Spinal Anatomy.txt

Card Set Information

Author:
ecav
ID:
26522
Filename:
Spinal Anatomy.txt
Updated:
2010-07-12 20:38:27
Tags:
Spinal Anatomy
Folders:

Description:
Spinal Anatomy
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user ecav on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. Which of the following tracts are motor?
    • Lateral Corticospinal
    • Ventral Corticospinal
    • Olivospinal
    • Reticulospinal
    • Rubrospinal
    • Tectospinal
    • Vestibulospinal
  2. Which of the following tracts are sensory?
    • Posterior Columns
    • Dorsal Spinocerebellar
    • Ventral Spinocerebellar
    • Dorsal Spinocerebellar
    • Lateral Spinothalamic
  3. The extrinsic muscles of the eye are derived from which of the following?
    Occipital Somites
  4. Which type of articulation is located between vertebral arches?
    Symphysis
  5. The cell bodies of the gustatory fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue are located in which ganglion?
    Geniculate
  6. Which suboccipital muscle rotates the atlas on the axis?
    Obliques Capitus Inferior
  7. The TVP forms the attachment for which of the following muscles?
    Levator Scapulae
  8. Which of the following motor tracts is responsible for voluntary movement?
    Lateral Corticospinal
  9. Which of the following motor tracts is responsible for voluntary movement to distal extremities?
    Ventral Corticospinal
  10. Which of the following motor tracts mediate equilibrium?
    Olivospinal
  11. Which of the following motor tracts controls posterior musculature above T6 & anterior musculature below T6?
    Reticulospinal
  12. Which of the following motor tracts is responsible for the flexors of the proximal upper limbs?
    Rubrospinal
  13. Which of the following motor tracts controls the reflex from vision & hearing that turns the head?
    Tectospinal
  14. Which of the following motor tracts controls medial extensor muscles of the back?
    Vestibulospinal
  15. The pelvic diaphragm is primarily made up of what muscle?
    Levator Ani
  16. The ocular motor nerve does not innervate which of the following muscles of the eye?
    Superior Oblique
  17. A typical thoracic vertebra has how many zygopophyseal joints?
    4
  18. Which of the following are the posterior columns responsible for?
    • Conscious Proprioception
    • Position Sense
    • Two Point Discrimination
    • Vibration
  19. Which of the following sensory tracts is responsible for touch & pressure?
    Ventral Spinothalamic
  20. Which of the following sensory tracts is responsible for pain & temperature?
    Lateral Spinothalamic
  21. Which of the following sensory tracts is responsible for unconscious proprioception of the upper extremities?
    Dorsal Spinocerebellar
  22. Which vertebral structure forms the superior & inferior borders of the IVF?
    Pedicle
  23. Vertebral formation is a result of which of the following?
    Endochondral Os
  24. Which receptors are not sensory to the epidermis?
    Merkel’s Endings = Deep Touch
  25. The glabella is part of which of the following bones?
    Frontal
  26. The feature that is unique to the cervical spine is what?
    Transverse Foramina
  27. Which of the following cells of the retina form axons of the optic nerve?
    Ganglion Cells
  28. The visual pathway does not include which of the following?
    Medial Geniculate Body
  29. Flexion of the hip is the primary action of which of the following muscles?
    Psoas
  30. The spinal nerve from L4-S3 forms which of the following nerves?
    Sciatic
  31. What structure is located between the articulating surfaces of the TMJ?
    Articular Disc
  32. The carotid canal goes through which bone?
    Temporal
  33. Fast conducting axons are made of ________ fibers with a _______diameter.
    Myelinated, Large
  34. Which of the following ligaments has attachments to the disc?
    PLL
  35. The embryological development of the extensor muscles is derived from which of the following?
    Epimeric Mesoderm
  36. Due to the positioning of the ligaments a disc herniation will go?
    Posteroloateral
  37. What is the name of the ligament that connects the external occipital protuberance with the spinous process of C7?
    Nuchal Ligament
  38. Which ligament separates the greater sciatic foramen from the lesser sciatic foramen?
    Sacrospinous
  39. The coupling action of lateral flexion with _____________ is due to the orientation of mid-cervical articular facets?
    Contralateral Rotation
  40. Which of the following attaches to the coronoid process of the mandible?
    Temporalis Muscle
  41. Which structure lies between the temporal & sphenoid bones?
    Foramen Lacerum
  42. Which of the following are stimulated by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
    Adrenal Medulla
  43. Rods & cones of the retina synapse @ which of the following cells?
    Bipolar
  44. The dorsal funiculus supplies which of the following structures?
    Fasciculus Gracilis
  45. The medullary pyramids contain which fibers?
    Corticospinal
  46. Which portion of the lumbar vertebra is between the superior & inferior articular process?
    Pars Interarticularis
  47. Which of the following peduncles connects the pons to the hindbrain?
    Middle Cerebellar
  48. Which of the following nerves supplies the SCM?
    Spinal Accessory (CN XI)
  49. Which of the following is derived from dura mater?
    Sclera
  50. Which of the following comprise the white rami communicantes?
    Preganglionic Sympathetics
  51. Which of the following supplies stimulation to the zygopophyseal joints?
    Dorsal Rami
  52. Which of the following cranial nerves supply muscles derived from the 1st pharyngeal arch?
    Trigeminal (CN V)
  53. The carotid tubercle is located on which vertebra?
    C6
  54. Which of the following is an auditory receptor?
    Organ of Corti
  55. The cerebellum & pons are part of which primitive structure?
    Rhombencephalon
  56. Which of the following types of glial cells form myelin around the axons of the central nervous system?
    Oligodendrocytes
  57. Which of the following bones undergoes intramembranous ossification?
    Parietal
  58. The final synapse for the somesthetic sensory neurons is located in the ___________.
    Thalamus
  59. The dorsal root ganglion, autonomic ganglion, & schwan cells are derived from which of the following embryonic structures?
    Neural Crest
  60. The dorsal lateral fasciculus does not transmit sensation of _______.
    Pain
  61. The limbic system is not responsible for which of the following?
    Initiation of Muscle Contraction
  62. The long thoracic nerve innervates which of the following muscles?
    Serratus Anterior
  63. On which part of the rib is the costal groove located?
    Shaft
  64. Which of the following is the pathway for conscious proprioception in the brainstem?
    Medial Lemniscus
  65. The gray mater of the spinal cord primarily consists of ___________.
    Nerve Cell Bodies
  66. Which muscle attaches to the articular processes of C3 through C6?
    Semispinalis Muscle
  67. The anterior superior aspect of the vertebral body of S1 is the sacral _________.
    Promontory
  68. Which of the following structures is found in the cistern of the lumbar region of the spine?
    Cauda Equina
  69. Which of the following structures does not attach the axis to the occipital bone?
    Denticulate ligament
  70. The spinothalamic & medial lemniscal tracts send neurons through the thalamus to which of the following gyri?
    Post Central
  71. The superior cerebral vein drains into which of the following?
    Superior Sagittal Sinus
  72. At the level of the T4 & T5 vertebra, which structure is located anteriorly on the sternum?
    Angle of Louis
  73. Which of the following muscles is supplied by the facial nerve?
    Posterior Digastric
  74. The dorsal funiculus supplies which of the following structures?
    Fascicules Gracilis
  75. The medullary pyramids contain which fibers?
    Corticospinal
  76. Which of the following structures is a continuation of the ligamentum nuchae?
    Supraspinous Ligament
  77. Axons in the olfactory tract originate from ___________ cells.
    Mitral
  78. Which of the following contains the inferior orbital fissure?
    Sphenoid Bone
  79. Which of the following is transmitted through the foramen ovale?
    Mandibular Nerve
  80. The crista ampularis is a feature of which of the following?
    Semicochlear Duct
  81. Cerebrospinal fluid is normally contained within the _________space.
    Subarachnoid
  82. What is the orientation of the inferior articular facets in the lumbars?
    Anterior & Lateral
  83. Which of the following cranial nerves originates from the 2nd pharyngeal arch?
    Facial (CN VII)
  84. Which of the following cranial nerves goes through the cribiform plate?
    Olfactory (CN I)
  85. The gray rami communicantes contain which of the following fibers?
    Postganglionic Sympathetics
  86. The most common direction for a disc to herniate is ___________.
    Posterolateral
  87. The internal jugular vein drains which of the following?
    Sigmoid Sinus
  88. At which level of the spinal cord is the conus medularis found?
    L1-L2
  89. Which cell will extend from the premotor cortex all the way down the spinal cord?
    Pyramidal Cells
  90. The trigeminal nerve travels through the cerebrospinal fluid via which cistern?
    Pontine
  91. Which of the following vertebra have a pair of full costal facets & 1 pair of demi facets?
    T1
  92. Which of the following arteries supply the pons?
    Basilar Artery
  93. The superior continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament is the __________________?
    Tectorial Membrane
  94. A posterior ponticle results from calcification of which of the following ligaments?
    Posterior Atlanto-Occipital
  95. Which of the following cervical vertebra does not have a bifid spinous process?
    C7
  96. Which ligament attaches the TVP of L5 to the iliac crest?
    Superior band of the Iliolumbar Ligament
  97. Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the superior oblique muscles of the eye?
    Trochlear (CN IV)
  98. Which of the following supplies cutaneous innervation to the low back?
    Posterior Primary Rami
  99. Which of the following is excitatory to the pars compacta of the substantia nigra?
    Glutamate
  100. At the tip of the lateral aspect of the dens there are 2 small grooves for the attachment of which of the following?
    Alar Ligament
  101. The clivus is composed of the sphenoid bone & the _________.
    Occipital Bone
  102. The splenius capitis muscle inserts into which of the following?
    Mastoid Process
  103. What is the function of the emissary vein?
    Connects the Inracranial Venous Sinuses with the outside Cranium
  104. There is no intervertebral disc in which of the following locations?
    C1-C2
  105. The uncus & amygdyloid receive fibers from the ____________.
    Olfactory Bulb
  106. The joint between the occiput & C1 is which type?
    Condylar
  107. Which of the following cranial nerves innervate the medial pterygoid muscle?
    Trigeminal (CN V)
  108. Which of the following segmental levels comprises the phrenic nerve?
    C3, C4, C5
  109. The vertebral arteries enter the skull through which foramen?
    Foramen Magnum
  110. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve synape @ the ___________ ganglion.
    Ciliary
  111. What is the location of the vertebral venous plexus?
    Epidural Space
  112. Which of the following ligaments is broadest in the cervical region?
    Posterior Longitudinal Ligament
  113. Innervation of the deltoid muscle is derived from which of the following spinal areas?
    C5-C6
  114. Microglial cells are derived from which of the following?
    Mesenchymal Cells
  115. The 2nd spinal nerve exits between ______ & ______.
    C1, C2
  116. Tic doulourtex is associated with what?
    Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)
  117. Primary innervation to the rhomboids is from which vertebral level?
    C5
  118. The inguinal ligament lies inferior to which of the following?
    External Oblique Muscles
  119. What is the structure located between the spinous process & the TVP?
    Lamina
  120. What type of joint is a costovertebral joint?
    Synovial
  121. Joints with hyaline cartilage are known as what type(s)?
    Synchondrosis & Diarthrodial
  122. What is the most common displacement of the nucleus pulposes?
    Posteriolateral
  123. The middle meningeal artery passes through ___________.
    Foramen Spinosum
  124. Which of the following muscles does not attach to the first rib?
    Scalenes Posterior
  125. The inion is a landmark of what bone?
    Occipital Bone
  126. Where is the anterior clinoid process located?
    Lesser Wing of the Sphenoid
  127. The axial skeleton is derived from ___________.
    Somatic Sclerotome
  128. Pars Interarticularis is located where?
    Between Superior & Inferior Articular Processes
  129. Which of the following has a bifid spinous process?
    C4
  130. Thoracic vertebras have how many synovial articulations?
    10
  131. Name the rib that connects thoracic vertebra and has a full set of articular facets?
    10th Rib
  132. The intermedial sacral crest is formed by fusion of the ___________.
    Articular Processes
  133. Accessory processes of lumbar vertebra arise from the junction of ________ & _______.
    TVP’s & Pedicles
  134. The posterior portion of the IVF is formed by __________________.
    Articular Processes
  135. Borders of the vertebral canal include which of the following?
    PLL & Flava Ligaments
  136. Which of the following maintain the normal spatial relationship between the odontoid process & the atlas?
    Cruciform Ligament
  137. Uncinate processes are located on which of the following?
    Cervical Vertebra
  138. Which of the following attaches to the scapula?
    Pectoralis Minor
  139. Which of the following muscles is deepest in the abdominal wall?
    Transverse Abdominus
  140. Which of the following is located @ the inferior border of the external oblique muscle?
    Inguinal Ligament
  141. Which of the following is not part of the pelvic diaphragm?
    Piriformis Muscle
  142. Which of the following is not part of the formation of the central tendon of perinues?
    Ischial Canvernosus Muscle
  143. Which of the following is supplied by the trochlear nerve (CN IV)?
    Superior Oblique Muscle
  144. Which of the following is not innervated by the facial nerve (CN VII)?
    Masseter
  145. Which of the following is the most superficial muscle of the neck?
    Splenius Capitis Muscle
  146. Which of the following innervates psoas major?
    L1-L3
  147. Which of the following muscles protrude the tongue?
    Genioglossus
  148. Which of the following attaches to the anterior portion of the TVP’s?
    Quadratus Lumborum
  149. Which of the following is attached to a midline process?
    Multifidus Muscle
  150. Where is the Medial Lemniscus located?
    Medulla
  151. What is the function of the posterior obliques capitis muscle?
    Attaches C1 to the Occiput
  152. What innervates levator scapulae?
    Posterior Primary Rami
  153. Pressure in the IVD occurs during ___________.
    Compression
  154. What is the range of motion most restricted in the thoracics?
    Extension
  155. Articular facet orientation in the lumbars is most restricted in ___________.
    Rotation
  156. What type of joints are zygopophyseal joints?
    Diarthrodial Joints
  157. What type of joint is the sternoclavicular?
    Diarthrodial
  158. Articulations of the sphenoid bone with other bones form what?
    Fibrous Joints
  159. What does the posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL), attach to?
    Vertebral Bodies
  160. What attaches the dens to the anterior part of the foramen magnum?
    Apical Ligament
  161. Which of the following attaches to the lamina of adjacent vertebra?
    Ligamentum Flava
  162. Articular facets of the lumbar spine are angled @ _____ to the transverse plane.
    90
  163. Where do the Posterior Columns & the Spinothalamic Tracts merge?
    @ The Medial Lemniscus
  164. Name the temporomandibular joint ligament that attaches to the lingula of the mandible?
    Sphenomandibular Ligament
  165. The sacrotuberous ligament is continuous with the ________________________.
    Dorsal Sacroiliac Ligament
  166. Where is the carotid tubercle located?
    C6 TVP
  167. Branches of the _______________ supply the anterior fasciculus.
    Anterior Spinal Artery
  168. What does the interventricular foramen of Monroe connect?
    3rd & 4th Ventricles
  169. Which of the following produces cerebrospinal fluid?
    Choroid Plexus
  170. The choroid plexus is composed of vascularized ____________.
    Ependymal Cells
  171. The most important synapse in the CNS is ____________.
    Axodendritic
  172. Maintaining consciousness & awareness is a function of the ________________.
    Reticular Formation
  173. Spinothalamic tracts are all found where?
    In the same area of the Spinal Cord
  174. Facets in the thoracic spine are directed ______________.
    Coronally
  175. Which of the following are separated by the coronal suture?
    Parietal & Frontal Bones
  176. What passes through foramen rotundum?
    Maxillary Nerve
  177. Foramen Spinosum contains the __________________.
    Middle Meningeal Artery
  178. Obstruction of the foramen of Monroe would produce a pressure build up where?
    Lateral Ventricles
  179. Where do pyramidal tracts decussate?
    Medulla
  180. Name all of the cranial nerves that are parasympathetic?
    CN III, VII, IX, X
  181. What part of the vertebra bears the greatest amount of weight?
    Body
  182. The optic nerve (CN II), exits the cranial vault via the ____________.
    Optic Canal
  183. Which of the following fibers direct pain?
    Free Nerve Endings
  184. What splanchnic nerve is derived from spinal nervesT10-T11?
    Lesser Splanchnic Nerve
  185. Globus pallidus will transmit information to the ___________.
    Cortex
  186. Cerebro, ponto & cerebellar tracts are involved in the ____________.
    Coordination of Movements
  187. The tectospinal tract is responsible for ______________.
    Rotation of the Cervical Spine
  188. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) innervates the ________________.
    Levator Palpebrae Superioris
  189. The 4th ventricle is continuous with the _________________.
    Subarachnoid Space
  190. The Nuchal ligament is a continuation of the _____________.
    Supraspinous Ligament
  191. Which part of the vertebra contains the groove for the vertebral artery?
    Posterior Arch
  192. At which vertebral level does the vertebral artery enter the spine?
    C6
  193. The posterior chamber of the eye is located between the _____ & _____?
    Iris & Lens
  194. What cervical nerve root innervates the base of the skull to the vertex of the skull?
    C1-C2
  195. Which bone contains Perilymph?
    Petrous part of the Temporal Bone
  196. The posterior groove on the odontoid process is for what ligament?
    Transverse
  197. Destruction of the posterior columns results in loss of __________.
    Vibration Sense
  198. What is a remnant of the notochord?
    Nucleus Pulposis
  199. The spinal cord is widest at which of the following?
    • A. C1
    • B. C6
    • C. T12
    • D. L3
  200. Normal orientation of the thoracic TVP’s is _______________.
    45 Posteriolateral
  201. Auditory fibers are contained in the _____________________.
    Lateral Lemniscus
  202. What is an example of a fibrocartilage joint?
    Symphysis
  203. Apophyseal joints use which structures for articulation?
    Articular Processes
  204. The superior petrosal vein drains into the ______________.
    Sigmoid Sinus
  205. The climbing fibers in the cerebellum originate in the ____________.
    Olivary Nucleus
  206. Somatic visceral primary neurons are derived from ______________.
    Neural Crest Cells
  207. Inability to move the jaw laterally would indicate damage to the ______________.
    Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)
  208. Which of the following muscles is derived from the 3rd brachial arch?
    Stylopharyngeus
  209. Which of the following is confluent with the central canal of the spinal cord?
    4th Ventricle
  210. Which of the following areas has no rods or cones?
    • A. Fovea
    • B. Macula
    • C. Periphery of the Retina
    • D. Optic Disc
  211. What are the 2 functions of the ear?
    Hearing & Balance
  212. Physiological extension of the lumbar spine ________ the IVF’s & __________ the spinal canal.
    Shortens, Shortens
  213. Which of the following is responsible for initiation of spoken language?
    Inferior Frontal Area (Brain)
  214. The clivus is on the ____________.
    Sphenoid Bone
  215. Internal arcuate fibers are part of the __________________.
    Corticospinal Tract
  216. Which of the following decussates in the anterior white commissure?
    Spinothalamic Tract
  217. Which of the following is responsible for detection of angular motion?
    Cristae Ampularis
  218. The multifidus is most pronounced in the __________ area.
    Lumbar
  219. Which of the following is located in the posterior chamber of the eye?
    Vitreous Humor
  220. Which of the following is located on the cribiform plate?
    Olfactory Nerve (CN I)
  221. The sacral plexus lies anterior to the ______________.
    Piriformis Muscle
  222. Which of the following is a branch from the posterior cord of segments C5-C6?
    Axillary Nerve
  223. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is derived from which of the following vertebral levels?
    L2-L3
  224. The cingulate gyrus is part of the ___________.
    Limbic System
  225. The sympathetic nervous system is found from T1 to L2 & originates from the ______________________.
    Intermediolateral Cell Column
  226. The nucleus pulposis is a remnant of the __________.
    Notochord
  227. The epineurium is a continuation of the ____________.
    Dura Mater
  228. The anterior spinal artery is a branch of the _____________.
    Vertebral Artery
  229. What are the sacral splanchnic nerves considered to be?
    Preganglionic Sympathetics
  230. Name the nuclei responsible for pain?
    Substantia Gelatinosa
  231. What is the termination point for the spinothalamic tract?
    Ventral Posteriolateral Nucleus of the Thalamus
  232. Parts of a typical vertebra that correspond to the intermediate sacral crest are the _______________.
    Articular Pillars
  233. Parts of a typical vertebra that correspond to the median sacral crest are ________________.
    Spinous Processes
  234. Imbrication (facet jamming) is most commonly seen @ what vertebral level?
    T5-T8
  235. Which of the following passes through foramen spinosum?
    Middle Meningeal Artery
  236. Which of the following connects to the tympanic membrane?
    Malleus
  237. Which of the following supply the lateral cerebrum & the temporal lobe of the brain?
    Middle Cerebral Artery
  238. A branch of the _____________ supplies the anterior spinal cord.
    Vertebral Artery
  239. The anterior horn of the lateral ventricles comes into contact with the __________________________.
    Head of the Caudate Nucleus
  240. A lesion on which of the following nerves causes Bell’s palsy?
    Facial (CN VII)
  241. Medial deviation of the eye results from damage to which of the following muscles?
    Lateral Rectus
  242. Which of the following develops from the metencephalon?
    Cerebellum & Pons
  243. Which of the following are considered transducers of the ears?
    Hair Cells
  244. Which of the following innervates the scalenus anterior muscle?
    Ventral Primary Rami
  245. The muscles of mastication are derived from ______________.
    Somatic Mesoderm
  246. What type of joint is the temporomandibular joint?
    Synovial
  247. The radiating, expanding processes that connect capillaries or neurons are called ______________.
    Astrocytes
  248. Which of the following is a branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?
    Musculocutaneous Nerve
  249. The optic nerve (CN II), synapses on which of the following?
    Lateral Geniculate Body
  250. Which of the following supplies the lateral temporal lobe of the brain?
    Middle Cerebral Artery
  251. Dentate ligaments attach to the ___________.
    Dura Mater
  252. Which of the following are projections of pia mater?
    Dentate Ligaments
  253. The atlas-axis articulation is considered to be a _____________.
    Pivot Joint
  254. Flexion & extension of the atlas in relation to the occiput occurs in the ____________.
    Sagittal Plane
  255. Lateral flexion of the atlas in relation to the occiput occurs in the ____________.
    Coronal Plane
  256. Which of the following runs along the atlas TVP?
    Suboccipital Nerve
  257. Which of the following does the posterior primary rami of the spinal nerve supply?
    • Semispinalis
    • Splenius Capitis
    • Splenius Cervicis
  258. Which of the following does the anterior primary rami of the spinal nerve supply?
    Levator Scapulae
  259. Damage to which of the following nerves would result in loss of the ability to plantar flex the foot?
    Tibial Nerve
  260. Which of the following ligaments hold the dens in place?
    Transverse Ligament
  261. Which of the following is part of the cervical plexus?
    • Ansa Cervicalis
    • Lesser Occipital
    • Phrenic
  262. What is the orientation of the superior facets in the lumbar spine?
    Sagittal
  263. What is the orientation of the inferior facets in the lumbar spine?
    Sagittal (also)
  264. The pelvic diaphragm is primarily made up of ____________.
    Levator Ani
  265. Which of the following are responsible for detecting insignificant vibration?
    Pacinian Corpuscles
  266. Which of the following supply innervation to the taste buds of the epiglottis?
    Vagus (CN X)
  267. The IVF’s are located inferior to the ___________.
    Pedicles
  268. The spinocerebellar tract carries __________________.
    Unconscious Proprioception
  269. The gracilis & cuneatus tracts carry _______________.
    Conscious Proprioception
  270. Which of the following is the final point of synapse for olfaction?
    Uncus of the Temporal Lobe
  271. Which of the following separates the occipital & parietal lobes?
    Lambdoidal Suture
  272. The IVD is considered which type of joint?
    Symphysis
  273. Which of the following lies in the epidural space?
    Venous Plexus
  274. The olfactory nerve (CN I), passes through which of the following bones?
    Ethmoid
  275. The scalene tubercle is located where?
    1st Rib
  276. The oral cavity of the esophagus is lined with _________________.
    Non-Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium
  277. Which spinal tract is for voluntary motor control?
    Corticospinal
  278. Which of the following represents the middle layer of the meninges?
    Arachnoid
  279. Transverse sinus crosses which 2 cranial bones?
    Occipital & Temporal
  280. Which of the following deep layers of back muscle is most medial?
    Spinalis
  281. Fusion of the __________ form spinous processes.
    Lamina
  282. Fibers of the ___________ project & synapse @ the uncus & hippocampus.
    Olfactory Bulb
  283. Which of the following cells synapse deep within the cerebellum?
    Purkinje
  284. What are type C fibers responsible for?
    Nociception
  285. The articular facets of the 3rd rib articulate superiorly with ________.
    T2
  286. The adult spine is derived from which of the following embryonic spinal cord structures?
    Gray Mater
  287. The mamillary processes are on which part of the lumbar vertebra?
    Superior Articular Facets
  288. The S1 facets face in which direction?
    Dorsomedial
  289. Which of the following vertebra have the smallest TVP?
    T12
  290. When the mouth opens wide the TMJ disc moves ____________.
    Anterior
  291. Which of the following ligaments prevent lateral flexion of the spine?
    Intertransverse
  292. The femoral nerve innervates which of the following?
    Vastas Lateralis
  293. Which of the following is a continuation of the dorsal primary root of C2?
    C1
  294. Which of the following spinal levels innervate the thumb?
    C6
  295. Which of the following is the dermatome of the umbilicus?
    T10
  296. The nerves of olfaction synapse on which of the following nuclei?
    Mitral Nucleus
  297. Which of the following transmits information into the uncus?
    Olfactory Bulb
  298. Which of the following is not a cerebellar function?
    Initiation of Voluntary Movement
  299. The lumbar plexus forms in which structure?
    Psoas Major
  300. Which of the following are formed from occipital myotomes?
    Muscles of the Tongue
  301. What are the spinal pyramids a part of?
    Medulla Oblongata
  302. What does the cerebellum arise from?
    Rhombencephalon
  303. Which of the following cells produces CSF?
    Ependymal Cells
  304. Which of the following drains the aqueous humor of the eye?
    Canal of Schlem
  305. Which of the following provides sensation to the nape of the neck?
    Lesser Occipital Nerve
  306. The hypothalamus is derived from the _____________.
    Diencephalon
  307. Which of the following is the end of the spinal cord?
    Conus Medularis
  308. The anterior parahippocampal gyrus supplies the _________.
    Uncus
  309. Which of the following ligaments attach the head of a rib to the vertebra?
    Radiate
  310. The lateral spinothalamic tract decussates where?
    Anterior White Commissure
  311. Where is the sella tursica found?
    Sphenoid Bone
  312. Which of the following is a macrophage of the CNS?
    Oligodendrocytes
  313. Geniculate bodies are located in the ___________.
    Thalamus
  314. The posterior 1/3 of the tongue tastes which flavor?
    Bitter
  315. S2 –S4 are considered to be ______________.
    Preganglionic Parasympathetic
  316. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) innervates which of the following muscles?
    Levator Palpebrae Superioris
  317. The posterior inferior serratus is innervated by the ________________________.
    Lower 4 Intercostal Nerves
  318. The IVD is composed of which type of cartilage?
    Fibrocartilage
  319. The median sacral crest is formed by remnants of the ____________.
    Spinous Processes
  320. The stapes is derived from which embryological structure?
    2nd Brachial Arch
  321. Endolymph flows through the ________________.
    Temporal Bone
  322. The transitional vertebra from the cervicals to the thoracics is ____.
    C7
  323. Damage to the pons will affect which of the following cranial nerves?
    Trigeminal (CN V)
  324. Striae of the cochlea produce ___________.
    Perilymph
  325. Which of the following cranial nerves provides sensory innervation to the paranasal sinus?
    Trigeminal (CN V)
  326. The superior gluteal nerve supplies which of the following?
    • Gluteus Medius
    • Gluteus Minimus
    • Tensor Fascia Lata
  327. What is the prominence on the superior facet of the lumbar vertebra?
    Mamillary Process
  328. The uncinate processes of C3-C7 are located where?
    Vertebral Bodies
  329. Which of the following cranial nerves innervate the buccinator muscle?
    Trigeminal (CN V)
  330. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V)?
    Mylohyoid
  331. The internal capsule separates the lenticulate nucleus from the ___________.
    Caudate Nucleus
  332. The articular processes between 2 thoracic vertebras make up what type of joint?
    Planar or Gliding
  333. Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the platysma?
    Facial (CN VII)
  334. Which of the following ligaments prevents forward displacement of the IVD?
    Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)
  335. Which of the following guides flexion & extension in the cervical spine?
    Uncinate Processes
  336. Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit or eye socket?
    Temporal Bone
  337. Which of the following muscles forms part of the anterolateral pelvic wall?
    Obturator Internis
  338. The middle trunk of the brachial plexus is @______.
    C7
  339. Which of the following vertebra has dual demi facets & dual costal facets?
    T4
  340. Which of the following is not on the temporal bone?
    Temporal Line
  341. Which of the following is a continuation of ligamentum nuchae?
    Supraspinous Ligament
  342. Where do climbing fibers of the cerebellum originate?
    Olivary Nucleus
  343. Where does the lacrimal gland drain?
    Inferior Meatus of the Nasal Fossa
  344. Where are the inferior & superior vertebral notches located?
    Pedicles
  345. Which of the following muscles depress the lower 4 ribs?
    Serratus Posterior Inferior
  346. The Intermediolateral cell column between T1 & L2 receives innervation from ___________.
    Sympathetic Nerves
  347. Where is the insertion point for splenius capitis?
    Mastoid Process
  348. Compression of the IVD is least during which spinal movement?
    Rotation
  349. Which of the following are synovial joints?
    • Costovertebral
    • Sternoclavicular
    • TMJ
  350. Which of the following separates 2 shallow grooves, which traverse the superior edge of the 1st rib?
    Scalene Tubercle
  351. Which of the following has paired full costal facets & paired demi facets?
    T1
  352. Which of the following innervates vastus lateralis?
    Femoral Nerve
  353. Somites are composed of which of the following?
    • Mesoderm
    • Myotome
    • Sclerotome
  354. Which of the following do sensory reflexes travel through?
    Gray Mater
  355. Fibrocartilage unites bone in the _________ & ___________.
    IVD & Symphysis
  356. Which of the following is a primary flexor of the lumbar spine?
    Rectus Abdominus
  357. Which of the following is a macrophage of the brain?
    Microglial Cell
  358. Which of the following is a sinus that drains directly into the internal jugular vein?
    Sigmoid Sinus
  359. Which of the following is most responsible for lateral flexion in the lumbar spine?
    T12-L1
  360. Which of the following is the embryological structure that the thymus is derived from?
    3rd Pharyngeal Arch
  361. Which of the following does not close the IVF?
    Flexion
  362. Where are hair cells of the ear located?
    Macula
  363. Where do 2nd order fibers for the sensation of facial pain come from?
    Trigeminothalamic Tract
  364. A unilateral hemorrhage of the anterior cerebral artery will cause a functional problem where.
    Contralateral Lower Extremity
  365. The sternal angle is @ the transverse plane of the _____________.
    4th Thoracic Disc
  366. How are superior articular facets of a typical lumbar vertebra oriented?
    Medially
  367. How are superior articular facets of a typical thoracic vertebra oriented?
    Coronal
  368. How are superior articular facets of a typical cervical vertebra oriented?
    Oblique
  369. Extensor musculature of the spine gets its nerve supply from where?
    Dorsal Primary Rami
  370. What does the sacrotuberous ligament restrict?
    Flexion
  371. Which of the following is the carotid tubercle a feature of?
    C6
  372. The vertebral artery passes through the ________________.
    Posterior Atlanto-Occipital Ligament
  373. Which is the most lateral erector spinae muscle?
    Iliocostalis
  374. Which of the following is part of the auditory tract?
    Trapezoid Body
  375. Which of the following forms part of the boundary of the vertebral canal?
    Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)
  376. Which of the following is responsible for loss of short-term memory due to emotion or trauma?
    Limbus
  377. Which of the following supply blood to the motor speech area of the brain (Broca’s Area)?
    Middle Cerebral Artery
  378. Paralysis of the abducent nerve (CN VI) would cause _________ deviation of the eye.
    Medial
  379. Paralysis of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) would cause _________ deviation of the eye.
    Downward
  380. The cribiform plate is located on the __________ bone.
    Ethmoid
  381. The __________________ innervates serratus anterior.
    Long Thoracic Nerve
  382. The muscles of mastication are derived from where?
    Mesoderm of the 1st Pharyngeal Arch
  383. Which of the following contain Type A motor nerve axons?
    Ventral Root
  384. The semicircular canal develops as an outgrowth of the _________.
    Utricle
  385. Which of the following cranial nerves has its origin in the medulla oblongata?
    Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)
  386. A lesion in the_________________ causes Parkinson’s.
    Substantia Nigra
  387. Which of the following are nerves from the conus medularis?
    Cauda Equina
  388. The center for voluntary control of eye movement is located where?
    Frontal Lobe of the Brain
  389. Which of the following makes up part of the hard palate?
    Maxilla
  390. The hyoid is attached via a ligament to the _________ portion of the temporal bone.
    Styloid
  391. The _________ does not articulate with the temporal bone.
    Maxilla
  392. Where are primary afferents located?
    Dorsal Nerve Root
  393. Where are primary efferents located?
    Ventral Nerve Root
  394. What does the femoral nerve supply?
    Quadriceps
  395. Where does the femoral nerve arise?
    Ventral Rami of L2-L4
  396. Which of the following is the attachment point for splenius capitis?
    Mastoid Process
  397. Where are sensory cell bodies of the spinal nerves found?
    Dorsal Root Ganglion
  398. If the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is damaged, which gland will lose its function?
    Parotid Gland
  399. Which of the following are efferent cerebellar nerve cells?
    Purkinje Cells
  400. Which of the following does the peroneal branch of the pudendal nerve innervate?
    Ischiocavernosus
  401. Which of the following is the embryological structure that the notochord is derived from?
    Mesoderm
  402. Which of the following ligaments restricts rotation of the atlas-axis joint?
    Alar Ligament
  403. Which of the following forms the border of the lesser sciatic foramen?
    Sacrotuberous Ligament
  404. Which of the following originates on the anterior aspect of the sacrum?
    Piriformis
  405. Which of the following are responsible for cerebrospinal fluid production in the brain?
    Ependymal Cells in the Lateral Ventricles
  406. Which of the following is a major source of blood to the primary visual cortex?
    Posterior Cerebral Artery
  407. Which of the following is a major source of blood to the brainstem?
    Basilar Artery
  408. Which of the following form the anterior division of the lumbar plexus?
    L1-L3
  409. Which of the following is a continuation of the supraspinous ligament?
    Ligamentum nuchae
  410. Where does the lumbar cistern end?
    S2
  411. Where is the medulla oblongata located?
    Myelencephalon
  412. Where is the pons located?
    Metencephalon
  413. Where is the cerebellum located?
    Metencephalon
  414. Where is the cortex located?
    Telencephalon
  415. Where is the midbrain located?
    Mesencephalon
  416. Where is the red nucleus located?
    Mesencephalon
  417. Which of the following nerves supplies the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
    Facial (CN VII)
  418. Which of the following cranial nerves supplies the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
    Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
  419. Which of the following cranial nerves originate from the midbrain?
    Oculomotor (CN III)
  420. The joints of Von Luschka are located @ which vertebral level(s)?
    C3-C7
  421. Which of the following is a continuation of the PLL?
    Membrane Tectoria
  422. Which of the following is a middle erector spinae muscle?
    Longissimus
  423. Which dermatome supplies the skin over the clavicle?
    C4
  424. Which of the following is unique to the cervical spine?
    Transverse Vertebral Foramen
  425. Which of the following cranial nerves is the geniculate ganglion involved with?
    Facial (CN VII)
  426. The submandibular ganglion supplies the submandibular gland via the ________________.
    Facial Nerve (CN VII)
  427. What is the principal motion(s) of the occiput on C1?
    Flexion & Extension
  428. Which of the following lies in the arcuate foramen?
    Suboccipital Artery & Nerve
  429. Which of the following attaches to the anterior tubercle of the atlas?
    Longus Coli Muscle
  430. Which of the following neurons are located in the cribiform plate?
    Bipolar
  431. The pyramidal cells of Betz are located in the ____________.
    Precentral Gyrus
  432. The dorsal funiculus includes which of the following structures?
    Fasciculus Gracilus
  433. Which of the following are stimulated by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
    Adrenal Medulla
  434. Which of the following nerves supplies the SCM?
    Spinal Accessory (CN XI)
  435. Inflammation of the parotid gland inhibits which of the following nerves?
    Facial (CN VII)
  436. Rods & cones of the retina synapse @ ___________ cells.
    Bipolar
  437. Failure of the pupil to constrict when stimulated by a bright light indicates loss of integrity in which of the following?
    Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
  438. __________ cells of the retina form axons of the optic nerve.
    Ganglion
  439. Flexion of the hip is the primary action of the ________ muscle.
    Psoas
  440. The extrinsic muscles of the eye are derived from which of the following?
    Occipital Somites
  441. Preoptic somites give rise to which of the following?
    Olfaction
  442. A typical thoracic vertebra has how many zygopophyseal joints?
    4
  443. A typical thoracic vertebra has how many synovial joints?
    10
  444. A typical thoracic vertebra has how many articulations?
    12
  445. Which of the following ribs articulates with the sternal notch?
    Rib #2 @ the level of T4
  446. Which of the following ligaments would sustain damage in hyperextension of the cervical spine?
    Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)
  447. Inflammation around the Pisiform bone may affect which of the following nerves?
    Ulnar
  448. Which of the following are germ layers?
    • Endoderm
    • Mesoderm
    • Ectoderm
  449. Which of the following arise from endoderm?
    • Epithelium of the Respiratory Tract
    • GI Tract
    • Gut
  450. Which of the following arise from mesoderm?
    • Adrenal Cortex
    • Cardiovascular System
    • Genitourinary Serous Membrane
    • Muscles of the Trunk
  451. Which of the following arise from ectoderm?
    • Adrenal Medulla
    • CNS
    • Epidermis
    • Hair
    • PNS
    • Anterior Pituitary
    • Retina
  452. Which of the following is a support cell in the blood brain barrier?
    Astrocytes
  453. Which of the following is a macrophage?
    Microglia
  454. Which of the following lines the ventricles & makes CSF?
    Ependymal Cells
  455. Which of the following makes myelin in the CNS?
    Oligodendrocytes
  456. Which of the following make myelin in the PNS?
    Schwann Cells
  457. How many lobes does the cerebellum have?
    3
  458. Which of the following is located in Lamina I?
    Incoming Dorsal Roots
  459. Which of the following is located in Lamina II?
    Substantia Gelatinosa
  460. Which of the following is located in Lamina III & IV?
    Nucleus Proprius
  461. Which of the following is located in Lamina IV?
    • Nucleus Proprius
    • Basal Spinal Nucleus
  462. Which of the following is located in Lamina V?
    Corticospinal Tract
  463. Which of the following is located in Lamina VI?
    Primary Sensory Neurons
  464. Which of the following is located in Lamina VII?
    Intermediolateral Cell Column – T1L2
  465. Which of the following is located in Lamina VIII?
    Descending Tracts
  466. Which of the following is located in Lamina IX?
    Large Motor Neurons
  467. Which of the following is located in Lamina X?
    Gray Commissure
  468. Name the 3 lobes of the cerebellum?
    • Flocculonodular Lobe
    • Anterior Lobe
    • Posterior Lobe
  469. What is the function of the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum?
    Equilibrium
  470. What is the function of the anterior & posterior lobes of the cerebellum?
    Coordination
  471. Which of the following is a relay station & contains sensory fibers?
    Thalamus
  472. Which of the following controls balance, equilibrium, & involuntary coordination?
    Cerebellum
  473. Which of the following are cerebellar nuclei?
    • Dentate
    • Emboliform
    • Fastigial
    • Globus (2)

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview