Test 2 Mosby Board review

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jaxkaty5437
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Test 2 Mosby Board review
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2014-03-02 18:42:29
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radiation therapy
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mosby review
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  1. The lateral ventricles are located within the:
    Cerebral hemispere
  2. The area of the cerebrum responsible for sensory and association is the:
    Parietal area
  3. The sense of smell is conveyed by the:
    Olfactory nerve
  4. A glioma spreads by means of:
    Local Invasion
  5. ____________ brain tumors are known to spread via the CSF.
    Medulloblastoma
  6. __________ brain tumors are seen more frequently in adults.
    Glioma
  7. Single dose radiosurgery would be appropriate for a ____________ brain tumor.
    Solitary 2 cm primary brain tumor
  8. Headache, increased intra-cranial pressure (ICP) & Seizures are symptoms of:
    Intracranial tumors
  9. The primary management modality for primary brain tumors is:
    Surgery
  10. Uncontrolled diabetes, visual disturbances & sinus pressure are all symptoms of __________.
    pitutary adenomas
  11. Incontinence/impotence and radiating pain down the legs may indicate a primary spinal cord tumor located in the __________ region.
    Lumbosacral
  12. Facial pain could be associated with a primanry CNS tumor near cranial nerve ______.
    Cranial nerve VII (facial)
  13. The TD 5/5 for the lense of the eye is:
    5-10 Gy
  14. The TD 5/5 for the optic nerve or optic chiasm is:
    50 Gy
  15. Involvement of cranial nerve ______ may manifest as dysphagia.
    Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal)
  16. During primary brain tumor irradiation, normal brain tissue should be kept below:
    60 Gy
  17. The Clark method for classifying melanoma is based on:
    Depth of invasion
  18. Melanocytes are found in the ______ layer of the skin.
    Basal
  19. The cells most sensitive to radiation are located in the ________ layer of the epidermis.
    Stratum Basale
  20. Lentigo maligna is a histologic type of melanoma characterized by growth in a _______ pattern with ______ or black color.
    Radial pattern with tan or black color
  21. Causing fetal damage:
    Teratogenic
  22. Removal of WBC's for re-infusion:
    Leukopheresis
  23. Coal based chemical:
    Benzene
  24. _____ rods are associated with leukemia
    Auer rods
  25. Alfred velpeau documented the first case of _________.
    Leukemia
  26. List the different white blood cells:
    (6)
    • Basophils
    • Neutrophils
    • Eosinophils
    • Monocytes
    • Lymphocytes
    • Platelets
  27. The most important diagnostic factor for detecting CML is:
    Philadelphia chromosome
  28. Bone marrow depression nadir can occur within _____ days in patients that have received methotrexate .
    10-14 days
  29. A clinical spleen set-up requires a ____cm margin around the organ.
    1 cm
  30. Patients with ____ leukemia always exhibit lymphocytosis.
    CLL
  31. ______ leukemia has the worst prognosis.
    CML
  32. _____ leukemia appears to have a hereditary component.
    CLL
  33. A _________ biopsy is needed for the diagnosis of ALL.
    Bone marrow aspiration biopsy
  34. The layers of the ________ include the dura mater, pia mater & the arachnoid mater.
    Meninges
  35. The spleen is located in the ______ quadrant.
    LUQ
  36. In the _____ & _____ phases of the cell cycle the undifferentiated cells have a decreased proportion of blast cells compared to normal bone marrow blast cells in regards to the pathology of AML.
    S & M phases
  37. B cells mature in the _________.
    Bone Marrow
  38. Lymph nodes are usually ___ to ___ mm in length.
    1 to 25 mm
  39. Which type of lymphoma spreads randomly, originates in lymph nodes or extra nodal tissue and commonly arises in the GI tract?
    Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
  40. The thoracic duct is the main collecting duct of the lymphatic system and begins in the _______.
    cisterna chyli
  41. 75% of all Hodgkin disease will have
    nodular sclerosis
  42. The most common presenting symptom for Hodgkin disease
    Painless cervical node enlargement
  43. A large binucleate or polynucleate cell present for a dx of Hodgkin is referred to as
    Reed Sternberg Cell
  44. Classification for staging of lymphoma is traditionally
    Ann Arbor
  45. Name the corresponding Organ for each letter when using the lymphoma staging system.
    SHLMPOD
  46. Marrow
    • Lung
    • Liver
    • Spleen
    • Osseous
    • Skin
    • Pluera
    • M-Marrow
    • L-Lung
    • H-Liver
    • S-Spleen
    • O-Osseous
    • D-Skin
    • P-Pleura
  47. A 21 yr old male pt has an enlarged cervical lymph node. Diagnostic work up reveals a mediastinal and axillary nodes as well. What stage is this pt?
    II
  48. Staging for Hodgkins also includes AB grouping. Which symptom is not one of the classical B symptoms?
    A. Profuse night sweats
    B. weight loss greater than 10% of body weight
    C. unexplained fever above 38 degrees 
    D unexplained pruritus
  49. Unexplained pruritus
  50. In Hodgkin disease, involvement of several nodal regions of both sides of the diaphragm accompanied by localized involvement of an extra lymphatic site is stage
    III E
  51. In the tx of fields of Waldeyer ring for non Hodgkin lymphoma the fields delineation closely resembles that of carcinoma of the
    nasopharynx
  52. Which lymphnode groups are treated in a mantle field
    mediastinal and axillary
  53. Which of the following are common side effects of RT of the abdomen?
    Nausea
    vomiting
    fatigue
  54. All of the above
  55. T or F
    Non Hodkin Lymphoma differs in a couple of ways from Hodgkins disease, one is that it occurs primarily in older persons
  56. True
  57. T or F
    NHL is most likely to spread randomly, rather than orderly like HD does
  58. True
  59. A young woman has swelling in her lower neck for suspected HD. A chest xray also revealed mediastinal adenopathy. She had not experienced any fever, night sweats, or weight loss. Staging would be
    IIA
  60. The most favorable of the 4 subtypes of HD is
    Nodular Sclerosis
  61. NHL may arise in
    (3)
    • Lymph nodes
    • gastrointestinal tract
    • Waldyer ring
  62. In NHL, lymphocytes pathologically arrange themselves in patterns called
    Follicular and nodular
  63. The optimal dose to the mantle field is
    35-44 Gy
  64. which nodes are included in the inverted Y field
    (3)
    • retroperitoneal
    • common iliac
    • inguinal
  65. Radiation carditis is a chronic side effect after irradiation to the mantle field; this is inflammation of the
    heart
  66. What is an acute side effect after radiation for Hodgkin's?
    dysphagia
  67. When txg the tumor bed for Wilm's tumor, care should be taken to include the entire width of the spine to prevent
    scoliosis
  68. Which of the following is not an assoc risk factor for pediatric solid tumors?
    a. parasites
    b. environment
    c. ionizing radiation
    d. prenatal factors
    parasites
  69. The most common symptom of Wilm's tumor is
    abdominal mass
  70. Nephroblastomas met most commonly to the
    lung
  71. Neuroblastomas originate in the
    neural crest tissue
  72. What primary brain tumor typically spreads to the CSF
    medulloblastoma
  73. The most common symptom of Ewing sarcoma is
    Pain
  74. The most frequent orbital malignancy in children is
    retinoblastoma
  75. Wilm's tuor originate from what cell type?
    nephroblasts

    (Wilm's tumor aka nephroblastoma)
  76. Which type of childhood cancer is mostly assoc with prophylactic irradiation of the CNS
    • Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia
    • dose approx 18 Gy
  77. Match these bone marrow transplants:
    Allogeneic donor 
    Autologous donor
    Syngeneic donor
    self
    compatible match
    identical twin
    • Allogenic= compatible match
    • autologous= self
    • syngeneic= identical twin
  78. The most important latent side effects from radiation therapy to the pediatric patient include
    • impaired bone growth
    • secondary cancers
  79. An aggressive mgmt for retinoblastoma is an enucleation. An enucleation is
    surgical removal of the orbit
  80. Soft tissue sarcomas usually spread
    locally, along the longitudinal muscle place
  81. Sarcomas originate in the _____ tissue layer
    mesoderm
  82. Primary osseous tumors met to the lung via
    blood
  83. ___________ surgery would include intralesional incision, wide margin excision with bone grafting, and marginal margin excision with internal fixation.
    Limb salvaging
  84. What feature would be present on an xray image of a lytic primary bone tumor
    decreased density in the region of the tumor

    (lytic = less dense)
  85. What is the likely explanation for weight loss and fever in the pt suspected to have primary bone cancer
    presence of the tumor causes hypercalcemia
  86. Rad to the abdomen for soft tissue sarcomas in the peritoneum is limited by low tolerance organs such as the kidneys. The TD 5/5 for the whole kidney is
    23GY
  87. A natural barrier for regional spread of primary bone tumors is the
    periosteum
  88. Compact bone is arranged in concentric circle patterns known as
    haversian systems
  89. The area of spongy bone is found in the
    epiphysis
  90. A solitary multiple myeloma tumor is known as a
    plasmacytoma
  91. Which bone cancer has an onion skin appearance on an xray
    Ewing sarcoma
  92. A common symptom for soft tissue tumors is
    painless mass
  93. The most common childhood bone cancer is
    Ewing Sarcoma
  94. The most common primary bone cancer overall is
    Osteosarcoma
  95. The variable that are used for staging soft tissue sarcomas are
    a. histologic grade
    b. tumor size
    c. regional lymph node involvement
    d. presence of distant mets
    Histologic grade & Presence of distant mets
  96. Are soft tissue sarcomas common or rare
    rare
  97. What is the most common primary orbital malignancy of childhood
    rhabdomyosarcoma
  98. Do regional lymph nodes have to be included in tx ports for primary bone tumors
    no
  99. What area of the brain would you expect to find involved if a patient had vision problems
    parietal
  100. What is the average survival for patients with brain mets
    3 mos
  101. Distinguish between osteolytic and osteoblastic lesions as they may appear on a conventional xray
    • Lytic-moth eaten
    • Blastic- dense abnormal growth
  102. Compare/contrast palliative doses of radiation for brain mets to curative doses for primary brain malignancy
    • palliative- 300 cGy per fraction total of 30-40GY
    • Primary- 180-200 cGy per fraction total of 60GY
  103. What is superior vena cava syndrome
    compression of the SVC by tumors in the apex of the lung or mediastinum
  104. What is laminectomy
    Removal of a portion of the lamina to decrease or prevent compression of spinal cord
  105. Compression of the cauda equina will likely manifest as
    incontinence
  106. Which radionuclide may be used in treating met bone disease
    strontium 89
  107. In spinal cord compression and SVC syndrome, high doses of radiation are given in the 1st few txs. What is a typical dose
    300-400 cGy per fraction
  108. Is the humerus a likely site of bony mets?
    No
  109. Met brain disease differs from primary brain malignancy in that
    met is usually multi focal and primaries are solitary at the time of dx and spread locally
  110. When txg a pt who has spinal cord compression in the cervical spine, the best position among the following would be
    prone with the chin and forehead in a horizontal plane and arms at the side
  111. A typical field size for the tx of thoracic vertebrae 5-10 would be
    8x15 cm
  112. single posterior flds are not usually adequate for lower lumbar or sacral bone met because
    This region of the spine has lordotic curvature
  113. A T-shaped radiation tx field would likely be seen in the tx of
    spinal cord compression in the lower lumbar or sacral region
  114. A common symptom of liver mets is
    jandice
  115. Regional lymphatics are not usually included in rad flds for palliation because
    disease spread is assumed to have already taken place
  116. Daily tx charges for a single fld spine with no field shaping or beam modifiers would be
    simple
  117. What are the differences between electrons and protons
    • Electrons are light, negatively charged particles that collide and interact with other particles.
    • Protons are heavy, positive charge particles that only interact with electrons.
  118. During xray production, the resulting xray beam comes from electrons colliding with the target causing interactions such as
    • characteristic radiation
    • Bremsstrahlung radiation &
    • Auger electrons
  119. The positive side of the basic x-ray tube is know as the _______
    Anode
  120. The ratio of xray to heat during xray production is variable depending on the __________ of electrons transversing the tube.
    Maximum energy
  121. An _________ collision is one in which the incoming electron gives all of its energy to the electrons it encounters.
    Elastic
  122. Name the photon interactions
    • photon disentintegration
    • coherent scattering
    • photelectric effect
    • compton effect
    • pair production
  123. Name the electron interactions
    • bremsstrahlung
    • characteristics
  124. Regarding isotopes, isotopes are an element that have the same # of ____ but a different # of neutrons
    protons
  125. Match these
    ___isotopes___isobars___isotones___isomerA. IR192m IR192m
    B. 27Fe59, 27Fe58
    C. 28NI60, 31Ga60
    D. 11Na22, 10Ne21
    • A. isomer
    • B. isotope
    • C. isobar
    • D. isotone
  126. If using a tungsten target, the fx of 4 MeV electrons converted to photons is
    • .1036 or 10.36%
    • F=3.5X10^-4(74)(4MeV)
    • F=.1036
  127. The probability of photoelectric interaction_______ with increasing energy and ________ with the atomic # of the medium.
    • decreases
    • increases
  128. A neutral atom that loses an electron by ionization is called a
    positive ion
  129. A certain atom has binding energies of 70eV in the L shell and 10eV in the M shell. During an M shell to L shell transition, the photon emitted will have the energy of ____
    60ev
  130. An atom is neutral if the # of its electron is = to its
    protons
  131. The photons produced during the orbital transitions of electrons from a higher to lower energy are called
    characteristic radiation
  132. 2 or more chemicals with the same chemical formula, but having difference nuclear states are known as
    isomers
  133. How many disintegration per min are there in 1 Ci?
    3.7 X 1010 dpm
  134. On Jan 1, we receive 80 mCi of an isotpe with a 1/2 life of 8 days. The activity remaining on Jan 25 would be
    • 10 mCi
    • A=80(.5)^(24/8)=
    • A=80 (.5)^3)
    • A=80 (.125)
    • A=10
  135. The wavelength of xrays are measured in
    angstroms
  136. The photoelectric process is essentially an interaction between a photon and a ______ electron
    bound
  137. A deutron is the nucleus of an isotope of H2. Which of the following is true?
    A. it has a mass # of 2
    B.it has an atomic # of 2
    C. it has a positive charge of 2
    D. is has an energy of 2 MeV
    A
  138. The probability that a photon interacts with a material is _____ to the attenuation coefficient
    proportional
  139. Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which is produced during natural radioactive decay
    Alpha
  140. Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which can carry a + or - charge
    Beta
  141. Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which has helium nucleus
    Alpha
  142. Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which has hydrogen nucleus
    Proton
  143. Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which has greatest internal hazard
    Alpha
  144. Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which cannot ionize directly and interacts with only the nucleus
    neutron
  145. Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which may be referred to as an electron or positron
    beta
  146. Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering time of exposure
    Quantity
  147. Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering tube current
    Quantity
  148. Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering target material
    Quality
  149. Out of Quantity, quality, or both, which is affected by altering distance
    Both Q/B
  150. Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering filtration
    Both H/B
  151. Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering kVp
    Quality
  152. Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering generator type
    Both
  153. I131 and I125 have different #s of
    neutrons
  154. Neutron decay ______ (is/is not) a type of nuclear decay.
    is not
  155. The radioactive decay of a radioisotope is characterized by its:
    Decay constant
  156. The energy of an electromagnetic radiation is _________ proportional to its wavelength.
    Inversely

    energy <inversely> wavelength
  157. The energy of an electromagnetic radiation is _________ proportional to its frequency.
    Directly

    energy<directly>frequency
  158. Cobalt 60 decays by ______.
    Beta minus
  159. To interact by photoelectric effect, the interacting photon must have energy equal or greater than the :
    Binding energy of the orbiting electron
  160. Carbon 14 and Nitrogen 14 are:
    • Isobars
    • (same mass)
  161. When a long-lived radionuclide decays to a short-lived daughter, it is known as ________ equilibrium.
    Secular
  162. ________ implies the removal of an electron from the atom.
    Ionization
  163. When a radionuclide decays, radiation is emitted from the ________.
    nucleus
  164. TRUE/False
    IMRT does not require port film verification
    F
  165. Form of breast immobilization that has best reproducibility:
    NOTHING
  166. When looking up PDD or TMR use(effective square/equivalent square) when there are blocks or MLCs:
    effective square
  167. Pros and cons of SSD setup:
    • PROS:
    • 1)more clearance between pt and gantry
    • 2)larger field size possible
    • 3)less collimator scatter
    • CONS:
    • pt must be moved between fields
  168. When an extended distance is required for a nonisocentric treatment, what changes and additions are needed in the calculations;(name 3)
    • 1)Include maynoerd factor in denominator
    • 2)change inverse square to reflect new SSD
    • 3)find new PDD for field size at a new distance
  169. What is not an advantage of using a multifield approach?
    increases the integral dose
  170. Field size determinations should be done (dosimetrically/geomtrically)?
    dosimetrically
  171. T/F
    Standard wedges can have a beam hardening effect when the radiation is MONOENERGETIC.
    F
  172. Dmax for 18 MV:
    3.5 cm
  173. A pt is delivered a dose of 150 cGy at a depth of 13 cm with 10 MV photos at 100 SSD. The PDD is 60%. Calculate dose delivered to the depth of maximum dose.
    150/.60=250cGy
  174. Electron arc therapy has what effect on Dmax position, as compared to a stationary electron field of the same energy?
    Moves Dmax away from the surface
  175. A prostate seed implant is considered:
    interstitial
  176. Au 198seeds imbedded into the tongue are considered:
    interstitial
  177. Formula for calculating an exposure at a specific distance for a particular isotope:
    activity(decay constant)/distance2
  178. When planning a gyn implant it is calculated to point____.
    A
  179. When an element has an excessive number of neutrons it it likely to undergo _____decay.
    negatron
  180. LDR isotopes deliver a dose rate of between ___ and ____cGy/min
    0.5-2.0 cGy/min
  181. Your pt has been in hospital for blood transfusions and has missed 3 wks of treatments. Upon the pts return what should therapist do?
    remeasure, relocalize, remark, and ask for BED adjustments in fx or total dose
  182. Spinal cord compression of T5-6 is likely to be treated with:
    a single posterior low energy photon field
  183. A primary brain tumor located in the rt temporal lobe will likely be treated with:
    a wedged pair consisting of a rt lateral and vertex fields
  184. Figure gap:
    100 SSD
    depth 5 cm
    field 1: 8x 20
    field 2: 8x 25
    10(.05)+ 12.5(.05)= 1.1 cm
  185. Isocenter x =-1.0 cm
    Shift should be ____to the patient's ____.
    1 cm to pts right
  186. Compare and contrast benign and malignant tumors:
    • Benign: do not metastasize, not usually lethal unless can cause local damage, encapsulated
    • Malignant:metastasizes, lethal if left untreated, NOT encapsulated
  187. List and describe 5 different methods of tissue sampling/biopsy.
    • 1)Fine needle aspiration
    • 2)core needle
    • 3)dermal punch
    • 4)fluid cytology(body secretions)
    • 5) surgical biopsy
  188. Define prophylactic cancer treatment:
    • Prevention
    • i.e. radiation to tumor bed, PCI, chemo used before mets
  189. Compare and contrast hyperplasia, metaplasia, and anaplasia:
    • hyperplasia=↑ # of cells (benign or malignnt
    • metaplasia= replacement of cells by cells not normally present (malignant)
    • anaplasia=loss of differentiation (malignant and benign)
  190. Mortality rates are based on persons per ______population.
    100,000
  191. Any substance or gent that produces or incites cancer is called:
    carcinogen
  192. The seven warning signs include all the follwing except:
    1)thickening or lump
    2)nagging cough
    3)pain
    4)change in bowel habits
    pain
  193. The TNM staging system evaluates:(pick any or all)
    a)the size and extent of tumor
    b)whether the tumor has metastasized
    c)the grade of the tumor
    • a)the size and extent of tumor
    • b)whether the tumor has metastasized

    TNM does NOT evaluate GRADE!!
  194. Malignant neoplasms that originate in the lymphoreticular tissues are called:
    lymphomas

    (don't be tricked into saying something like; lymphoreticuloma or lymphosarcoma :)  )
  195. When more than one cancer modality is used simultaneously, it is known as:
    concurrent therapy
  196. The cancer warning signal most likely indicating colon/rectal cancer is:
    a change in bowel habits
  197. Which cytotoxic drug may produce heart failure?
    Adriamycin
  198. A tumor classified as T3, N2, MO is likely a stage:
    III
  199. The tissue of a malignant carcinoma is:
    epithelial
  200. The method used to establish definitive malignancy is:
    histopathologic screening
  201. A malignant tissue of striated muscle is called a/n:
    rhabdomyosarcoma
  202. A surgical procedure in which an incision is made through the abdominal wall to examine lymph nodes to establish the extent of disease is called a/n:
    laparoscopy (book answer)

    • mock test answer is:
    • exploratory laparotomy
  203. The highest incidence of malignancy for adult males in the US occurs in the _____. For females it is the _______.
    • prostate
    • breast

    (overall male and female it's LUNG)
  204. The most common side effect associated with cytotoxic drugs is:
    myelosupression
  205. Most cancers are: (sporadic/familial).
    sporadic
  206. The removal of cells by scraping is called:
    curettage
  207. The____of a tumor is an evaluation of the degree of cellular differentiation.
    grade
  208. According to B & T, factors that may influence the sensitivity of a group of cells to ionizing radiation is:(pick any or all)
    1)mitotic activity
    2)time of cell division
    3)cellular differentiation
    4)Length of mitotic activity
    • 1)mitotic activity
    • 2)time of cell division (NO!!)
    • 3)cellular differentiation
    • 4)Length of mitotic activity

    • Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau" states "the radiosensitivity of a tissue is directly proportional to the reproductive activity and
    • inversely proportional to the degree of differentiation"
  209. What difference would you expect to see between larngeal tumors classified as T2 and T4?
    The T4 would be larger
  210. TRUE/FALSE:
    One of the characteristics of benign tumors are that they are never fatal.
    FALSE
  211. TRUE/FALSE:
    The term for transmission of disease from one original site to one or more sites elsewhere in the body is metastasis.
    TRUE
  212. TRUE/FALSE:
    Oncogenes are also known as tumor- suppressor genes.
    FALSE
  213. TRUE/FALSE:
    In general, children have the highest rates of cancer.
    FALSE
  214. TRUE/FALSE:
    Surgery is never used prophylactically.
    FALSE
  215. Which of the following is not a possible side effect of cytotoxic drugs:
    1)nausea
    2)Cardiac toxicity
    3)Myelosuppression
    4)Alopecia
    5)None of the above
    • None of the above
    • (all are possible side effects of chemo)
  216. The oldest cancer management modality is:
    surgery
  217. One of the unique characteristics of substitute ureas is:
    They can cross the blood-brain barrier
  218. The incidence of cancer in a given area may be affected by:
    1)Race
    2)envioronmental exposures
    3)cultural practices
    4)All of the above
    All of the above
  219. A tumor marker for detection of germ cell tumors is:
    beta HCG
  220. The ACS reccomends ______for men beginning at age 45.
    colonoscopy (baseline)
  221. Who is at greater risk for lung cancer: A person who has smoked 1 pack/day for the past year or someone who has smoked 1 pack/day for the past 25 years?
    The longer exposure has more risk
  222. Define:
    prostatectomy
    surgical removal of prostate
  223. Define:
    radical mastectomy
    surgical removal of breast and pecs
  224. Define:
    Modified radical mastectomy
    removal of breast with fewer muscles than with radical
  225. Define:
    Exentertion
    total removal of multiple organs
  226. Prophylactic therapy is intended to:
    sterilize areas of microscopic disease
  227. Curative therapy is intended to:
    totally eradicate disease
  228. If cytotoxic drugs poison both normal and cancer cells, how is it that we continue using this modality and expect to treat cancer and return patient to a healthy state?
    normal cells have the capacity for repair, cancer cells don't
  229. Because both chemo and RT rely on adequate vascular supply, what is it's significance concerning the effectiveness of both modalities?
    • Blood vessels re necessary to deliver chemo to tumor, and oxygen(delivered via blood through vasculature) sensitizes cancer cells to radiation.
    • When tumors outgrow their blood supply, they become necrotic and much more difficult to treat.
  230. When cure rates using systemic chemo and RT are similar for early stage cervix, glottic larynx, and BCC of he skin, why would RT be preferable?
    For quality of life issues (it is less invasive-for instance with larynx: keeping the voice)
  231. We generally report survival rates in 5 yr increments. Breast cancer survival rates are reported at a different time interval. What is it and why?
    Survival is usually reported at 10 and 20 yrs because so much progress has been made in treating breast cancer but it still can come back after many years(not considered "cured" at 5 yrs out)
  232. Most cytotoxic drugs cannot cross blood/brain barrier. Explain how certain drugs or combinations of drugs, unable to cross the barrier, are effectively used in the management of certain CNS malignancies today.
    By LOCAL administration: direct injection into the tissue so that it does not need to cross the blood/brain barrier
  233. Which of the following modalities, used alone, would best treat a patient with metastatic disease?
    1)Surgery
    2)Radiation
    3)Chemo
    4)hormone therapy
    Chemo
  234. Hippocrates is credited with:
    Identifying the disease we know as cancer
  235. The youngest modality used in the treatment of cancer is:
    chemotherapy
  236. The following is true regarding excisional biopsy:(pick any or all)
    1)Involves a removal of a portion of the tumore
    2)Generally appropriate for cure of a relatively small tumor
    3)provides a definitive diagnosis
    • 1)Involves a removal of a portion of the tumor
    • 2)Generally appropriate for cure of a relatively small tumor
    • 3)provides a definitive diagnosis
  237. Possible routes for administration of chemo are:(pick any or all)
    1)intravenous
    2)topical
    3)enteral
    • intravenous
    • topical
    • enteral
  238. Actinomycin D is an:
    antitumor antibiotic
  239. Generally, a lesion classified T1 NO MO is a stage __:
    I
  240. Which of the following is not recognized as a carcinogen:
    1)ionizing radiation
    2)asbestos
    3)ultraviolet light
    4)crude oil
    crude oil
  241. A patient receiving RT to the brain is expected to experience:
    1)epilation
    2)diarrhea
    3)dysuria
    4)dysphagia
    epilation
  242. A likely symptom of testicular cancer is:
    a painless lump
  243. The most widely used staging system is known as the ____system.
    TNM
  244. unscramble:
    gocnencne
    oncogene
  245. unscramble:
    SCARIESNECONGI
    carcinogenesis
  246. unscramble:
    YBISPO
    biopys
  247. unscramble:
    OTMRU
    tumor
  248. unscramble:
    TNDINOFERFETAII
    differentiation
  249. unscramble:
    SSSATEMITA
    metastasis

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