Test 2 Mosby Board review

The lateral ventricles are located within the:

The area of the cerebrum responsible for sensory and association is the:

The sense of smell is conveyed by the:

A glioma spreads by means of:

____________ brain tumors are known to spread via the CSF.

__________ brain tumors are seen more frequently in adults.

Single dose radiosurgery would be appropriate for a ____________ brain tumor.

Headache, increased intra-cranial pressure (ICP) & Seizures are symptoms of:

The primary management modality for primary brain tumors is:

Uncontrolled diabetes, visual disturbances & sinus pressure are all symptoms of __________.

Incontinence/impotence and radiating pain down the legs may indicate a primary spinal cord tumor located in the __________ region.

Facial pain could be associated with a primanry CNS tumor near cranial nerve ______.

The TD 5/5 for the lense of the eye is:

The TD 5/5 for the optic nerve or optic chiasm is:

Involvement of cranial nerve ______ may manifest as dysphagia.

During primary brain tumor irradiation, normal brain tissue should be kept below:

The Clark method for classifying melanoma is based on:

Melanocytes are found in the ______ layer of the skin.

The cells most sensitive to radiation are located in the ________ layer of the epidermis.

Lentigo maligna is a histologic type of melanoma characterized by growth in a _______ pattern with ______ or black color.

Causing fetal damage:

Removal of WBC's for re-infusion:

Coal based chemical:

_____ rods are associated with leukemia

Alfred velpeau documented the first case of _________.

List the different white blood cells:
(6)

The most important diagnostic factor for detecting CML is:

Bone marrow depression nadir can occur within _____ days in patients that have received methotrexate .

A clinical spleen set-up requires a ____cm margin around the organ.

Patients with ____ leukemia always exhibit lymphocytosis.

______ leukemia has the worst prognosis.

_____ leukemia appears to have a hereditary component.

A _________ biopsy is needed for the diagnosis of ALL.

The layers of the ________ include the dura mater, pia mater & the arachnoid mater.

The spleen is located in the ______ quadrant.

In the _____ & _____ phases of the cell cycle the undifferentiated cells have a decreased proportion of blast cells compared to normal bone marrow blast cells in regards to the pathology of AML.

B cells mature in the _________.

Lymph nodes are usually ___ to ___ mm in length.

Which type of lymphoma spreads randomly, originates in lymph nodes or extra nodal tissue and commonly arises in the GI tract?

The thoracic duct is the main collecting duct of the lymphatic system and begins in the _______.

75% of all Hodgkin disease will have

The most common presenting symptom for Hodgkin disease

A large binucleate or polynucleate cell present for a dx of Hodgkin is referred to as

Classification for staging of lymphoma is traditionally

Name the corresponding Organ for each letter when using the lymphoma staging system.
SHLMPOD

Marrow

A 21 yr old male pt has an enlarged cervical lymph node. Diagnostic work up reveals a mediastinal and axillary nodes as well. What stage is this pt?

Staging for Hodgkins also includes AB grouping. Which symptom is not one of the classical B symptoms?
A. Profuse night sweats
B. weight loss greater than 10% of body weight
C. unexplained fever above 38 degrees 
D unexplained pruritus

Unexplained pruritus

In Hodgkin disease, involvement of several nodal regions of both sides of the diaphragm accompanied by localized involvement of an extra lymphatic site is stage

In the tx of fields of Waldeyer ring for non Hodgkin lymphoma the fields delineation closely resembles that of carcinoma of the

Which lymphnode groups are treated in a mantle field

Which of the following are common side effects of RT of the abdomen?
Nausea
vomiting
fatigue

All of the above

T or F
Non Hodkin Lymphoma differs in a couple of ways from Hodgkins disease, one is that it occurs primarily in older persons

True

T or F
NHL is most likely to spread randomly, rather than orderly like HD does

True

A young woman has swelling in her lower neck for suspected HD. A chest xray also revealed mediastinal adenopathy. She had not experienced any fever, night sweats, or weight loss. Staging would be

The most favorable of the 4 subtypes of HD is

NHL may arise in
(3)

In NHL, lymphocytes pathologically arrange themselves in patterns called

The optimal dose to the mantle field is

which nodes are included in the inverted Y field
(3)

Radiation carditis is a chronic side effect after irradiation to the mantle field; this is inflammation of the

What is an acute side effect after radiation for Hodgkin's?

When txg the tumor bed for Wilm's tumor, care should be taken to include the entire width of the spine to prevent

Which of the following is not an assoc risk factor for pediatric solid tumors?
a. parasites
b. environment
c. ionizing radiation
d. prenatal factors

The most common symptom of Wilm's tumor is

Nephroblastomas met most commonly to the

Neuroblastomas originate in the

What primary brain tumor typically spreads to the CSF

The most common symptom of Ewing sarcoma is

The most frequent orbital malignancy in children is

Wilm's tuor originate from what cell type?

Which type of childhood cancer is mostly assoc with prophylactic irradiation of the CNS

Match these bone marrow transplants:
Allogeneic donor 
Autologous donor
Syngeneic donor
self
compatible match
identical twin

The most important latent side effects from radiation therapy to the pediatric patient include

An aggressive mgmt for retinoblastoma is an enucleation. An enucleation is

Soft tissue sarcomas usually spread

Sarcomas originate in the _____ tissue layer

Primary osseous tumors met to the lung via

___________ surgery would include intralesional incision, wide margin excision with bone grafting, and marginal margin excision with internal fixation.

What feature would be present on an xray image of a lytic primary bone tumor

What is the likely explanation for weight loss and fever in the pt suspected to have primary bone cancer

Rad to the abdomen for soft tissue sarcomas in the peritoneum is limited by low tolerance organs such as the kidneys. The TD 5/5 for the whole kidney is

A natural barrier for regional spread of primary bone tumors is the

Compact bone is arranged in concentric circle patterns known as

The area of spongy bone is found in the

A solitary multiple myeloma tumor is known as a

Which bone cancer has an onion skin appearance on an xray

A common symptom for soft tissue tumors is

The most common childhood bone cancer is

The most common primary bone cancer overall is

The variable that are used for staging soft tissue sarcomas are
a. histologic grade
b. tumor size
c. regional lymph node involvement
d. presence of distant mets

Are soft tissue sarcomas common or rare

What is the most common primary orbital malignancy of childhood

Do regional lymph nodes have to be included in tx ports for primary bone tumors

What area of the brain would you expect to find involved if a patient had vision problems

What is the average survival for patients with brain mets

Distinguish between osteolytic and osteoblastic lesions as they may appear on a conventional xray

Compare/contrast palliative doses of radiation for brain mets to curative doses for primary brain malignancy

What is superior vena cava syndrome

What is laminectomy

Compression of the cauda equina will likely manifest as

Which radionuclide may be used in treating met bone disease

In spinal cord compression and SVC syndrome, high doses of radiation are given in the 1st few txs. What is a typical dose

Is the humerus a likely site of bony mets?

Met brain disease differs from primary brain malignancy in that

When txg a pt who has spinal cord compression in the cervical spine, the best position among the following would be

A typical field size for the tx of thoracic vertebrae 5-10 would be

single posterior flds are not usually adequate for lower lumbar or sacral bone met because

A T-shaped radiation tx field would likely be seen in the tx of

A common symptom of liver mets is

Regional lymphatics are not usually included in rad flds for palliation because

Daily tx charges for a single fld spine with no field shaping or beam modifiers would be

What are the differences between electrons and protons

During xray production, the resulting xray beam comes from electrons colliding with the target causing interactions such as

The positive side of the basic x-ray tube is know as the _______

The ratio of xray to heat during xray production is variable depending on the __________ of electrons transversing the tube.

An _________ collision is one in which the incoming electron gives all of its energy to the electrons it encounters.

Name the photon interactions

Name the electron interactions

Regarding isotopes, isotopes are an element that have the same # of ____ but a different # of neutrons

Match these
___isotopes___isobars___isotones___isomerA. IR¹⁹²m IR¹⁹²m
B. ₂₇Fe⁵⁹, ₂₇Fe⁵⁸
C. ₂₈NI⁶⁰, ₃₁Ga⁶⁰
D. ₁₁Na²², ₁₀Ne²¹

If using a tungsten target, the fx of 4 MeV electrons converted to photons is

The probability of photoelectric interaction_______ with increasing energy and ________ with the atomic # of the medium.

A neutral atom that loses an electron by ionization is called a

A certain atom has binding energies of 70eV in the L shell and 10eV in the M shell. During an M shell to L shell transition, the photon emitted will have the energy of ____

An atom is neutral if the # of its electron is = to its

The photons produced during the orbital transitions of electrons from a higher to lower energy are called

2 or more chemicals with the same chemical formula, but having difference nuclear states are known as

How many disintegration per min are there in 1 Ci?

On Jan 1, we receive 80 mCi of an isotpe with a 1/2 life of 8 days. The activity remaining on Jan 25 would be

The wavelength of xrays are measured in

The photoelectric process is essentially an interaction between a photon and a ______ electron

A deutron is the nucleus of an isotope of H2. Which of the following is true?
A. it has a mass # of 2
B.it has an atomic # of 2
C. it has a positive charge of 2
D. is has an energy of 2 MeV

The probability that a photon interacts with a material is _____ to the attenuation coefficient

Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which is produced during natural radioactive decay

Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which can carry a + or - charge

Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which has helium nucleus

Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which has hydrogen nucleus

Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which has greatest internal hazard

Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which cannot ionize directly and interacts with only the nucleus

Out of Alpha, Beta, Proton and Neutrons, which may be referred to as an electron or positron

Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering time of exposure

Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering tube current

Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering target material

Out of Quantity, quality, or both, which is affected by altering distance

Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering filtration

Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering kVp

Out of Q- Quantity, H-quality, and B for both, which is affected by altering generator type

I¹³¹ and I¹²⁵ have different #s of

Neutron decay ______ (is/is not) a type of nuclear decay.

The radioactive decay of a radioisotope is characterized by its:

The energy of an electromagnetic radiation is _________ proportional to its wavelength.

The energy of an electromagnetic radiation is _________ proportional to its frequency.

Cobalt 60 decays by ______.

To interact by photoelectric effect, the interacting photon must have energy equal or greater than the :

Carbon 14 and Nitrogen 14 are:

When a long-lived radionuclide decays to a short-lived daughter, it is known as ________ equilibrium.

________ implies the removal of an electron from the atom.

When a radionuclide decays, radiation is emitted from the ________.

TRUE/False
IMRT does not require port film verification

Form of breast immobilization that has best reproducibility:

When looking up PDD or TMR use(effective square/equivalent square) when there are blocks or MLCs:

Pros and cons of SSD setup:

When an extended distance is required for a nonisocentric treatment, what changes and additions are needed in the calculations;(name 3)

What is not an advantage of using a multifield approach?

Field size determinations should be done (dosimetrically/geomtrically)?

T/F
Standard wedges can have a beam hardening effect when the radiation is MONOENERGETIC.

Dmax for 18 MV:

A pt is delivered a dose of 150 cGy at a depth of 13 cm with 10 MV photos at 100 SSD. The PDD is 60%. Calculate dose delivered to the depth of maximum dose.

Electron arc therapy has what effect on Dmax position, as compared to a stationary electron field of the same energy?

A prostate seed implant is considered:

Au 198seeds imbedded into the tongue are considered:

Formula for calculating an exposure at a specific distance for a particular isotope:

When planning a gyn implant it is calculated to point____.

When an element has an excessive number of neutrons it it likely to undergo _____decay.

LDR isotopes deliver a dose rate of between ___ and ____cGy/min

Your pt has been in hospital for blood transfusions and has missed 3 wks of treatments. Upon the pts return what should therapist do?

Spinal cord compression of T5-6 is likely to be treated with:

A primary brain tumor located in the rt temporal lobe will likely be treated with:

Figure gap:
100 SSD
depth 5 cm
field 1: 8x 20
field 2: 8x 25

Isocenter x =-1.0 cm
Shift should be ____to the patient's ____.

Compare and contrast benign and malignant tumors:

List and describe 5 different methods of tissue sampling/biopsy.

Define prophylactic cancer treatment:

Compare and contrast hyperplasia, metaplasia, and anaplasia:

Mortality rates are based on persons per ______population.

Any substance or gent that produces or incites cancer is called:

The seven warning signs include all the follwing except:
1)thickening or lump
2)nagging cough
3)pain
4)change in bowel habits

The TNM staging system evaluates:(pick any or all)
a)the size and extent of tumor
b)whether the tumor has metastasized
c)the grade of the tumor

Malignant neoplasms that originate in the lymphoreticular tissues are called:

When more than one cancer modality is used simultaneously, it is known as:

The cancer warning signal most likely indicating colon/rectal cancer is:

Which cytotoxic drug may produce heart failure?

A tumor classified as T3, N2, MO is likely a stage:

The tissue of a malignant carcinoma is:

The method used to establish definitive malignancy is:

A malignant tissue of striated muscle is called a/n:

A surgical procedure in which an incision is made through the abdominal wall to examine lymph nodes to establish the extent of disease is called a/n:

The highest incidence of malignancy for adult males in the US occurs in the _____. For females it is the _______.

The most common side effect associated with cytotoxic drugs is:

Most cancers are: (sporadic/familial).

The removal of cells by scraping is called:

The____of a tumor is an evaluation of the degree of cellular differentiation.

According to B & T, factors that may influence the sensitivity of a group of cells to ionizing radiation is:(pick any or all)
1)mitotic activity
2)time of cell division
3)cellular differentiation
4)Length of mitotic activity

What difference would you expect to see between larngeal tumors classified as T2 and T4?

TRUE/FALSE:
One of the characteristics of benign tumors are that they are never fatal.

TRUE/FALSE:
The term for transmission of disease from one original site to one or more sites elsewhere in the body is metastasis.

TRUE/FALSE:
Oncogenes are also known as tumor- suppressor genes.

TRUE/FALSE:
In general, children have the highest rates of cancer.

TRUE/FALSE:
Surgery is never used prophylactically.

Which of the following is not a possible side effect of cytotoxic drugs:
1)nausea
2)Cardiac toxicity
3)Myelosuppression
4)Alopecia
5)None of the above

The oldest cancer management modality is:

One of the unique characteristics of substitute ureas is:

The incidence of cancer in a given area may be affected by:
1)Race
2)envioronmental exposures
3)cultural practices
4)All of the above

A tumor marker for detection of germ cell tumors is:

The ACS reccomends ______for men beginning at age 45.

Who is at greater risk for lung cancer: A person who has smoked 1 pack/day for the past year or someone who has smoked 1 pack/day for the past 25 years?

Define:
prostatectomy

Define:
radical mastectomy

Define:
Modified radical mastectomy

Define:
Exentertion

Prophylactic therapy is intended to:

Curative therapy is intended to:

If cytotoxic drugs poison both normal and cancer cells, how is it that we continue using this modality and expect to treat cancer and return patient to a healthy state?

Because both chemo and RT rely on adequate vascular supply, what is it's significance concerning the effectiveness of both modalities?

When cure rates using systemic chemo and RT are similar for early stage cervix, glottic larynx, and BCC of he skin, why would RT be preferable?

We generally report survival rates in 5 yr increments. Breast cancer survival rates are reported at a different time interval. What is it and why?

Most cytotoxic drugs cannot cross blood/brain barrier. Explain how certain drugs or combinations of drugs, unable to cross the barrier, are effectively used in the management of certain CNS malignancies today.

Which of the following modalities, used alone, would best treat a patient with metastatic disease?
1)Surgery
2)Radiation
3)Chemo
4)hormone therapy

Hippocrates is credited with:

The youngest modality used in the treatment of cancer is:

The following is true regarding excisional biopsy:(pick any or all)
1)Involves a removal of a portion of the tumore
2)Generally appropriate for cure of a relatively small tumor
3)provides a definitive diagnosis

Possible routes for administration of chemo are:(pick any or all)
1)intravenous
2)topical
3)enteral

Actinomycin D is an:

Generally, a lesion classified T1 NO MO is a stage __:

Which of the following is not recognized as a carcinogen:
1)ionizing radiation
2)asbestos
3)ultraviolet light
4)crude oil

A patient receiving RT to the brain is expected to experience:
1)epilation
2)diarrhea
3)dysuria
4)dysphagia

A likely symptom of testicular cancer is:

The most widely used staging system is known as the ____system.

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