Mk1_pamphlet_review[1].txt

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Mk1_pamphlet_review[1].txt
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    • Which of the following directives prescribes polices and procedures for administering the coast guard paperwork management program?
    • A. Comdtinst 5210.5
    • B. Comdtinst m5212.12
    • C. Comdtinst m5215.6
    • D. Comdtinst m9000.1
    • B. Comdtinst m5212.12
  1. Which statement best describes the purpose of a directive?
    A. Provides contract info for every coast guard unit
    B. Provides a list of all the technical publications and drawings the unit is required to maintain
    C. A military communication in which policy is established or a specific action is ordered
    D. Provides info to group units by type
    C. A military communication in which policy is established or specific action is ordered
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. What chapter / section of the dpri listing identifies the order form to use to request updates, replacement, or new directives?
    A. Chapter 1, section c
    B. Chapter 2, section b
    C. Chapter 3, section a
    D. Chapter 4, section d
    A. Chapter 1, section c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Where should you log the official changes issued to a directive?
    A. Chapter 1, section c
    B. Distribution list
    C. Issuance page
    D. Record of changes page
    D. Record of changes page
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. What reporting interval for the cutter engineering report?
    A. After each drydock
    B. Every fiscal year ending 30sep
    C. Every calendar year ending 31 Dec
    D. Yearly, not to exceed 1 year between inspections
    C. Every calendar year ending 31 dec
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. What is the reporting interval for the underwater body paint report?
    A. Every calendar year ending 31 Dec
    B. Yearly, not to exceed 1 year between inspections
    C. Every fiscal year ending 30sep
    D. After each routine or emergency drydock
    D. After each routine or emergency drydock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Within how many days of an inspection are you required to submit the boat inspection report?
    A. 20
    B. 30
    C. 10
    D. 25
    C. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. The original drydocking and underwater body inspection work sheet is submitted to?
    A. Mlc via respective intermediate commands
    B. Mlc via elc
    C. Mlc via nesu
    D. Directly to Mlc
    C. Mlc via nesu
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Which report requires entries to ensure that the unit has maintained records for demps or performance test, bottom paint, pms completion, and boat records?
    A. Boat inspection report
    B. Cutter engineering report
    C. Drydocking and underwater body inspection work sheet
    D. Underwater body paint report
    A. Boat inspection report
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which report covers conducting inspections on safety items, hull, machinery/electrical, and administrative programs and recording pms completion percentages?
    A. Underwater body paint report
    B. Drydocking and underwater body inspection work sheet
    C. Boat inspection report
    D. Cutter engineering report
    D. Cutter engineering report
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. For whec, wmec, and wagb class vessels, which report is required to be maintained by both the operations and engineering departments?
    A. Tag-out log
    B. Current ships maintenance project
    C. Engineering change request
    D. Boat record
    A. Tag-out log
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. What does the coast guard use to administer the configuration management process?
    A. Shore station maintenance record
    B. Tag-out log
    C. Machinery history files
    D. Engineering change request
    D. Engineering change request
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which report contains data that is used to preserve the continuity of equipment?
    A. Engineering change request
    B. Tag-out
    C. Machinery history
    D. Boat record
    C. Machinery history
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which report is submitted by the unit to identify all maintenance work beyond the capability of the unit's assigned personnel?
    A. Cutter engineering report
    B. Boat record
    C. Engineering change request
    D. Current ship's maintenance project
    D. Current ship's maintenance project
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. How long are units required to retain copies of boat inspection reports?
    A. 1yr
    B. 2yrs
    C. 4yrs
    D. 3yrs
    D. 3yrs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. What type of equipment casualty is reported on the material casualty report?
    A. Significant
    B. Minor
    C. Inconsequential
    D. Insignificant
    A. Significant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. A casualty report (casrep) should be submitted for any equipment malfunction or deficiency that cannot be corrected within 48 hours and affects the unit's_____?
    A. Training capabilities
    B. Primary mission
    C. Primary and secondary missions
    D. Secondary mission
    C. Primary and secondary missions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which information set identifies the message type and message originator info on a casrep?
    A. Casualty set
    B. Msgid set
    C. Ref set
    D. Posit set
    B. Msgid set
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Pertinent identifying info about the casrep equipment item being reported on is found in the _____ info set?
    A. Ampn
    B. 1parts
    C. Casualty
    D. Partsid
    D. Partsid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Which number properly identifies the fourth initial casrep being forwarded by a unit in 2005?
    A. Initial-05004
    B. Initial-55004
    C. Initial-00504
    D. Initial-00405
    A. Initial-05004
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which type of information should be entered into the ssmp?
    A. Electronics projects (Afc-30/42)
    B. Storm or casualty damage sustained by structures, utilities, or equipment
    C. Maintenance service work (lawn maintenance, housing, custodial, weight testing, etc.) (Afc-30)
    D. Equipment less than 5,000 (Afc-30)
    B. Storm or casualty damage sustained by structures, utilities, or equipment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. What priority code should you use on an ssmr for shore station maintenance project that is to be accomplished as part of a normal back log?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 1
    D. 4
    B. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. The statement of work is used to measure _____ performance?
    A. Contractor
    B. Mlc
    C. Unit
    D. Shipyard
    A. Contractor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. For which of the following reasons would a change recommendation be made to an existing ssmr?
    A. Safety issues
    B. Having a complete set of drawings
    C. Too many personnel
    D. Insufficient time to complete project
    A. Safety issues
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Who determines what procedures are used to make a change to the ssmr?
    A. Nesu
    B. Unit
    C. Sectors/group sops
    D. Contractor
    C. Sectors/group sops
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. When maintaining a heat exchanger, you must adhere to which of the following safety procedures?
    A. Always wear rubber or plastic gloves, goggles or plastic face shield, rubber or plastic apron, and boots when using trisodium phosphate.
    B. Wipe the gasket areas dry on both sides of the plate and check to make sure that there is no debris in the gasket area
    C. Clean the plates with a fiber brush and clean water ( clean the plate while attached to the frame if possible.)
    D. Check for leaks using hydrostatic testing
    A. Always wear rubber or plastic gloves, goggles or plastic face shield, rubber or plastic apron, and boots when using trisodium phosphate.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. When cleaning the tube sheet and inside shell of a heat exchanger, use a stiff _____ brush or plastic scraper.
    A. Rotary-powered
    B. Nonmetallic
    C. Wire
    D. Metallic
    B. Nonmetallic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. When cleaning a plate-type heat exchanger, you should use caution when handling the plates because?
    A. Fingerprints will cause a chemical reaction with the trisodium phosphate
    B. Always use steel wool or a steel brush to ensure proper cleaning
    C. The edges can be very sharp and may cause injury
    D. Coat the plates with light machine oil before reassembly
    C. Edges can be very sharp and may cause injury
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which type of damage will usually result from current flow between dissimilar metals?
    A. Erosion
    B. Stress corrosion
    C. Mechanical damage
    D. Corrosion
    D. Corrosion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. What percentage of tubes becoming plugged in a tube type heat exchanger will cause the exchanger to function improperly?
    A. 10%
    B. 15%
    C. 5%
    D. 20%
    A. 10%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which of the following is not a purpose of an auxiliary boiler?
    A. To provide heat for shipboard heating systems.
    B. To provide heat for the evaporators
    C. To produce steam for galley
    D. To provide steam for propulsion
    D. To provide steam for propulsion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Two types of auxiliary boilers in use in the coast guard are?
    A. Evaporative plate and steamtube
    B. Firetube and steamtube
    C. Saturation and condensate
    D. Watertube and tiretube
    D. Watertube and tiretube
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The temperature at which water boils is called the boiling point or the?
    A. Condensation temperature
    B. Saturation temperature
    C. Upper explosive limit
    D. Flashpoint
    B. Saturation temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. What is the liquid called that results from saturated steam giving up its heat?
    A. Condensate
    B. Dew point
    C. Saturated
    D. Distillate
    A. Condensate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. What component controls the start up and shutdown sequence of an auxiliary boiler?
    A. Tri-cock
    B. Ignition transformer
    C. Burner unit
    D. Flame safeguard control (fsc)
    D. Flame safeguard control (fsc)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which of the following conditions is not generally a hazard associated with auxiliary boilers?
    A. Hazards associated with fuel
    B. High pressure
    C. High temp
    D. Diffuser swirl
    D. Diffuser swirl
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. How often should auxiliary boiler feedwater supply system be tested?
    A. Daily
    B. Weekly
    C. Quarterly
    D. Monthly
    A. Daily
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The alkalinity test has been replaced by direct measurement of _____ on Johnson boilers
    A. Feedwater temp
    B. Ph
    C. Titration
    D. Chloride level
    B. Ph
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. The riley-beaird flash type evaporator has _____ stages.
    A. Six
    B. Eight
    C. Four
    D. Two
    A. Six
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The feedwater for the distilling plant is supplied from the sea and enters the system through a ______ sea chest.
    A. Manual
    B. Pressure
    C. Suction
    D. Vacuum
    C. Suction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. The water level appears over halfway in the sight glasses that are mounted on the front of a flash type evaporator unit. This situation could be caused by a restricted flow of the feedwater between flash chambers or by ______?
    A. Faulty operation of the brine overboard pump through the overthrottling of the brine overboard discharge valve
    B. Faulty operation of the feedwater temp regulator
    C. Faulty operation of the distillate pump discharge valve
    D. An improperly installed distillate line
    A. Faulty operation of the brine overboard pump through the overthrottling of the brine overboard discharge valve
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. The temp pilot to the feedwater temp regulator should maintain a temperature of ______ degrees Fahrenheit
    A. 165-170
    B. 170-175
    C. 155-160
    D. 175-180
    B. 170-175
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. When the steam feedwater heater shell pressure decrease from approximately 11 inches hg (vacuum) to 0 psig, you should _____?
    A. Open the sea chest valve fully
    B. Perform a cleaning procedure
    C. Check the brine discharge for signs of overheating
    D. Increase the pressure throughout the system
    B. Perform a cleaning procedure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. What are the two basic types of ows?
    A. Coalescing and pressure
    B. Replaceable and nonreplaceable
    C. Vacuum gravity and pressure
    D. Vacuum and gravity pressure
    C. Vacuum gravity and pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. The natural ability of two dissimilar liquids to separate is called the principle of _____?
    A. Scattering
    B. Digressing
    C. Cohabitation
    D. Coalescing
    D. Coalescing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Which of the following is not a coalescing media that would improve the efficiency of oil removal?
    A. Emulsified polycarbonate
    B. Replaceable filters
    C. Metal plates
    D. Brush assemblies
    A. Emulsified polycarbonate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. What component of an ows employs an optical system based on the principles of light scattering?
    A. Solenoid valve
    B. Heli-Sep separator
    C. Oil content detector
    D. Defective oil sensing probe
    C. Oil content detector
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. The "clean water inlet" and "clean water outlet" found in an ows are what type of valve?
    A. Vacuum valve
    B. Remote sensing flood valve
    C. Solenoid valve
    D. Self-seating foot valve
    C. Solenoid valve
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which statement best describes pascals law?
    A. Pressure that is applied to a confined liquid is transmitted in all directions and loses force when acting upon surfaces with greater area
    B. Pressure that is applied to a confined liquid is transmitted undiminished in all directions and acts with equal force on equal areas.
    C. Weight that is applied to a column of liquid modifies the motion of the liquid when the force is confined to surfaces that are at right angles to the weight
    D. Forces that is applied to a liquid is magnified in power in all directions and acts with greater force on areas that are at right angles
    B. Pressure that is applied to a confined liquid is transmitted undiminished in all directions and acts with equal force on equal areas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. The piston on the left has a surface area of 4 square inches. The piston on the right has a surface are of 40 square inches. If 20lbs of pressure is applied to the piston on the left, how much weight will the piston on the right support?
    A. 80lbs
    B. 200 lbs
    C. 160lbs
    D. 400lbs
    B. 200 lbs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which situation may be a cause of a malfunctioning hydraulic system?
    A. Hydraulic fluid with a water content of 50 ppm
    B. Presence of air in the system
    C. Improper voltage supplied to the automatic spooler pressure regulator
    D. Use of a positive displacement pump in the system
    B. Presence of air in the system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Which of the following is not a safety precaution/guideline that should be considered prior to starting work on a hydraulic system?
    Never move a control valve in any direction as it will cause pressure to build up when the system is disconnected.
  52. Which of the following is not a safety precaution that should be taken while working on a hydraulic system?
    Completely depressurize the section of the system being worked on, and if possible, remove hydraulic fluid to an approved storage container. To verify that a system is depressurized, check gauges installed in the system. If gauges are not present, slowly crack open fittings and check for pressure
  53. A hydraulic system is found to have a fault that is described as "over-riding work load." How should you correct the problem?
    A. Adjust, repair, or replace the counterbalance valve
    B. Replace cooler control valve
    C. Change filters
    D. Lubricate the spooler valve
    A. Adjust, repair, or replace the counter balance valve
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Two types of filters commonly used in hydraulic systems are?
    A. Partial flow and full flow
    B. Bypass flow and full flow
    C. Proportional flow and restricted flow
    D. Full flow and proportional flow
    D. Full flow and proportional flow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Two types of strainers commonly used in hydraulic systems are?
    A. Wire mesh and edge disk
    B. Edge disk and fiber mesh
    C. Paper and plastic
    D. Wire mesh and side disk
    A. Wire mesh and edge disk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The primary indication that a filter element is clogged and needs renewing is?
    A. An external fluid leak
    B. No pressure when pump stops running (when there was normal pressure when pump was running)
    C. A pressure differential that exceeds a specific value
    D. A sudden drop in accumulator pressure
    C. A pressure differential that exceeds a specific value
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. What are two types of ac motors?
    A. Induction and synchronous
    B. Single-phase and poly-phase
    C. Wound-rotor and squirrel cage
    D. Single-phase and wound-rotor
    A induction and synchronous
  58. Which type of ac motor is most widely used today?
    A. Poly-phased induction
    B. Single-phase squirrel cage
    C. Single-phase induction
    D. Poly-phase wound-rotor
    C. Single-phase induction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. What nema code is most commonly found on the nameplate for ac induction motors?
    A. B
    B. A
    C. C
    D. D
    A. B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Which of the following is not normally identified on a motors nameplate?
    A. Torque
    B. Hertz
    C. Amps
    D. Volts
    A. Torque
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which motor nameplate term identities the rated full-load speed of a motor?
    A. Amps
    B. Hertz
    C. Horsepower
    D. Revolutions per minute
    D. Revolutions per minute
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Which directive contains a list of the electronical safety precautions pertaining to working on ac motors?
    A. Nem, chapter 300
    B. Comdtinst m9000.1
    C. Nstm, chapter 300
    D. Nem, chapter 302
    C. Nstm, chapter 300
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. What is the onboard training team used for?
    A. To assess inspectors as they complete an onboard inspection
    B. To assess maintenance procedures
    C. To assess operational capabilities
    D. To assess watch station performance for drills and exercises
    D. To assess watch station performance for drills and exercises
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which obtt member is responsible for record keeping during and after the exercise?
    A. Drill/exercise initiator
    B. Training team leader
    C. Safety observer
    D. Evaluator
    B. Training team leader
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. What is the maximum number of members that can be assigned to a large cutters obtt?
    A. No specific maximum
    B. One
    C. Three
    D. Six
    A. No specific maximum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Which of the following obtts must be established specifically for cutters 175 feet and over in length?
    A. Integrating training team (itt)
    B. Communications training team (ctt)
    C. Combat systems training team (cstt)
    D. Aviation training team (art)
    A. Integrated training team (itt)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. When the obtt is planning an exercise drill, consideration must be given to the possibility of what situation?
    A. Being short on obtt members
    B. Enthusiasm for a realistic drill out weighing sound judgment
    C. Absence of assigned personnel
    D. Actual hazardous condition
    D. Actual hazardous condition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Once the drill plan has been put together, what risk assessment model is used to determine if unnecessary risks are being taken and that safety precautions have been established?
    A. Gar
    B. Orm
    C. Erm
    D. Urm
    A. Gar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. What is the maximum numerical score that should be used on the exercise evaluation sheets?
    A. 80
    B. 90
    C. 100
    D. 70
    C. 100
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. How many points will be deducted from the overall drill score for major safety violation?
    A. 40
    B. 50
    C. 45
    D. 35
    A. 40
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. What may actually be considered as the most important part of a drill exercise?
    A. Collecting and providing accurate feedback
    B. Getting a perfect score
    C. Getting hands-on experience with equipment
    D. Training
    A. Collecting and providing accurate feedback
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Exercise evaluations will be maintained by the training officer for a minimum of how many yrs after the exercise has been completed?
    A. 4
    B. 1
    C. 2
    D. 3
    C. 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. What is the function of the pressure rate control piston in a selector valve assembly?
    To provide a rapid, yet smooth pressure rise for the hydraulic system
  74. What supports shafting on the inside of the ships skin?
    Line shaft bearing
  75. Where are the bearings used to support sections of the shafting outside the skin of the ship located?
    • Struts
    • Stern tubes
    • Skegs
  76. For safety purposes, what should be disconnected and insulated prior to starting work on any marine gear?
    Engine battery earth cable
  77. For safety purpose, what should be covered prior to removing to prevent spraying or splashing of pressurized fluids?
    • Lubrication fittings
    • Plugs
  78. When shall the supervisor assess engine condition in regards to a possible overhaul?
    At 80% of the operating hour overhaul interval
  79. Loose, damaged, or leaking oil, fuel, or coolant lines can cause what?
    Overheating
  80. This engine component failure is characterized by improper valve rapper adjustments?
    Camshaft and bearing trouble
  81. What two certifiable conditions must be maintained in tanks or compartments or when conducting hot work in an area in conjunction with an overhaul?
    • Safe for personnel
    • Safe for hot work
  82. What is the wear criterin and critical dimension data of components based on when cleaning and inspecting a disassembled engine?
    Manufacturers service/technical manual
  83. What is a sea trial period intended to demonstrate?
    Proper operation of an overhauled mde
  84. This engine component failure is characterized by presence of fine abrasives in lubricants?
    Bearing wear causing looseness without apparent surface disintigration
  85. This engine component failure is characterized by a presence of abnormal amount of carbon?
    Improper piston ring clearance
  86. This engine component failure is characterized by misalignment of idler gears?
    Drive chain failure
  87. This engine component failure is characterized by improper functioning of a torsion vibration damper?
    Bent or broken crankshaft
  88. Who is responsible for ordering flex hoses, gauges, and all consumables required for an internal combustion engine overhaul?
    The supervisor
  89. What is a correct action for impairment of a cluth drum surface that is badly grooved or worn?
    Re-machine drum surfaces as outlined in the manufacturers technical publication
  90. A satisfactory contact percentage of gear tooth bearing contacting across the axial length of the working surface is what percentage?
    80%
  91. Which of the following does not cause low oil pressure in a propulsion transmission?
    Stuck regulating piston in the selector valve assembly
  92. In the event of a hydraulic system failure of a propulsion transmission, which component is designed to allow the ship to return to port?
    Come-home bolts/feature
  93. During the wear-in period for new gears or bearings, metal flakes and dirt not removed may result in a what?
    Clogged oil spray nozzle
  94. Which component of a propulsion transmission maintains the oil in the reduction gear sump at the proper temperature?
    Heat exchanger
  95. To reduce the propeller rpm's and to permit the high engine rpm's for operation of engine accessories, what type of assembly should be installed?
    Trolling valve assembly
  96. What design feature in the plate face of the driven clutch plates permits the flow of cooling and lubricating oil to pass with equal distribution?
    Grid pattern
  97. What function does the piston and spring serve on the oil return pipe assembly?
    Regulate low pressure oil supply
  98. What are two terms used to describe gear type mechanisms?
    • Speed
    • Gear ratios
  99. No inspection plate, connection, fitting, or cover that permits access to the gear casing should be removed without specific authorization by whom?
    Engineering officer
  100. Under what circumstances can open gear cases be left unattended?
    If satisfactory temporary closures
  101. When should a final alignment of propulsion engines to shafting be attempted?
    When the vessel is in the water
  102. The section of shafting outside the skin of the ship are usually supported with what?
    Bearings
  103. Which power transmission component in a propulsion system transmits power from the driving unit to the driven unit?
    Marine propulsion unit
  104. Under what circumstances can a gear with an overheated bearing be allowed to operate?
    Under extreme emergencies, until the bearings have been examined and defect remedied
  105. When should you not attempt to make a final alignment of propulsion engine/shafting?
    When fuel, water, and temporary ballast tanks are empty
  106. Lubricating oil used in the maintenance of gears and bearings on power transmissions equipment should be clean and free of what?
    • Water
    • Metal
    • Dirt
  107. What can the shaft flange be aligned to during an alignment?
    • Output flange of reduction gear
    • Main motor
    • Slow speed diesel
  108. What is one of the greatest contributions you can make as a good supervisor?
    Develop good leaders
  109. What step in supervising serves to identify that work has been performed properly and evaluates the skill and knowledge of personnel who have performed the work?
    Inspecting the job done
  110. How offten will the supervisor of an engine overhaul conduct and complete a progress report?
    Weekly
  111. During which stage of an overhaul should a supervisor order all consumables required to complete the task?
    Planning
  112. Upon completion of an overhaul, the supervisor will ensure the completion is documented in to what two reporting systems?
    • Cutter engineering report for next year
    • Cmplus
  113. What components should you check prior to engine disassembly for an overhaul?
    Face and bore alignment between engine flywheel and flexible coupling
  114. How long may a sea trial period be required to last in order to demonstrate proper operation of an overhauled mde?
    4 to 6 hours
  115. What should you place on all exposed driveshaft, belt pulleys, or similar rotating parts prior to working on a marine gear?
    Safty guards
  116. When is it necessary to scrap bearings?
    • Fitting a replacement bearing
    • Correcting gear tooth alignment
    • For increased clearance
  117. Overheating of a propulsion transmission can be attributed to what?
    Trolling at too high an engine speed
  118. What is the purpose of the first function involved in a shaft alignment?
    Alighn bearings that support the shaft
  119. What alignment function is used to eliminate shafted-excited vibration and noise?
    Align bearings that support the shaft
  120. What four tasks is the supervisor responsible for during the execution stage of an overhaul?
    • Managing
    • Supervising all work
    • Inspections
    • Tests
  121. List the four major areas of responsibility that apply to all supervisory positions
    • Production safety, health, physical awareness
    • Training and development of subordinates
    • Records and reports
    • Balanced supervision
  122. When troubleshooting a propulsion transmission, what are the probable cause of no oil pressure?
    • Low oil level/empty sump
    • Fully clogged oil strainer
    • Damaged or worn oil pump assembly

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