General Anatomy.txt

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General Anatomy.txt
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General Anatomy
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  1. When the scapula moves anterior & lateral it is called _______.
    Protaction
  2. Calcitonin is secreted by which cell?
    Parafollicular
  3. Which pulse is palpated just proximal to the hypothenar pad?
    Ulnar
  4. Which types of cells are found throughout the respiratory tract?
    Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar
  5. The palatoglossus & palatopharyngeus form which of the following?
    Pillars of Fauces
  6. What is a characteristic of the large intestine?
    Haustra
  7. The esophageal hiatus is located @ which vertebral level?
    T10
  8. The peronius longus tendon goes under the foot & crosses the groove of which bone?
    Cuboid
  9. Which of the following structures pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm?
    Internal Vena Cava @ T8
  10. The apex of the lung is @ what level?
    Just above the 1st Rib
  11. Which of the following produces surfactant?
    Type II Alveolar Cells
  12. The chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that connect the _____ to the _______.
    Valve Cusps, Papillary Muscles
  13. Which of the following are the largest taste buds?
    Circumvallate
  14. Which of the following are the fewest taste buds in number?
    • A. Fungiform
    • B. Filiform
    • C. Foliate
    • D. Cirumvallate
  15. Which of the following structures pass through the deep inguinal ring of the male?
    Spermatic Cord
  16. The posterior costal pleura extend caudally to the level of the _____.
    12th Rib
  17. Which of the following is the superficial boundary of the peroneal cavity?
    Colles Flexure (fascia)
  18. Name the plane that divides the body into right & left halves?
    Median or Sagittal
  19. What is the thickest part of the heart?
    Left Ventricular
  20. What is the most muscular part of the heart?
    Left Ventricular
  21. Muscle spindles are _______ receptors.
    Stretch
  22. Which of the following structures is found in the peritoneal cavity?
    Sigmoid Colon
  23. What granular structure excretes renin?
    Afferent Arteriole
  24. Which type of joint is a fibrous articulation?
    • Intervertebral Disc
    • Symphysis Pubis
  25. What do larynogotracheal diverticulum develops from?
    Pharynx
  26. What canal is located on the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa?
    Pudendal
  27. What organ is devoid of lymphatics?
    Brain
  28. What organ has both endocrine & exocrine functions?
    Pancreas
  29. Fibrocartilage unites bone in which of the following articulations?
    • Intervertebral Disc
    • Pubis Symphysis
  30. Meissner’s Plexus is located in which part of the intestinal lining?
    Submucosa
  31. At what vertebral level is the horizontal fissure of the lung located?
    • T4 @ Mid Axillary Line
    • T6 @ Mid Clavicular Line
  32. The _________ is located between the epidermis & the dermis.
    Basement Membrane
  33. Cryptorchism causes sterility because of ___________.
    Temperature of the Testes
  34. During swallowing the posterior entrance to the nasal cavity is blocked by the __________, therefore preventing aspiration.
    Soft Palate
  35. The main function of the oval window is to ______________.
    Transmit Sonic Vibration to Ossicles of Perilymph
  36. What types of cells line the pleural cavity?
    Flat Mesothelial Cells
  37. The thoracic crura of the diaphragm attach to the __________.
    T12 - L1 Vertebra
  38. What part of the mediastinum is the heart located in?
    Middle
  39. What is the cause of penile erections?
    Arterial Dilation of Corpus Cavernosium
  40. Posterior costal pleura extend to what thoracic level?
    T12
  41. What structure passes thru the left & right crura of the diaphragm?
    Aorta
  42. What is a derivative of the parameonephric duct?
    Uterus
  43. The pituitary gland sits in a depression of bone called the _______.
    Sphenoid
  44. Taenia Coli feature what structure?
    Haustra
  45. Where does the floor of the palatine tonsil lie?
    Palatopharyngeus & Superior Constrictor
  46. The vermiform appendix is an out pouching of the________.
    Cecum
  47. Where does spermatogenesis take place?
    Seminiferous Tubules
  48. The Thymus Gland is located in the ___________ mediastinum.
    Superior
  49. The true pelvis is located ____________.
    Below the Pelvic Inlet but above the Pelvic Outlet
  50. The _____ rib is @ the junction of the manubrium & body of the sternum.
    2nd
  51. Which duct opens into the vestibule of the mouth?
    Parotid
  52. What types of cells are corpus spongiosum?
    Erectile Tissue
  53. What is a synonym for a dust cell?
    Macrophage
  54. Which function do muscle spindles aid in?
    Proprioception
  55. Which gland commonly undergoes calcific changes?
    Pineal Gland
  56. The Cupula is located in the _________.
    Cervical Pleura
  57. What part of the fallopian tube contains uterine ostium?
    Infundibulum
  58. The ____________ is an outgrowth of the hepatic diverticulum.
    Cystic Duct
  59. The tail of the pancreas is in contact with the _________.
    Spleen
  60. The lymph nodes of the breast drain into the _________.
    Pectoral Nodes
  61. Which part of the uterine tube contains abdominal ostium?
    Infundibular
  62. Which of the following structures is adjacent to the suprascapular artery?
    Scapular Notch
  63. What types of cells make up the uterus?
    Simple Columnar Cells
  64. The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into the____________.
    Middle Meatis
  65. Which hormone(s) do the Parafollicular cells of the thyroid produce?
    Calcitonin
  66. What structure comes from the urogenital sinus?
    Urethra & Urinary Bladder
  67. The lateral aspect of the rectus abdominal sheath is known as the ___________.
    Linea Semilunaris
  68. Plasma cells are derived from what?
    Lymphocytes
  69. Which cells are controlled by the pituitary gland?
    Follicular Cells
  70. Which GI structure contains central lacteals?
    Villi
  71. Which of the following structures lay posterior lateral to the testes?
    Epididymis
  72. The pampiniform plexus is located where?
    Spermatic Cord
  73. The haustra of the large intestines are formed from the ________.
    Taenia Coli
  74. Which plane divides the body into anterior & posterior halves?
    Coronal
  75. What structure passes through the right & left crura?
    Aortic Hiatus
  76. When the adenoids swell they occlude what?
    Eustachian Tube
  77. Which structure is composed of hyaline cartilage?
    Bronchi
  78. The majority of the respiratory tract is composed of which of the following cells?
    Pseudo Stratified Columnar
  79. From which part of the pleura is the cupola derived?
    Cervical Pleura
  80. The junction of the esophagus & stomach is located where?
    Inferior to the Diaphragm
  81. The uncinate process is part of which of the following?
    Pancreas
  82. In which of the following linings of the intestines is Meissner’s Plexus found?
    Submucosal
  83. Where is the vertebral prominence?
    C7
  84. Which is a vertical plane @ right angles to the sagittal plane?
    Coronal
  85. What structure is the demarcation between visceral & parietal pleura?
    Cupula
  86. Which of the following produce steroid hormones?
    Adrenal Cortex
  87. The union of what forms the common bile duct?
    Common Hepatic & Cystic Ducts
  88. Which structure is the proximal attachment for the semimembranosus muscle?
    Ischial Tuberosity
  89. Articulation between the thumb, trapezium & the base of the 1st metacarpal forms what type of joint?
    Saddle Joint
  90. What would be the same anatomical position as anterior & posterior?
    Ventral & Dorsal
  91. The majority of lymph is returned to the circulation via the ________.
    Thoracic Duct
  92. The adenoids are located where?
    Nasopharynx
  93. The skin from the anus to the rectum is made up of which type of cells?
    Stratified Squamous & Simple Columnar
  94. The trachea is lined with which type of cells?
    Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar
  95. The glenoid labrum is made up of what type of tissue?
    Fibrocartilage
  96. Respiratory bronchioles terminate in the ______________.
    Alveolar Ducts
  97. The junction of the esophagus & pharynx is @ the level of the_______________?
    Cricoid Cartilage
  98. The esophageal hiatus is located @ which of the following vertebral levels?
    T10
  99. The distal ascending colon is located in which abdominal quadrant?
    Right Upper
  100. The stomach is located in which abdominal quadrant?
    Left Upper
  101. The descending colon is located in which abdominal quadrant?
    Left Lower
  102. The cecum is located in which abdominal quadrant?
    Right Lower
  103. Which cell types are responsible for the maturation of RBC’s?
    Reticulocytes
  104. Which of the following regions of the stomach is adjacent to the esophagus?
    Cardiac
  105. The superior border of the esophagus is located @ which vertebral level?
    C6
  106. Which of the following is the function of kupffer cells?
    Phagocytosis
  107. Which type of epithelium lines the esophagus?
    Stratified Squamous
  108. Which of the following organelles of skeletal muscle transmits action potential from outside to inside the cell?
    T-tubules
  109. Which cells are formed by the fragmentation of megakaryocytes?
    Platelets
  110. Sperm are allowed to mature in which of the following structures?
    Epididymis
  111. Glandular cells that produce renin come from which of the following?
    Afferent Arterioles
  112. Which of the following is a pivot joint?
    Proximal Radioulnar
  113. Ankylosing of the sternoclavicular joint would cause difficulty with which of the following?
    Abduction of the Shoulder
  114. Which of the following is the dermatome to the nipple?
    T4
  115. Red pulp is located in which of the following organs?
    Spleen
  116. The anterior portion of the trigone is formed by the ________?
    Urethra
  117. What is located between the isthmus & the vagina?
    Cervix
  118. The superior portion of the uterus above the fallopian tubes is called what?
    The Fundus
  119. What forms the apex of the heart?
    Left Ventricle
  120. The greater omentum extends from which of the following?
    Greater Curvature of the Stomach to the Transverse Colon
  121. Which structure is located in the superior mediastinum?
    Arch of the Aorta
  122. Which of the following structures is retroperitoneal?
    Pancreas
  123. Which of the following organs has endocrine & exocrine functions?
    Pancreas
  124. Which of the following structures does not contain smooth muscle?
    Alveolar Sacs
  125. Which quadrant of the abdomen is the appendix located in?
    Right Lower
  126. The external iliac artery supplies blood to which of the following structures?
    Lower Limb
  127. At what level does the esophagus begin?
    Cricoid Cartilage @ C6
  128. What hormone does the corpus luteum produce?
    Progesterone
  129. What stimulates hair follicles?
    Pucinian Corpuscles
  130. Which of the following locks the knee with weight bearing?
    Internal Rotation
  131. The spinothalamic & spinoreticular tracts are found in which portion of the spinal cord?
    Lateral Fasciculus
  132. The T-lymphocytes are derived from which of the following?
    Thymus
  133. The tissue of the mitral & tricuspid valves is made up of?
    Endocardium
  134. The union of which 2 structures forms the ejaculatory duct?
    Vas Deferens & Seminal Vesicle
  135. Which types of cells line the vaginal canal?
    Non-Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium
  136. What is the location of the angle of Louis?
    2nd Rib
  137. Blood is supplied to the primary bronchi directly from which of the following?
    Aorta
  138. What do cells in the suprarenal cortex secrete?
    Cortisol
  139. What is the layer of skin on the soles of the feet and the palms of the hands called?
    Stratum Lucidum
  140. What type of tissue is found in the alveolar sac?
    Simple Squamous
  141. What is considered the pacemaker of the heart?
    SA Node
  142. Axial rotation is most greatly restricted in what part of the spine?
    Lumbar
  143. Where is the apex of the heart located?
    5th Intercostal Space
  144. Adduction & abduction of the vocal cords are dependent upon what?
    Arytenoid Cartilage
  145. What structure causes the nasal passage to swell or shrink?
    Nasal Membrane
  146. What is the mucous membrane of the urinary bladder made up of?
    Transitional Epithelium
  147. What type of tissue makes up the valves of the heart?
    Endocardium
  148. Which structure connects the stomach to the liver?
    Lesser Omentum
  149. Which structure attaches the stomach to the transverse colon?
    Lesser Omentum
  150. Which organ lies directly anterior to the splenic vein?
    Pancreas
  151. Brunner’s glands are in the _______ portion of the duodenum.
    1st
  152. What is the location of Bartholin’s glands?
    Lower Part of the Vagina
  153. Which structure holds the tongue to the floor of the mouth?
    Lingual Frenulum
  154. Abduction of the arm brings the inferior border of the scapula in what direction?
    Superior & Lateral
  155. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of the 1st rib?
    Scalene Tubercle
  156. What are appendices, epiploicae & taenia coli features of?
    Colon
  157. What do the Islets of Langerhan secrete?
    Glucagon (alpha cells)
  158. Which of the following secrete epinephrine & norepinephrine?
    Adrenal Medulla
  159. At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?
    T4
  160. Peyers patches are lymphoid tissue located in the ________?
    Ileum
  161. What does the sphenoid sinus lay immediately inferior to?
    Hypophyseal Fossa
  162. What are the 3 embryonic shunts?
    • Ductus Arteriosus
    • Ductus Venosus
    • Foramen Ovale
  163. In the fetus, blood bypasses the liver sinusoid through which structure?
    Ductus Venosus
  164. Which of the following provides communication between the atria of a fetal heart?
    Foramen Ovale
  165. Which of the following connects the left pulmonary artery directly to the descending aorta in the fetus?
    Ductus Arteriosus
  166. Which of the following are derivatives of neuroectoderm?
    • Neural Crest
    • Neural Tube
  167. The lens of the cornea is derived from _________.
    Surface Ectoderm
  168. What structure is the suprarenal medulla derived from?
    Neural Crest
  169. What does the urogenital system develops from?
    Intermediate Mesoderm
  170. An abnormal development of which of the following is a result of malformation of the hindgut?
    Urorectal Septum
  171. What is the embryonic origin of the adenohypophysis?
    Rathke’s Pouch
  172. What are lens placodes derived from?
    Ectoderm
  173. Which of the following give rise to brachial arch cartilage?
    Neural Crest
  174. Which brachial arch gives rise to the thymus?
    3rd
  175. How many stages are there in mitosis?
    5
  176. What are the 5 stages of mitosis?
    • Interphase
    • Prophase
    • Metaphase
    • Anaphase
    • Telophase
  177. Which of the following give rise to the spleen?
    Lateral Mesoderm
  178. Which of the following give rise to pharynx & thyroid epithelium?
    Endoderm
  179. Which of the following give rise to the muscles of the trunk?
    Paraxial Mesoderm
  180. Which of the following give rise to the Adrenal Cortex?
    Lateral Mesoderm
  181. Which of the following give rise to the muscles & connective tissue of the head?
    Mesoderm
  182. Which of the following give rise to the pineal gland?
    Neural Tube
  183. What is the 1st stage of mitosis?
    Interphase
  184. What is the 2nd stage of mitosis?
    Prophase
  185. What is the 3rd stage of mitosis?
    Metaphase
  186. What is the 4th stage of mitosis?
    Anaphase
  187. What is the 5th stage of mitosis?
    Telophase
  188. Which stage of mitosis is the resting stage?
    Interphase
  189. At which stage of mitosis does the nuclear membrane disappear?
    Prophase
  190. At which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes move towards the poles?
    Metaphase
  191. At which stage of mitosis do the chromatids move towards the poles?
    Anaphase
  192. At which stage of mitosis do you have separation of the chromosomes?
    Telophase
  193. Which of the following is derived from mesoderm?
    Head
  194. Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
    • Liver
    • Pancreas
    • Urinary Bladder
  195. Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
    • Bronchi
    • Lungs
    • Trachea
  196. Which of the following is derived from the neural tube?
    Central Nervous System
  197. Which of the following is derived from the neural crest?
    • Cranial Nerves
    • Sensory Nerves
  198. What are the 3 germ layers?
    • Ectoderm
    • Endoderm
    • Mesoderm
  199. Which of the following forms the epithelial lining of the GI Tract?
    Endoderm
  200. The mid gut forms which of the following structures?
    Ileum
  201. Which structure shunts blood from the Right Atrium to the Left atrium in the fetus?
    Foramen Ovalis
  202. Which of the following give rise to skin, hair, & nails?
    Surface Ectoderm
  203. Which of the following give rise to the retina?
    Neural Tube
  204. Which of the following give rise to the tonsils?
    Endoderm
  205. Which of the following give rise to the posterior pituitary?
    Neural Tube
  206. Which of the following give rise to the enamel on teeth?
    Surface Ectoderm
  207. Which of the following give rise to the skull?
    Mesoderm
  208. Which of the following originate from the trilaminar embryonic disc?
    • Ectoderm
    • Endoderm
    • Mesoderm
  209. Which of the following give rise to blood cells?
    Lateral Mesoderm
  210. Which of the following give rise to the anterior pituitary gland?
    Surface Ectoderm
  211. Which of the following give rise to the lymph cells & the lymphatic system?
    Lateral Mesoderm
  212. Which of the following give rise to the dermis layer of skin?
    Paraxial Mesoderm
  213. Which of the following give rise to the muscles of the viscera & limbs?
    Lateral Mesoderm
  214. Which of the following give rise to the tympanic cavity?
    Endoderm
  215. Which of the following give rise to the cardiovascular system?
    Lateral Mesoderm
  216. Which bone articulates the appendicular skeleton with the scapula?
    Clavicle
  217. Which carpal bone articulates with the 2nd metacarpal?
    Trapezoid
  218. Which of the following structures remains from old lamellae after remodeling?
    Interstitial Lamella
  219. Which cells are responsible for removing calcium during bone remodeling?
    Osteoclasts
  220. Which of the following bones forms the middle malleolus?
    Tibia
  221. Which of the following articulates with the anterior portion of the calcaneus?
    Cuboid
  222. What 2 bones go into the formation of the perpendicular plate?
    Ethmoid & Vomer
  223. Which bone of the foot has 3 articular facets?
    Calcaneus
  224. Which bone makes up the lateral malleolus?
    Distal Fibula
  225. What type of bone is the occiput derived from?
    Intramembranous
  226. Is the cervical curve primary or secondary?
    Secondary
  227. Which of the following curves are present at birth?
    • Thoracic
    • Sacral
  228. Which of the following curves are formed last?
    Lumbar
  229. At what vertebral level is the apex of the lumbar curve located?
    L3
  230. Where is the smallest spinous process in the lumbar spine located?
    L5
  231. Which of the following refers to the ends of long bones?
    Epiphysis
  232. Which of the following is located between the diaphysis & the epiphysis?
    Metaphysis
  233. Which of the following is the most vascular growth zone in a bone?
    Metaphysis
  234. Which of the following refers to the shaft of a bone?
    Diaphysis
  235. Which of the following refers to the cartilage between the end & the shaft of the bone?
    Epiphyseal Plate
  236. Which of the following is a bone forming cell derived from mesenchyme?
    Osteoblast
  237. Which of the following is a feature of the humerus?
    Coronoid Fossa
  238. The sesmoid bone in the foot is located in which tendon?
    Flexor Hallicus Brevis
  239. The resting stage of the epiphyseal plate is composed of what?
    Hyaline Cartilage
  240. The intertrochanteric crest is located on the __________ aspect of the femur.
    Posterior
  241. The tibialis posterior muscle attaches to which bone?
    Calcaneus
  242. Which of the following structures is the distal attachment of the brachialis tendon?
    Ulnar Tuberosity
  243. Where is the soleal line?
    Posterior Tibia
  244. Where is the Olecranon fossa located?
    Humerus
  245. Which of the following attaches muscles of the supra & infra spinus fossa?
    Scapular Spine
  246. The lesser sciatic notch is located on which of the following bones?
    Ischium
  247. The scaphoid is located on the _________ of the anatomical snuffbox
    Floor
  248. Which of the following is a multinucleated cell that breaks down bone?
    Osteoclast
  249. Which of the following is the concentric matrix around an osteoblast?
    Lamella
  250. Which of the following is the small space or cavity around cells of the bone?
    Lacuna
  251. Which of the following contain Osteocytes?
    Lacuna
  252. Which of the following are fibrous strands in the medullary compartment that are interconnected?
    Trabeculae
  253. Canal & lamellae concentrically arranged best describe which of the following?
    Haversian System
  254. Which of the following is the basic structural unit of compact bone?
    Haversian System
  255. Which of the following is the transverse canal in bone?
    Volkman’s Canal
  256. Which of the following contains the nutrient artery?
    Volkman’s Canal
  257. Which of the following are parts of the scapula?
    • Acromion Process
    • Coracoid Process
    • Infraglenoid Tubercle
    • Spine
    • Supraglenoid Tubercle
  258. Which of the following are parts of the clavicle?
    • Conoid Tubercle
    • Trapezoid Line
  259. Which of the following transmits forces from the arm?
    Clavicle
  260. Which of the following is the first bone to ossify?
    Clavicle
  261. Which of the following is located immediately distal to the head of the humerus?
    Anatomical Neck
  262. Which of the following is located immediately distal to the anatomical neck of the humerus?
    Surgical Neck
  263. Which of the following is located on the lateral surface of the humerus?
    Deltoid Tuberosity
  264. Where is the primary ossification center for a long bone located?
    Diaphysis
  265. The radial notch articulates with which of the following?
    Head of the Radius
  266. On which bone is the olecranon located?
    Ulna
  267. The coronoid process is located @ which of the following bones?
    Ulna
  268. Which of the following bones has a styloid process?
    Ulna
  269. What separates Haversian systems from each other?
    Interstitial Lamellae
  270. The lacrimal fossa is part of which structure?
    Frontal Bone
  271. The interosseous membrane of the leg is classified as a ________.
    Syndesmosis
  272. Which bone contains a conoid tubercle?
    Clavicle
  273. Sustentaculum tali are part of which bone?
    Calcaneus
  274. The head of the fibula articulates with ______.
    Lateral Condyle of the Tibia
  275. How many tarsal bones are in the foot?
    7
  276. Articulation @ the humerus & ulna during extension occurs @ the _____________.
    Olecranon Fossa & Olecranon Process
  277. The anterior portion of the hard palate is ________.
    Maxillary Bone
  278. What separates the greater & lesser sciatic notches?
    Ischial Spine
  279. What carpal bone(s) articulate with the radius?
    Scaphoid & Lunate
  280. Of the following, what is the location for a sesmoid bone?
    Flexor Pollicus Brevis
  281. The articular disc in the distal radioulnar joint articulates with the _______.
    Lunate
  282. Which of the following is formed by intramembranous bone?
    Clavicle
  283. The intermediate cuniform articulates distally with the ___________.
    2nd Metatarsal
  284. What 2 bones make up a joint known as schindylesis?
    Ethmoid & Vomer
  285. Which of the following bones contains the superior, middle, & inferior nasal concha?
    Ethmoid
  286. The 1st cuniform bone articulates with the _______ & _______ bones.
    Navicular, 1st Metatarsal
  287. Which of the following bones is not part of the knee joint?
    • A. Tibia
    • B. Fibula
    • C. Femur
    • D. Patella
  288. Which cells produce osteoid?
    Osteoblasts
  289. Bones & joints of the extremities are derived from ____________.
    Somatic Lateral Mesoderm
  290. Which of the following bones articulate with the radius?
    • A. Lunate
    • A. Trapezium
    • B. Pisiform
    • C. Capitulate
  291. Which of the following bones has only 1 articulation?
    • A. Pisiform
    • B. Hamate
    • C. Trapezium
    • D. Scaphoid
  292. The styloid process is located on the ___________ portion of the radius.
    Lateral
  293. The lunate bone articulates proximally with the ________.
    Radius
  294. Which multinucleated cell remodels bone?
    Osteoclasts
  295. The insertion point of the patellar tendon is the ________.
    Tibial tuberosity
  296. Membranous intramedullary bone formation is found where?
    Clavicle
  297. Which carpal bone is most often fractured?
    Scaphoid
  298. Which metacarpal bones articulate with the hamate?
    4th & 5th Metacarpal
  299. Which of the following bones are developed from interosseous membrane?
    Parietal
  300. What structure lies proximal to the trochlear on the distal humerus?
    Coronoid Fossa
  301. Which structure forms the point of the shoulder?
    Acromium
  302. What does the head of the fibula articulate with?
    Tibia
  303. Which of the following distributes stress from the upper extremities to the axial skeleton?
    Clavicle
  304. The ilium, ischium, & pubis meet within which of the following?
    Acetabulum
  305. Where is the primary ossification center for a long bone located?
    Diaphysis
  306. The radial notch articulates with what?
    Head of the Radius
  307. Which of the following carpals is located in the proximal row?
    Lunate
  308. The lateral aspect of the clavicle articulates with the __________?
    Acromium Process
  309. Which of the following bones are found in the head?
    • Frontal
    • Temporal
    • Parietal
    • Occipital
    • Sphenoid
    • Ethmoid
    • Nasal
    • Zygomatic
    • Maxillary
    • Mandible
  310. Which of the following is a dicondyloid joint?
    Tibiofemoral
  311. A costal joint in a child is made up of ____________ cartilage.
    Hyaline
  312. Which of the following is a diarthrodial joint?
    Synovial Joint
  313. Which of the following joints contains labrum?
    Hip
  314. What type of articulation is made up of bone & hyaline cartilage?
    Synchondrosis
  315. Which of the following is a pivot joint?
    Proximal Radioulnar
  316. The only joint to articulate the axial skeleton with the upper limb is?
    Sternoclavicular
  317. Which joint has an intra-articular disc?
    Radioulnar
  318. What type of joint is the Zygopophyseal?
    Diarthrodial
  319. What type of joint is the occiput-atlas?
    Condylar
  320. Which of the following ligaments restricts extension of the hip?
    Iliofemoral
  321. If the femur moves anterior in relation to the tibia it is due to damage to which ligament?
    Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
  322. Where does the medial collateral ligament attach?
    Medial Humeral Epicondyle
  323. Which ligament makes up the longitudinal arch of the foot?
    Spring Ligament
  324. What ligament anchors the liver to the diaphragm?
    Coronary
  325. The name of the ligament that runs from the ovary to the broad ligament is what?
    Suspensory Ligament
  326. A remnant of the umbilical vein becomes the ______________.
    Teres Ligament of the Liver
  327. What is another name for the Teres Ligament of the liver?
    (a.k.a.) Round Ligament
  328. Which ligament connects the sides of the uterus to the lateral pelvic walls?
    Broad Ligament
  329. The transverse ligament of the humerus holds the tendon of which muscle in position?
    Biceps Brachii
  330. In which joint is the deltoid ligament located?
    Ankle
  331. The ligament on the liver that is a remnant of left umbilical vein is called the __________.
    (a.k.a.) Ligamentum Teres Uteri
  332. What ligament connects the medial & lateral meniscus of the knee?
    Transverse Ligament
  333. Which of the following ligaments prevents lateral displacement of the Tibia?
    Fibular Collateral (Lateral Collateral)
  334. What is another name for the fibular collateral ligament?
    (a.k.a.) Lateral Collateral Ligament
  335. The spring ligament (which maintains the arch of the foot), connects the calcaneous to which of the following bones?
    Navicular
  336. Ankle inversion & plantar flexion of the foot are most restricted by which of the following?
    Anterior Talofibular Ligament
  337. Which of the following ligaments prevents anterior displacement of the tibia?
    Anterior Cruciate (ACL)
  338. What ligament reinforces the posterior portion of the hip joint?
    Ischiofemoral Ligament
  339. What forms the inferior attachment of the inguinal ligament?
    Pubic Tubercle
  340. If there is a fracture of the acetabular process which of the following will also be affected?
    Ligament to the Head of the Femur
  341. The collateral ligaments of the elbow are localized thickenings of what?
    Articular Capsule
  342. Which of the following lies in the inguinal canal?
    Round Ligament
  343. Which structure is responsible for suspension of the uterus?
    Broad Ligament
  344. Which of the following ligaments attaches the Acromion Process & the clavicle?
    Acromioclavicular Ligament
  345. Which of the following ligaments it made up of the Conoid & Trapezoid Ligaments?
    Coracoclavicular Ligament
  346. Which of the following ligaments connects the acromion process & the coracoid process?
    Coracoacromial Ligament
  347. Which of the following ligaments is located on the front of the vertebral bodies?
    Anterior Longitudinal Ligament
  348. Which of the following ligaments is located on the back of the vertebral bodies?
    Posterior Longitudinal Ligament
  349. Which of the following ligaments is wider in the cervical area & thinner in the lumbar area?
    Posterior Longitudinal Ligament
  350. Which of the following ligaments runs from lamina to lamina?
    Ligamentum Flavum
  351. Which of the following ligaments has a high elastic fiber content?
    Ligamentum Flavum
  352. Which of the following ligaments runs between spinous processes?
    Interspinous Ligament
  353. Which of the following ligaments runs from spinous process to spinous process?
    Supraspinous Ligament
  354. Which of the following holds the dens in fovea dentalis of the atlas?
    Transverse Ligament
  355. Which of the following runs from the sides of the dens to the occiput & limits rotation?
    Alar Ligament
  356. Which of the following ligaments is also known as the check ligament?
    Alar Ligament
  357. Which of the following ligaments runs from the occiput to the body of C2?
    Cruciate Ligament
  358. Which of the following ligaments runs from the apex of the dens to foramen magnum?
    Apical Dental Ligament
  359. Which of the following ligaments runs along the front of the vertebral bodies & spans from the atlas to the occiput?
    Anterior Atlanto-Occipital Ligament
  360. Ligamentum Nuchae spans from _____ to the ________.
    C7, Occiput
  361. Plantar flexion & inversion produces damage to the __________ ligament.
    Anterior Talofibular Ligament
  362. Which ligament holds the long head of the biceps tendon in the Intertubercular groove?
    Transverse Humeral
  363. Which of the following does the deltoid ligament attach the medial malleolus to?
    Tarsus
  364. Which of the following ligaments attaches the fibula to the tibia distally?
    Anterior Tibiofibular Ligament
  365. Which of the following attaches the lateral malleolus of the fibula to the talus?
    • Anterior Talofibular Ligament
    • Posterior Talofibular Ligament
  366. Which of the following attaches the fibula to the calcaneus?
    Calcaneofibular Ligament
  367. Which of the following is the principal ligament that strengthens the subtalar joint?
    Interosseous Talocalcaneal Ligament
  368. Which of the following make up the bifurcate ligament?
    • Calcaneonavicular Ligament
    • Calcaneocuboid Ligament
  369. Fracture of the medial epicondyle results in damage to which of the following muscles?
    Abductor Pollicus Longus
  370. What divides the posterior triangle of the neck into superior & inferior?
    Inferior Omohyoid
  371. What structure forms the lateral border of the femoral triangle?
    Sartorius
  372. The medial boundary of the anatomical snuffbox is formed by the ________.
    Extensor Pollicus Longus
  373. Which superficial muscle passes over the flexor retinaculum?
    Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
  374. Which of the following thigh muscles are located in the Anterior Compartment?
    • Sartorius
    • Vastus Medialis
    • Vastus Intermedius
    • Vastus Lateralis
    • Rectus Femoris
  375. What is the action of the Sartorius muscle?
    Flexes, Abducts, Laterally Rotates the Thigh, & Flexes the Leg
  376. What is the origin of the Sartorius muscle?
    ASIS
  377. Where is the insertion point of the Sartorius muscle?
    Tibia
  378. Which of the following nerves innervate the Sartorius muscle?
    Femoral Nerve
  379. Which compartment is the Sartorius muscle located in?
    Anterior
  380. What is the action of the Vastus Medialis muscle?
    Extends Leg
  381. What is the origin of the Vastus Medialis muscle?
    Femur
  382. Where is the insertion point of the Vastus Medialis muscle?
    Tibia
  383. Which of the following nerves innervate the Vastus Medialis muscle?
    Femoral Nerve
  384. Which compartment is the Vastus Medialis muscle located in?
    Anterior
  385. What is the action of the Vastus Intermedius muscle?
    Extends the Leg
  386. What is the origin of the Vastus Intermedius muscle?
    Femur
  387. Where is the insertion point of the Vastus Intermedius muscle?
    Tibia
  388. Which of the following nerves innervate the Vastus Intermedius muscle?
    Femoral Nerve
  389. Which compartment is the Vastus Intermedius muscle located in?
    Anterior
  390. What is the action of the Vastus Lateralis muscle?
    Extends the Leg
  391. What is the origin of the Vastus Lateralis muscle?
    Femur
  392. Where is the insertion point of the Vastus Lateralis muscle?
    Tibia
  393. Which of the following nerves innervate the Vastus Lateralis muscle?
    Femoral Nerve
  394. Which compartment is the Vastus Lateralis muscle located in?
    Anterior
  395. What is the action of the Rectus Femoris muscle?
    • Extends the Leg
    • Flexes the Hip
  396. What is the origin of the Rectus Femoris muscle?
    Pelvis
  397. Where is the insertion point of the Rectus Femoris muscle?
    Patella & Tibia
  398. Which of the following nerves innervate the Rectus Femoris muscle?
    Femoral Nerve
  399. Which compartment is the Rectus Femoris muscle located in?
    Anterior
  400. Which of the following thigh muscles are located in the Medial Compartment?
    • Gracilis
    • Pectineus
    • Adductor Longus
    • Adductor Brevis
    • Adductor Magnus
  401. What is the action of the Gracilis muscle?
    Adducts, Medially Rotates & Flexes the Thigh
  402. What is the origin of the Gracilis muscle?
    Pubis
  403. Where is the insertion point of the Gracilis muscle?
Tibia
  404. Which of the following nerves innervate the Gracilis?
    Obturator Nerve
  405. Which compartment is the Gracilis muscle located in?
    Medial
  406. What is the action of the Pectineus muscle?
    Adducts, Medially Rotates & Flexes the Thigh
  407. What is the origin of the Pectineus muscle?
    Pubis
  408. Where is the insertion point of the Pectineus muscle?
    Femur
  409. Which of the following nerves innervate the Pectineus muscle?
    Femoral Nerve
  410. Which compartment is the Pectineus muscle located in?
    Medial
  411. What is the action of the Adductor Longus muscle?
    Adducts, Medially Rotates & Flexes the Thigh
  412. What is the origin of the Adductor Longus muscle?
    Pubis
  413. Where is the insertion point of the Adductor Longus muscle?
    Femur
  414. Which of the following nerves innervate the Adductor Longus muscle?
    Obturator Nerve
  415. Which compartment is the Adductor Longus located in?
    Medial
  416. What is the action of the Adductor Brevis muscle?
    Adducts, Medially Rotates & Flexes the Thigh
  417. What is the origin of the Adductor Brevis muscle?
    Pubis
  418. Where is the insertion point of the Adductor Brevis muscle?
    Femur
  419. Which of the following nerves innervate the Adductor Brevis muscle?
    Obturator Nerve
  420. Which compartment is the Adductor Brevis located in?
    Medial
  421. What is the action of the Adductor Magnus muscle?
    Adducts, Medially Rotates, & Flexes the Thigh
  422. What is the origin of the Adductor Magnus muscle?
    Pubis
  423. Where is the insertion point of the Adductor Magnus muscle?
    Femur
  424. Which of the following nerves innervate the Adductor Magnus muscle?
Obturator Nerve
  425. Which compartment is the Adductor Magnus muscle located in?
    Medial
  426. Which of the following muscles are in the Posterior Compartment?
    • Gastrocnemius
    • Soleus
    • Popliteus
    • Tibialis Posterior
    • Flexor Digitorum Longus
    • Flexor Hallicus Longus
    • Plantaris
  427. What is the action of the Gastrocnemius muscle?
    • Plantar Flex the Foot
    • Flex the Leg
  428. What is the origin of the Gastrocnemius muscle?
    Medial & Lateral Epicondyle of the Femur
  429. Where is the insertion point of the Gastrocnemius muscle?
    Calcaneus
  430. Which of the following nerves innervate the Gastrocnemius muscle?
    Tibial Nerve
  431. Which compartment is the Gastrocnemius located in?
    Posterior
  432. What is the action of the Soleus muscle?
    Plantar Flex the Foot
  433. What is the origin of the Soleus muscle?
    Tibia & Fibula
  434. Where is the insertion point of the Soleus muscle?
    Calcaneus
  435. Which of the following nerves innervate the Soleus muscle?
    Tibial Nerve
  436. Which compartment is the Soleus located in?
    Posterior
  437. What is the action of the Popliteus muscle?
    Flex & Medially Rotate the Leg
  438. What is the origin of the Popliteus muscle?
    Lateral Femoral Condyle
  439. Where is the insertion point of the Popliteus muscle?
    Posterior Tibia
  440. Which of the following nerves innervate the Popliteus muscle?
    Tibial Nerve
  441. Which compartment is the Popliteus located in?
    Posterior
  442. What is the action of the Tibialis Posterior muscle?
    Plantar Flex & Invert the Foot
  443. What is the origin of the Tibialis Posterior muscle?
    Tibia, Fibula, & the Interosseous Membrane
  444. Where is the insertion point of the Tibialis Posterior muscle?
    Navicular, Cuneiforms, Cuboid, 2nd - 4th Metatarsals
  445. Which of the following nerves innervate the Tibialis Posterior muscle?
    Tibial Nerve
  446. Which compartment is Tibialis Posterior muscle located in?
    Posterior
  447. What is the action of the Flexor Digitorum Longus muscle?
    • Flexion of the Lateral 4 Toes
    • Plantar Flexion of the Foot
    • Inversion of the Foot
  448. What is the origin of Flexor Digitorum Longus?
    Tibia
  449. Where is the insertion point of Flexor Digitorum Longus?
    Distal 4 Phalanges of Digits 2-5
  450. Which of the following nerves innervate Flexor Digitorum Longus?
    Tibial Nerve
  451. Which compartment is Flexor Digitorum Longus located in?
    Posterior
  452. What is the action of the Flexor Hallicus Longus muscle?
    • Flex the Big Toe
    • Plantar Flex the Foot
    • Invert the Foot
  453. What is the origin of Flexor Hallicus Longus?
    Fibula
  454. Where is the insertion point of Flexor Hallicus Longus?
    Distal Phalanx of the Great Toe
  455. Which of the following nerves innervate Flexor Hallicus Longus?
    Medial Plantar Nerve
  456. Which compartment is Flexor Hallicus Longus located in?
    Posterior
  457. What is the action of the Plantaris muscle?
    • Plantar Flex the Foot
    • Flex the Leg
  458. What is the origin of the Plantaris muscle?
    Femur
  459. Where is the insertion point of the Plantaris muscle?
    Calcaneus
  460. Which of the following nerves innervate the Plantaris muscle?
    Tibial Nerve
  461. What compartment is the Plantaris muscle located in?
    Posterior
  462. Which muscle is a medial rotator of the hip?
    Gluteus Medius
  463. Damage to the long thoracic nerve will produce paralysis to which of the following muscles?
    Serratus Anterior
  464. The posterior superficial muscles of the leg insert into which of the following bones?
    Calcaneous
  465. Which of the following muscles inserts on the 5th metatarsal?
    Peroneus Brevis
  466. Which of the following muscles externally rotates the arm?
    Infraspinatus
  467. Which muscle accomplishes medial rotation of the tibia?
    Popliteus
  468. Which of the following muscles inserts into the scapula?
    Pectoralis Minor
  469. The tendon of what muscle attaches to the base of the radial styloid process?
    Brachioradialis
  470. What muscle can be palpated laterally in the ischiorectal fossa?
    Obturator Internus
  471. Which muscle is the main internal rotator of the shoulder?
    Subscapularis
  472. Which muscle is an external rotator of the shoulder?
    • Supraspinatus Muscle
    • Infraspinatus Muscle
  473. The tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii is found in the _______.
    Intertubercular Groove
  474. Which of the following muscles attaches to the superior portion of ribs 1 – 8.
    Serratus Anterior
  475. Which of the following muscles attaches to the Olecranon process?
    Triceps
  476. What muscle provides anterior support to the glenohumeral joint?
    Subscapularis
  477. Which muscle is located between the erector spinae muscle & the inferior portion of the kidney?
    Quadratus Lumborum
  478. Which muscle attaches to the spine of the scapula, acromium & distal clavicle?
    Trapezius
  479. The _______________ is a thin muscle that lies just below the rhomboids.
    Serratus Posterior
  480. What is the origin of the semitendinosus muscle?
    Ischial Tuberosity
  481. Which muscle attaches to the coracoid process of the scapula?
    Pectoralis Minor
  482. What type of connective tissue surrounds each muscle fascicle?
    Perimysium
  483. Which of the following does not attach to the rib cage?
    • B. Transverse Abdominal
    • C. Serratus Posterior
    • D. Multifidus
    • E. Longissimus
    • The posterior superficial muscles of the leg insert into the ___________.
    • Calcaneous
  484. Which muscle forms the medial border of the cubital fossa?
    Pronator Teres
  485. Which of the following muscles dorsiflex the foot?
    Peroneus Tertius
  486. What is the distal attachment of the adductor longus muscle?
    Linea Aspera
  487. What muscle initiates abduction of the glenohumeral joint?
    Supraspinatus
  488. Biceps brachii attaches to which structure on the radius?
    Tubercle
  489. Which of the following muscles attach to the proximal ulna & medial epicondyle of the humerus?
    Pronator Teres
  490. What is the action of the plantar interosseous muscles of the foot?
    Adduction
  491. The covering over the entire muscle is referred to as what?
    Epimysium
  492. Which muscle attaches to the iliotibial tract?
    Gluteus Maximus
  493. The tendon of which of the following muscles passes through the internal capsule of the shoulder?
    Biceps Brachii
  494. Which is a medial rotator of the hip?
    Gluteus Medius
  495. The function of the palmar interosseous muscle is to ________ the 4th digit.
    Adduct
  496. Which of the following muscles form the posterior axillary fold?
    Latissimus Dorsi
  497. Which muscle is involved with wrist flexion, elbow flexion & adduction of the hand?
    Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
  498. Which of the following muscles insert on the 5th metatarsal?
    Peroneus Brevis
  499. Which of the following muscles externally rotates the arm?
    Infraspinatus & Supraspinatus
  500. The perimysium is the connective tissue that encloses which of the following?
    Fasciculus
  501. Which of the following is made up of 10-20 single muscle fibers?
    Fasciculus
  502. Psoas major inserts into which of the following?
    Lesser Trochanter
  503. Which muscle forms the anterior border of the axilla?
    Pectoralis Major
  504. Which of the following is not part of the rotator cuff?
    Teres Major
  505. Which of the following structures divides the lateral aspects of the neck into anterior & posterior?
    Sternocleidomastoid Muscle (SCM)
  506. Which muscle does the medial plantar nerve supply?
    Flexor Hallicus Brevis
  507. Which muscle forms the lateral border of the femoral triangle?
    Sartorius
  508. Which muscle is a superficial forearm flexor?
    Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
  509. What is the insertion point of the temporalis muscle?
    Coronoid of the Mandible
  510. What is the origin of the Masseter?
    Zygomatic Arch
  511. What is the action of gluteus minimus?
    Abduction
  512. Which nerves innervate the pharynx?
    CN IX & X
  513. The radial nerve is found on the ________________ bone.
    Posterior Radius
  514. Which of the following nerves innervates the tibialis anterior muscle?
    Deep Peroneal
  515. Which nerve is palpable on the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula?
    Common Peroneal
  516. Which of the following nerves supply the extensor muscles of the fingers?
    Radial = All Extensors in the Upper Limb
  517. Which nerve innervates the anterior 1/3 of the scrotum, base of the penis & the superior groin?
    Illioinguinal
  518. Which of the following nerves is involved in erection of the penis?
    Pudendal
  519. If the long thoracic nerve is cut, what happens to the scapula?
    Winging
  520. A lesion of the _______ nerve results in the inability to supinate the hand.
    Radial
  521. What nerve would an enlarged thyroid affect?
    Recurrent Laryngeal
  522. What is the nerve supply to the diaphragm?
    C3, C4, C5
  523. Which of the following nerves is posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus?
    Ulnar
  524. Which nerve runs through the cubital fossa?
    Median
  525. What nerve innervates the Sartorius?
    Femoral
  526. Which of the following muscles of the pharynx is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve?
    Stylopharyngeus
  527. The radial nerve is a branch of which part of the brachial plexus?
    Posterior Cord
  528. Which nerve supplies the hypothenar?
    Ulnar
  529. Which nerve supplies the tensor fascia lata?
    Superior Gluteal
  530. Damage to the upper lateral popliteal fossa will result in damage to which nerve?
    Common Peroneal
  531. Which nerve supplies the external urethral sphincter?
    Pudendal
  532. The medial plantar nerve supplies which of the following muscles?
    Flexor Digitorum Brevis
  533. Abduction of the fingers & thumb is dependent upon the proper function of which of the following nerves?
    Median
  534. Motor innervation to the tongue comes from which of the following nerves?
    CN XII – (Hypoglossal)
  535. Abduction of the fingers & the thumb is dependent upon the proper function of which of the following nerves?
    Median
  536. Motor innervation to the tongue comes from which of the following nerves?
    CN XII – (Hypoglossal)
  537. The radial nerve is found on which of the following bones?
    Medial Scaphoid
  538. Which nerve is palpable on the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula?
    Common Peroneal
  539. Damage to the long thoracic nerve will produce paralysis where?
    Serratus Anterior Muscle
  540. Which of the following nerve(s) innervate the anterior compartment of the leg?
    Deep Peroneal
  541. Which cranial nerve traverses the foramen rotundum?
    Maxillary portion of CN V
  542. Laceration of the profunda brachii artery could cause damage to which nerve that accompanies it?
    Radial
  543. The pronator teres muscle is innervated by the___________.
    Median Nerve
  544. Difficulty in flexion & supination of the forearm might indicate damage to which nerve?
    Musculocutaneous Nerve
  545. Which nerve innervates the gracilis muscle?
    Obturator
  546. The ____________ nerve innervates the medial pterygoid muscle.
    Trigeminal
  547. Which nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
    Lingual Nerve = Branch of CN V
  548. What nerve runs anterior to the psoas muscle?
    Genitofemoral
  549. Which cranial nerve innervates the esophagus?
    Vagus
  550. The medial plantar nerve innervates the ______________ muscle.
    1st Lumbrical
  551. Inability to flex the distal phalanx of the big toe would indicate a lesion of the ____________ nerve.
    Tibial
  552. Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus will cause damage to which nerve?
    Axillary
  553. The ________ nerve innervates the bronchi.
    Vagus
  554. Which nerve passes through the foramen rotundum?
    Maxillary Nerve
  555. Which nerve innervates teres major?
    Lower Subscapular
  556. Which of the following nerves supply the gracilis muscle?
    Obturator
  557. The axillary nerve lies within which of the following?
    Quadrangular Space Borders: Lateral = Humerus, Superior = Teres Minor, Inferior = Teres Major, Medial = Long head of Triceps
  558. Which nerve innervates the Peroneus muscle?
    Superficial Peroneal
  559. The ulnar nerve lies between the _________ & _________.
    Pisiform, Hamate Bones
  560. Which of the following nerves perforates the lateral head of the triceps muscle?
    Posterior Antebrachial Cutaneous Nerve
  561. Which of the following are the principal sensory nerves of the anterior arm?
    • Medial Brachial Cutaneous
    • Intercostobrachial
  562. Which 2 roots does the median nerve arise from?
    Medial & Lateral Cords of the Brachial Plexus
  563. Which of the following is the origin of the Musculocutaneous nerve?
    Lateral Cord of the Brachial Plexus
  564. Which of the following is the origin of the Ulnar nerve?
    Medial Cord of the Brachial Plexus
  565. Which dermatome supplies sensation to the anterior lateral thigh?
    L2 - L3
  566. What segmental level supplies motor function to the anterolateral leg?
    L5 - S1
  567. Which dermatome supplies the umbilicus?
    T10
  568. What is another name for CN I?
    Olfactory Nerve
  569. What is another name for CN II?
    Optic Nerve
  570. What is another name for CN III?
    Oculomotor Nerve
  571. What is another name for CN IV?
    Trochlear Nerve
  572. What is another name for CN V?
    Trigeminal Nerve
  573. What is another name for CN VI?
    Abducent Nerve
  574. What is another name for CN VII?
    Facial Nerve
  575. What is another name for CN VIII?
    Vestibulocochlear Nerve
  576. What is another name for CN IX?
    Glossopharyngeal Nerve
  577. What is another name for CN X?
    Vagus Nerve
  578. What is another name for CN XI?
    Accessory Nerve
  579. What is another name for CN XII?
    Hypoglossal Nerve
  580. The External Iliac Artery is a branch of which of the following?
    Common Iliac Artery
  581. The Femoral Artery is a branch of which of the following?
    External Iliac Artery
  582. The Popliteal Artery is a branch of which of the following?
    Femoral Artery
  583. The Anterior Tibial Artery is a branch of which of the following?
    Popliteal Artery
  584. The Dorsalis Pedis Artery is a branch of which of the following?
    Anterior Tibial Artery
  585. The Arcuate Artery is a branch of which of the following?
    Dorsalis Pedis Artery
  586. The Posterior Tibial Artery is a branch of which of the following?
    Popliteal Artery
  587. The Peroneal Artery is a branch of which of the following?
    Posterior Tibial Artery
  588. The Medial & Lateral Plantar Arteries are branches of which of the following?
    Peroneal Artery
  589. Which artery supplies the deep palmar arch within the wrist?
    Radial & Ulnar Arteries
  590. Which artery supplies blood to the majority of the hand?
    Ulnar Artery
  591. Which of the following arteries supplies the ascending colon?
    Right Colic Artery
  592. Jejunal arteries are branches of which of the following?
    Superior Mesenteric Artery
  593. Which of the following is a branch of the external iliac artery?
    Hypogastric Artery
  594. The superior mesenteric artery supplies what?
    Ascending Colon
  595. The anterior interventricular artery is a branch of the ___________.
    Left Coronary Artery
  596. In which structure does the radial artery terminate?
    Deep Palmar Arch
  597. The superior mesenteric artery supplies what?
    Jejunum
  598. Arterial blood supply to the urinary bladder is derived from what?
    Internal Iliac Artery
  599. The peroneal artery is located in the __________ compartment of the leg.
    Posterior
  600. The common hepatic artery is a branch of the ___________.
    Celiac Trunk
  601. The submental artery is a branch of the ___________.
    Facial Artery
  602. The right common carotid artery is a branch of the ___________________.
    Brachiocephalic Trunk
  603. The superior & inferior branches of which of the following provide arterial supply to the urinary bladder?
    Internal Iliac Artery
  604. The peroneal artery is located in which compartment of the leg?
    Posterior
  605. The anterior interventricular artery is a branch of the __________.
    Left Coronary Artery
  606. What artery can be palpated posterior to the medial malleolus?
    Posterior Tibial Artery
  607. What are the 3 branches of the left coronary artery?
    • Anterior Interventricular
    • Circumflex
    • Muscular
  608. What are the 3 branches of the right coronary artery?
    • Marginal
    • Muscular
    • Posterior Interventricular
  609. What do the cephalic & basilic veins drain into?
    Brachial Vein
  610. What does the brachial vein drain into?
    Axillary Vein
  611. What does the axillary vein drain into?
    Subclavian Vein
  612. What does the subclavian vein drain into?
    Brachiocephalic Trunk
  613. The middle thyroid vein is a tributary of the ________________.
    Internal Jugular Vein
  614. What does the thoracic duct drain into?
    Left Subclavian Vein
  615. What forms the portal vein?
    Superior Mesenteric & Splenic Veins
  616. Which vein is most superficial in the leg?
    Lesser Saphenous
  617. What vein closely follows the medial antebrachial cutaneous vein?
    Basilic Vein
  618. Which vessels have a thin tunica media, a thick tunica adventia & valves in the lumen?
    Veins
  619. Which of the following is the most superficial vein?
    • A. Sural
    • B. Lesser Saphenous
    • C. Popliteal
    • D. Femoral
  620. On which location of the leg is the great saphenous vein located?
    Superficial Medial
  621. What structure directly drains the liver sinusoid?
    Central Vein
  622. How many coronary veins are there?
    7
  623. The trachea is posterior to which vein in the thorax?
    Brachiocephalic Vein
  624. The confluence of sinuses is located @ which level?
    EOP
  625. The external iliac vein drains into what?
    Common Iliac Vein
  626. Blood enters the liver from the intestine via which of the following?
    Hepatic Portal Vein
  627. Blood enters the circulation from the liver via which of the following?
    Hepatic Vein
  628. Which of the following veins is a tributary of the left common iliac vein?
    Iliolumbar Vein
  629. Which vessel supplies oxygenated blood to the fetus?
    Umbilical Vein
  630. Which of the following are coronary veins?
    • Anterior Cardiac
    • Great Cardiac
    • Middle Cardiac
    • Small Cardiac
    • Marginal
    • Oblique
    • Coronary Sinus
  631. Which of the following do most of the coronary veins drain into?
    Coronary Sinus
  632. The coronary sinus drains into which chamber of the heart?
    Right Atrium
  633. The left atrium contains which of the following structures?
    Opening into the Pulmonary Vein
  634. What is the name of the venous plexus located in the spermatic cord?
    Pampiniform Plexus
  635. What does the coronary sinus drain?
    Right Atrium
  636. What are 8-12 conical projections in the renal medulla called?
    Pyramids
  637. What is the apex of a Renal Pyramid called?
    Papilla
  638. Which structure does the Papilla drain into?
    Minor Calix
  639. Which structure does the Minor Calix drain into?
    Major Calix
  640. Which structure does the Major Calix drain into?
    Renal Pelvis
  641. Which structure does the Renal Pelvis drain into?
    Renal Sinus
  642. Which structure does the Renal Sinus drain into?
    Ureter
  643. The Ureter runs anterior to which of the following?
    Psoas Major
  644. The Ureter lies anterior to the _________ muscle.
    Psoas
  645. Which of the following is part of the nephron?
    Loop of Henle
  646. Which of the following structures directly adheres to the kidney?
    Renal Capsule
  647. What is the anterior portion of the left kidney in direct contact with?
    Spleen
  648. The horizontal fissure of the lung is located at which vertebral level?
    T6
  649. The horizontal fissure separates which lobes of the lung?
    Right Superior & Right Middle
  650. Which lung is the horizontal fissure located in?
    Right
  651. How many lobes are there in the right lung?
    3
  652. Which lung has an oblique fissure?
    Both the Right & Left
  653. What does the oblique fissure in the left separate?
    Upper Lobe from the Lower Lobe
  654. How many lobes are in the left lung?
    2
  655. Which cell produces surfactant in the lungs?
    Type II Pneumocytes
  656. What is the name of the pleura that attaches to the lung?
    Visceral
  657. The oblique fissure in the left lung divides it into which 2 lobes?
    Superior & Inferior
  658. Which of the following are the layers of the lung in order?
    • Thoracic Wall
    • Parietal Pleura
    • Pleural Cavity
    • Visceral Pleura
    • Lung
  659. Which side of the tracheal bifurcation is longer & narrower?
    Left
  660. Which side of the tracheal bifurcation is shorter & broader?
    Right
  661. Upon inspiration where does the air go after leaving the trachea?
    Primary Secondary Tertiary Bronchus
  662. Upon inspiration where does the air go after leaving the Bronchi?
    Bronchioles Respiratory Bronchioles
  663. Upon inspiration where does the air go after leaving the Respiratory Bronchioles?
    Alveolar Duct Alveolar Sac Alveolus
  664. All of the following structures are derived from Neural Crest Cells:
    MMMAD BASS
  665. Mengies
    • Melanocytes
    • Meissners Plexus
    • Auerbachs Plexus
    • Dorsal Root Ganglion
    • Brachial Arches
    • Adrenal Medulla
    • Schwan Cells
    • Sympathetics
  666. Urine Flow
    Papilla (apex of pyramid) Minor Calix major Calix Renal Pelvis Renal Sinus Ureter
  667. RUM
    • Radial Nerve Extensors
    • Ulnar Nerve Adductors
    • Median Nerve Flexors & Abductors
  668. Rotator Cuff Muscles – (SITS)
    • Subscapularis
    • Infraspinatus
    • Teres Minor
    • Supraspinatus

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