
    3. Deep head of the medial pterygoid
    4. Superficial head of the medial pterygoid
    1. Upper head of the lateral pterygoid
  27. The arterial supply of the submandibular gland is from which branch of the external carotid artery?
    1. Ascending pharyngeal
    2. Superior thyroid
    3. Maxillary
    4. Facial
    4. Facial
  28. Which of the following blood elements is a fragment of megakariyocytic cytoplasm?
    1. Platelet
    2. Normoblast
    3. Erythrocyte
    4. Promyelocyte
    5. Proerythroblast
    1. Platelet
  29. The lateral boundary of the retropahryngeal space at the level of the oropharynx is the
    1. Carotid sheath
    2. Pterygomandibular raphe
    3. Medial pterygoid muscle and it's fascia
    4. Stylopharyngeus muscle and it's fascia
    1. Carotid sheath
  30. The common hepatic artery is a branch of the
    1. Gastric artery
    2. Splenic artery
    3. Celiac artery (trunk)
    4. Superior mesenteric artery
    3. Celiac artery (trunk)
  31. Most of the antibodies in the body that act against bacterial antigens are produced by  
    1. T lymphocytes
    2. B lymphocytes
    3. Macrophages
    4. Plasma cells
    4. Plasma cells
  32. In the fetus, blood enters the common carotid arteries by means of the
    1. Aorta
    2. Pulmonary vein
    3. Pulmonary arteries
    4. Ductus arteriosus
    5. Thebesian veins (vena cord is minimae)
    1. Aorta
  33. The parotid duct pierces the buccinator muscle opposite the 
    1. Mandibular first premolar
    2. Maxillary first premolar
    3. Maxillary first molar
    4. Maxillary second molar
    5. Maxillary third molar
    4. Maxillary second molar
  34. Which of the lymphoid tissues in the body are considered subepithelial and nonencapsulated?
    1. Thymus gland and lymph nodes
    2. Lymph nodes and aggregated nodules
    3. Pharyngeal tonsils and thymus gland
    4. Peyer's patches and pharyngeal tonsils
    4. Peyer's patches and pharyngeal tonsils
  35. Most of the lymph is returned to the blood at which of the following sites?
    1. Right brachiocephalic vein
    2. Left external jugular vein
    3. Junction of left internal jugular and subclavian veins
    4. Junction of right internal jugular and subclavian veins
    3. Junction of left internal jugular and subclavian veins
  36. In the fetal heart, the foramen ovale connects the
    1. Pulmonary artery and the aorta
    2. Right and left atria, permitting the flow of blood from right to left
    3. right and the left atria, permitting the flow of blood from left to right
    4. Right and the left ventricles, permitting the flow of blood from right to left
    5. Right and left ventricles, permitting the flow of blood from left to right
    2. Right and left atria, permitting the flow of blood from right to left
  37. Which of the following muslces receives its motor supply form the facial nerve?
    1. Masseter
    2. Temporal
    3. Buccinator
    4. Lateral pterygoid
    5. Tensor veli palatini
    3. Buccinator
  38. Identify the thalamus in the sketch below.

    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D 
    5. E
    3. C
  39. Second, third and fourth right posterior intercostal veins drain from the right superior intercostal vein into the
    1. Azygos vein
    2. Hemiazygos vein
    3. Accessory hemiazygos vein
    4. left brachiocephalic vein
    5. Left internal jugular vein
    1. Azygos vein
  40. At a muscle-tendon junction, the union is made by
    1. Myofibrils connecting with collagenous fibrils of the tendon
    2. An abundance of reticular fibers in the area of the junction
    3. A continuity of connective tissue sheaths of the muscle with those of the tendon
    4. A special thickening of sarcoplasm that unites with collagenous fibrils of the tendon
    3. A continuity of connective tissue sheaths of the muscle with those of the tendon
  41. Apical abscesses on certain teeth have a marked tendency to produce cervical spread of infection that occurs most rapidly in abscesses of
    1. Mandibular incisors
    2. Mandibular canines
    3. Maxillary premolars
    4. Mandibular second and third molars
    4. Mandibular second and third molars
  42. In the sulcular epithelium, small spaces between cells in the stratum spinosum (prickle cell layer) are normally filled by
    1. Keratin
    2. A small amount of tissue fluid
    3. Capillaries that course between cells to approach the free surface
    4. None of the above
    2. A small amount of tissue fluid
  43. Normally, the free gingiva can be distinguished from the epithelial attachment because the
    1. Underlying connective tissue of the gingiva does not contain lymphoid cells
    2. Epithelium of the epithelial attachment does not have rete pegs
    3. Epithelium of the gingiva is not keratinized
    4. Underlying connective tissue of the epithelial attachment is less vascular
    2. Epithelium of the epithelial attachment does not have rete pegs
  44. The bony floor of the nasal cavity is formed by the
    1. Palatine process of the maxilla and the vertical part of the palatine
    2. Palatine process of the temporal and the horizontal part of the palatine
    3. Vomer and the vertical part of the palatine
    4. Palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal part of the palatine
    4. Palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal part of the palatine
  45. Cells of the stratum granulosum of thick stratified squamous epithelium characteristically contain 
    1. Melanin granules
    2. Keratin granules
    3. Keratohyalin granules
    4. Granules that are organelles
    3. Keratohyalin granules
  46. A major sensory innervation of the temporomandibular joint is derived from the
    1. Great auricular nerve
    2. Auriculotemporal nerve
    3. Inferior alveolar nerve
    4. Temporal branches of the facial nerve
    2. Auriculotemporal nerve
  47. The middle nasal concha is part of which of the following bones?
    1. Nasal
    2. Vomer
    3. Ethmoid
    4. Palatine
    5. Sphenoid
    3. Ethmoid
  48. The external carotid artery contributes to the blood supply of the nasal cavity by way of the
    1. Facial artery, the superior labial artery and angular arteries
    2. Lingual artery, the deep lingual artery and internal nasal arteries
    3. Occipital artery, the ascending palatine artery and posterior nasal arteries
    4. Maxillary artery, the sphenopalatine artery and posterior lateral nasal arteries 
    5. Superficial temporal artery, the transverse facial artery and external nasal arteries
    4. Maxillary artery, the sphenopalatine artery and posterior lateral nasal arteries
  49. The impulse conducting mechanism in the heart is composed of 
    1. Autonomic nerve fibers
    2. Bundle of collagenous fibers
    3. Reticuloendothelial components
    4. Modified cardiac muscle fibers
    4. Modified cardiac muscle fibers
  50. Movement of the head about its vertical axis (rotation to right or left) occurs chiefly at which of the following joints?
    1. Atlanta-axial
    2. Sphenoid-occipital
    3. Atlanta-occipital
    4. Third to seventh cervical vertebrae
    1. Atlanta-axial
  51. Which of the following structures is formed from the first branchial (visceral) arch?
    1. Hyoid bone
    2. Buccinator muscle
    3. Stylopharyngeus muscle
    4. Lateral pterygoid muscle
    5. Superior parathyroid gland
    4. Lateral pterygoid muscle
  52. Lateral clefting of the lip results from the failure of merging of
    1. Maxillary with mandibular processes
    2. Maxillary processes with each other
    3. Maxillary and medial nasal processes
    4. Medial and lateral nasal processes
    5. Palatine processes with the nasal septum
    3. Maxillary and medial nasal processes
  53. Which of the following cells is most likely to have an abundant amount of rough-surfaced endoplasmic reticulum?
    1. Osteocyte
    2. Macrophage
    3. Osteoblast
    4. Mesothelium cell
    5. Small lymphocyte
    3. Osteoblast
  54. The ground substance of hyaline cartilage is basophilic because it contains
    1. Phosphatases
    2. Polypeptides
    3. Orthophosphoric esters
    4. Sulfated proteoglycans
    4. Sulfated proteoglycans
  55. Tropocollagen is a protein molecule found in
    1. Collagen and elastic fibers only
    2. Elastic and reticular fibers only
    3. Collagen and reticular fibers only
    4. Collagen, elastic and reticular fibers
    3. Collagen and reticular fibers only
  56. Hyaline cartilage differs from bone in that hyaline cartilage
    1. Cells lie in lacunae
    2. May grow interstitially
    3. May grow appositionally
    4. Can become more highly calcified
    2. May grow interstitially
  57. The most prominent functional component in the tunica media of small arteries is
    1. Elastic fibers
    2. Smooth muscle
    3. Striated muscle
    4. Reticular fibers
    5. Collagenous fibers
    2. Smooth muscle
  58. The nucleolus produces
    1. DNA
    2. Transfer RNA
    3. Ribosomal RNA
    4. Messenger RNA
    5. Both (1) and (2) above
    3. Ribosomal RNA
  59. An organ with a retroperitoneal location that can be approached surgically without violating the continuity of the peritoneum is the
    1. Ovary
    2. Kidney
    3. Spleen
    4. Gallbladder
    2. Kidney
  60. In the drawing below of a medial view of the right side of the mandible, which of the following letters indicates the position of the bulk of the sublingual gland?



    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
    1. A
  61. Which of the following are mobilized when a cell produces an excessive amount of protein?
    1. Lysosomes
    2. Mitochondria
    3. Lipofuscin granules
    4. Rough endoplasmic reticula
    5. All of the above
    1. Lysosomes
  62. During endochondral ossification of a long bone of an extremity, the function of hyaline cartilage is to
    1. Increase strength of the developing bone
    2. Provide a region where bone can grow in length
    3. Provide undifferentiated cells that will become osteoblasts
    4. Form cores of trabeculae that compose most compact bone of the diaphysis.
    2. Provide a region where bone can grow in length
  63. Most intrinsic muscles of the larynx receive their motor innervation from
    1. The laryngeal plexus
    2. The inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve
    3. The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
    4. The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
    5. Both external and internal branches of the superior laryngeal nerve
    2. The inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve
  64. It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum because of the presence of 
    1. Mucosal glands in the stomach only
    2. Muscularis mucosa in the stomach only
    3. Simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only
    4. Submucosal glands in the duodenum only
    5. Smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only
    4. Submucosal glands in the duodenum only
  65. Circular fibers are present in the 
    1. Free gingiva and encircle the tooth
    2. Free gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
    3. Attached gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
    4. Periodontal ligament and encircle the tooth
    1. Free gingiva and encircle the tooth
  66. Which of the following groups of periodontal ligaments fibers has a cementum to cementum attachment?
    1. Oblique
    2. Transseptal
    3. Free gingival
    4. Interradicular
    5. Dentoveolar crest
    2. Transseptal
  67. Which of the following is necessary for cementum to be deposited during tooth development?
    1. The tooth must be erupting
    2. A bony socket must develop
    3. An apical vascular plexus must be present
    4. The continuity if the root sheath (Hertwig) must be broken
    4. The continuity if the root sheath (Hertwig) must be broken
  68. A disturbance in cartilage formation in a fetus results in deformities of the
    1. Sphenoid and zygomatic bones
    2. Axial skeleton and the base of the skull
    3. Axial skeleton and the flat bones of the skull
    4. Petrous portion of the temporal bones and the parietal bones
    2. Axial skeleton and the base of the skull
  69. During intraoral injection to the mandibular foramen, the needle passes through the mucous membrane and the buccinator muscle and lies
    1. Lateral to the neck of the mandible
    2. Medial to the pterygomandibular raphe
    3. Lateral to the pterygomandibular raphe
    4. Lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle
    5. Medial to the superior constrictor muscle of the pharynx
    4. Lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle
  70. Cell bodies of taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following ganglia?
    1. Otic
    2. Geniculate
    3. Submandibular
    4. Pterygopalatine 
    5. Trigeminal (semilunar)
    2. Geniculate
  71. The alveolar bone proper (cribiform plate) usually consists of 
    1. Woven bone
    2. Bundle bone only
    3. Lamellar bone only
    4. Bundle bone and lamellar bone
    4. Bundle bone and lamellar bone
  72. The optic tracts consist of axons from which of the following cells?
    1. Rod 
    2. Bipolar 
    3. Ganglion
    4. Horizontal 
    5. All of the above
    3. Ganglion
  73. The large mass of gray matter that bulges into the floor and the lateral aspect of the lateral ventricle is the
    1. Hypothalamus
    2. Caudate nucleus 
    3. Substances nigra
    4. Amygdaloid complex
    2. Caudate nucleus
  74. The large ascending bundle of fibers in the medulla that is composed of second order neuron fibers conveying propioception and discrimination touch sensations to conscious  level is the 
    1. Medial leminiscus
    2. Reticular formation
    3. Spinal trigeminal tract
    4. Inferior cerebellar peduncle
    1. Medial leminiscus
  75. Which of the following forms of connective tissues has a preponderance of amorphous ground substance over fibers?
    1. Loose
    2. Cartilage
    3. Reticular
    4. Dense, regularly arranged
    5. Dense, irregularly arranged
    2. Cartilage
  76. In salivary glands, folds of the basal portion of the cell membrane containing mitochondria are characteristic of the
    1. Cells composing demilunes
    2. Cells of the striated ducts
    3. Cells of the intercalated ducts
    4. Serous cells of the parotid gland
    2. Cells of the striated ducts
  77. The lamina papyracea is located in the orbital 
    1. Roof
    2. Floor
    3. Lateral wall
    4. Medial wall
    4. Medial wall
  78. Which of the following increase with age in dental pulp?
    a) vascularity
    b) size of the pulp chamber
    c) number of collagen fibers
    d) calcification within the pulp
    • c) number of collagen fibers
    • d) calcification within the pulp
  79. The epithelial root sheath (Herwig) is characterized by
    a) the formation of cell rests in the periodontal ligament when the sheath's functions have been accomplished 
    b) progressive involution, thereby aiding in actual tooth movement during eruption
    C) the absence of a Stellate reticulum and a stratum intermedium 
    d) the absence of Mitotic ability and, thus, stretching as the root grows
    • a) the formation of cell rests in the periodontal ligament when the sheath's functions have been accomplished 
    • C) the absence of a Stellate reticulum and a stratum intermedium
  80. Obstruction of the cerebral aqueduct causes enlargement of the
    a)  third ventricle
    b) fourth ventricle
    c) lateral ventricle
    • a)  third ventricle
    • c) lateral ventricle
  81. What is the usual sequence of events in the histogenesis of a tooth?
    a) deposition of the first layer of enamel
    b) deposition of huge first layer of dentin
    c) elongation of inner enamel epithelial cells
    d) differentiation of odontoblasts
    • c) elongation of inner enamel epithelial cells
    • d) differentiation of odontoblasts
    • c) elongation of inner enamel epithelial cells
    • a) deposition of the first layer of enamel
  82. Which of the following muscles or muscle fibers are elevators of the mandible?
    a) medial pterygoid muscle
    b) lateral pterygoid muscle
    c) anterior fibers of the temporal muscle
    d) posterior fibers of the temporal muscle
    • a) medial pterygoid muscle
    • c) anterior fibers of the temporal muscle
    • d) posterior fibers of the temporal muscle
  83. Which of the following abdominal viscera is retroperitoneal?
    a) aorta
    b) liver
    c) kidney
    d) spleen
    e) pancreas
    f) suprarenal
    • a) aorta
    • c) kidney
    • e) pancreas
    • f) suprarenal
  84. Which of the following cell types may be found in the periodontal ligament?
    a) fibroclasts
    b) osteoblasts
    c) macrophages
    d) cementoblasts
    e) all of the above
    e) all of the above
  85. Each of the following cell types secretes the substance with which it is paired EXCEPT
    1. Sertoli's cells - testosterone
    2. Corpus lutetium-progesterone
    3. Alpha cells of the pancreas-glucagon
    4. Chromatin cells of the supra renal-catecholamine
    1. Sertoli's cells - testosterone
  86. All of the following structures can be seen in a histologic examination of the adult parotid gland  EXCEPT 
    1. Striated ducts
    2. Serous demilunes
    3. Intercalated ducts
    4. Myoepithelial cells
    5. Granular serous cells
    2. Serous demilunes
  87. Which of the following arteries does NOT accompany the corresponding nerve throughout its course?
    1. Lingual
    2. Infraorbital
    3. Inferior alveolar
    4. Posterior superior alveolar
    1. Lingual
  88. Which of the following structural changes is NOT encountered in passing along the respiratory system from the trachea to a respiratory bronchiole?
    1. decrease in goblet cells
    2. decrease in ciliates cells
    3. Total loss of cartilage from the wall
    4. Progressive change from stratified squamous to cupboidal, epithelial lining
    4. Progressive change from stratified squamous to cupboidal, epithelial lining
  89. Which of the following layers of the epidermis is least cytodifferentiated?
    1. Stratum basale
    2. Stratum corneum
    3. Stratum spinosum
    4. Prickle cell layer
    5. Stratum granulosum
    1. Stratum basale
  90. Which of the following tissues would be least affected if the anterior lobe of the hypophysis were destroyed?
    1. Thyroid epitehelium
    2. Medulla of the adrenal gland
    3. Interstitial cells of the testis
    4. Zona fasciculata of the adrenal gland
    5. Spermatogenic epithelium of the testis
    2. Medulla of the adrenal gland

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