Microbiology and Pathology 3 1988

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Microbiology and Pathology 3 1988
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Micro and pathology
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1988
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  1. Which of the following factors has the greatest impact on prognosis of a skin melanoma?
    1. Site of origin
    2. Depth of invasion
    3. Degree of pigmentation
    4. Existence of ulceration
    5. Size of surface area involved
    2. Depth of invasion
  2. The most common cause of a massive hematemesis in alcoholics is
    1. Peptic ulcer 
    2. Acute gastritis
    3. Esophageal varices
    4. Mallory Weiss syndrome
    5. Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
    3. Esophageal varices
  3. The chemotactic accumulation of inflammatory cells that occurs at the sites where immune complexes are deposited is most probably the result of
    1. C5A
    2. IgA
    3. IgD
    4. IgE
    5. Sensitized lymphocytes
    1. C5A
  4. Removal of the capsule from an encapsulated bacterium is likely to result in 
    1. Loss of viability
    2. Decreased generation time
    3. Failure of the cell to gram stain
    4. Increased susceptibility to mutation
    5. Increase de susceptibility to phagocytosis
    5. Increase de susceptibility to phagocytosis
  5. The major factor in the production of inflammatory edema is
    1. Venous obstruction 
    2. Arterial dilatation
    3. Generalized kidney damage
    4. Increase capillary permeability
    4. Increase capillary permeability
  6. Left sided Heart failure or shock may be associated with
    1. Pneumoconiosis
    2. Bronchiectasis
    3. Pulmonary edema 
    4. Pulmonary emboli
    3. Pulmonary edema
  7. Which of the following diseases is characterized by painful vesicles that occur on the skin or a mucosal surface along the distribution of a sensory nerve?
    1. Smallpox
    2. Psoriasis
    3. Cat-scratch fever
    4. Recurrent varicella
    5. Infectious mononucleosis
    4. Recurrent varicella
  8. Lysozyme can attack bacterial cells by 
    1. Degrading their flagella
    2. Inactivating their ribosomes
    3. Preventing their transpeptidation reaction
    4. Breaking the bond between N acetyl glucosamine and N acetyl muramic acid
    4. Breaking the bond between N acetyl glucosamine and N acetyl muramic acid
  9. Although the exact mechanism of formation of calculus is not understood, it is known that the organic matrix of calculus in humans includes
    1. No living microorganisms
    2. A fusopirochetal complex
    3. An abundance of microorganisms
    4. Only by products of bacterial metabolism
    3. An abundance of microorganisms
  10. Generally, resistance of a bacterium to killing by heat is influenced by time sand by temperature employed in growth of the culture. Another factor is the ability of the organism to 
    1. Form spores
    2. Withstand acid pH
    3. Produce protoplasts
    4. Undergo transformation 
    5. Grow at elevated temperatures
    1. Form spores
  11. The renal lesion most commonly associated with benign hypertension is 
    1. Renal atresia
    2. Acute pyelonephritis
    3. Chronic pyelonephritis
    4. Arteriolonephrosclerosis
    4. Arteriolonephrosclerosis
  12. The most likely diagnosis for a patient with dysphonia, dysphagia, weight loss and a history of heavy cigarette smoking is 
    1. Laryngitis
    2. Tonsillitis 
    3. Laryngeal polyps
    4. Carcinoma of the lungs
    5. Carcinoma of the larynx
    5. Carcinoma of the larynx
  13. Two important factors for initiation of caries by oral streptococci are
    1. Production of protease and production of acid
    2. Production of dextranase and production of soluble dextran
    3. Production of collagenase and production of hyaluronidase
    4. Fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol and production of protease
    5. Synthesis of insoluble dextran and production of glucosyltransferase
    4. Fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol and production of protease
  14. In order for a virus to infect a host cell, it must first absorb to the cell surface. This involves
    1. Phagocytic activity by the cell
    2. Energy output in the part of the cell
    3. insertion of virally specified glycoproteins into the host cell membrane
    4. a specific interaction between a viral surfacE Component and a specific receptor on the cell membrane 
    5. All of the above
    4. a specific interaction between a viral surfacE Component and a specific receptor on the cell membrane
  15. Laboratory results of a patient's serum show presence of HBs and anti-HBs. Which of the following can be concluded?
    1. The patient is a carrier 
    2. The patient has acute disease
    3. The patient is in the convalescent stage
    4. The patient has recovered completely
    5. None of the above
    1. The patient is a carrier
  16. An increased serum acid phosphatase level is clinically significant and aids in the diagnosis of which if the following conditions?
    1. Paget's disease of bone
    2. Primary hyperparathyroidism
    3. Secondary hyperparathyroidism 
    4. Breast carcinoma with bone metastasis
    5. Prostatic carcinoma with bone metastasis
    5. Prostatic carcinoma with bone metastasis
  17. A benign neoplasm of the myometrium of the uterus is a 
    1. Myeloma
    2. Fibroma
    3. Leiomyoma
    4. Myoblastoma
    5. Rhabdomyoma
    3. Leiomyoma
  18. A patient with dentinogenesis imperfecta has a history of multiple fractures.  Examination reveals blue sclera.  The most probable diagnosis is
    1. Achondroplasia
    2. Marfan's syndrome
    3. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    4. Albers-Schondberg disease
    3. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  19. The primary function of SIgA is to
    1. Promote phagocytosis by monocytes
    2. Prevent ingress of antigen through mucosa
    3. Activate complement in secretory fluids
    4. Activate K/NK cells in the gingival crevice
    2. Prevent ingress of antigen through mucosa
  20. Resistance of staphylococcus aureus to penicillin is caused by 
    1. Pleomorphism
    2. An enzyme that attacks penicillin
    3. Production of a penicillin analogue
    4. A lack of mycolic acid in the cell wall 
    5. The presence of a tough lypopolysaccharide capsule
    2. An enzyme that attacks penicillin
  21. Which of the following serum values is likely to be elevated in a patient with hyperparathyroidism?
    1. Calcium
    2. Chloride
    3. Potassium
    4. Phosphorus
    5. Acid phosphatase
    1. Calcium
  22. The principal antibacterial action of the tetracyclines is inhibition of
    1. DNA synthesis
    2. Protein synthesis
    3. Histone formation
    4. Cell wall synthesis
    5. Cell membrane formation
    2. Protein synthesis
  23. The most acceptable condition for complete sterilization by autoclaving are
    1. 5 minutes at 275 °F (135 °C) and 15 lbs of pressure
    2. 15 minutes at 275 °F (135 °C) and 10 lbs of pressure
    3. 20 minutes at 250 °F (121°C) and 10 lbs of pressure
    4. 20 minutes at 250 °F (121 °C) and 15 lbs of pressure
    4. 20 minutes at 250 °F (121 °C) and 15 lbs of pressure
  24. The class of antibodies first detected in serum after primary immunization is usually
    1. IgA 
    2. IgD
    3. IgE
    4. IgG
    5. IgM
    5. IgM
  25. The principal chemical mediator located in the granules of mast cells is
    1. Plasmin
    2. Histamine
    3. Complement
    4. Bradykinin
    5. Norepinephrine
    2. Histamine
  26. Production of bone in scar tissue occurs by
    1. Dysplasia
    2. Anaplasia
    3. Neoplasia
    4. Metaplasia
    5. Fibroplasia
    4. Metaplasia
  27. Which of the following diseases is characterized by an extremely high level of alkaline phosphatase, normal levels of calcium and phosphorus, enlargement of the skull, and an increased incidence of osteogenic sarcoma?
    1. Osteoporosis
    2. Multiple myeloma
    3. Fibrous dysplasia
    4. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    5. Paget's disease of bone
    5. Paget's disease of bone
  28. A very high percentage of cases of hepatitis A are found in 
    1. Young people
    2. Recent recipients of gamma globulin
    3. Recent recipients of whole blood
    4. Persons with histories of recurrent respiratory infections
    1. Young people
  29. The etiologic basis of Hashimoto's thyroiditis is
    1. Autoimmune
    2. Bacterial infection
    3. Hereditary enzyme deficiency
    4. Premalignant diffuse hyperplasia
    5. Secondary to hyperparathyroidism
    1. Autoimmune
  30. Long standing gradual ischemia of an organ or a tissue most likely results in
    1. Atrophy
    2. Dysplasia
    3. Metaplasia
    4. Hypertrophy
    5. Hyperplasia
    1. Atrophy
  31. A disease caused by the interaction of antigen and IgE in the surface of mast cells with release of histamine is
    1. Serum sickness
    2. Bronchial asthma
    3. Pulmonary emphysema 
    4. Lupus erythematosus
    5. rheumatoid arthritis
    2. Bronchial asthma
  32. Which of the following identifies the cell that produces interleukin-1 and the cell affected by interleukin-1, respectively?
    1. T cell-B cell
    2. Macrophage-T cell
    3. Macrophage-monocyte
    4. Dendritic cell - B lymphocyte
    2. Macrophage-T cell
  33. Patients with Bruton's agammaglobulinemia principally suffer from infections caused by 
    1. Fungi
    2. Viruses
    3. Parasites
    4. Pyogenic bacteria
    5. Tubercle bacilli
    4. Pyogenic bacteria
  34. Which if the following is diagnosed with karyotyping?
    1. Phenylketonuria
    2. Neurofibromatosis
    3. Tay-Sachs disease 
    4. Turner's syndrome 
    5. Sickle cell anemia
    4. Turner's syndrome
  35. Neoplasms of which of the following organs have been shown to be hormonally dependent?
    1. Liver
    2. Parotid
    3. Prostate
    4. Pancreas
    3. Prostate
  36. Chronic passive congestion of the lung is characterized by 
    1. Hyaline membranes
    2. Chronic bronchitis
    3. Giant cell arteritis
    4. Interstitial infiltration of PMN'S
    5. Edema of alveolar walls and "heart failure" cells
    5. Edema of alveolar walls and "heart failure" cells
  37. Use of vaccines for preventing clinical symptoms after introduction of the virus is most likely to be effective against
    1. Rabies
    2. Influenza
    3. Poliomyelitis
    4. Herpes zoster
    1. Rabies
  38. Which of the following is characterized by a collapse of alveoli?
    1. Empyema
    2. Pneumonia
    3. Emphysema
    4. Atelectasis
    5. Bronchiectasis
    5. Bronchiectasis
  39. A virus causing recurrent hermetic lesions is never completely eliminated but assumes a state of 
    1. Latency
    2. Symbiosis
    3. Mutualism
    4. Commensalism
    5. None of the above
    1. Latency
  40. Patients receiving chemotherapy for leukemia are particularly prone to develop oral 
    1. Candidiasis
    2. Actynomycosis 
    3. Blastomycosis 
    4. Histoolasmosis
    5. Coccidiodomycosis
    1. Candidiasis
  41. the likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidence in
    1. An increase in salivary hyaluronidase
    2. An increased mp number of bacteria in saliva
    3. An increase in bacterial antibodies in saliva
    4. Appearance of new pathogenic strains in the affected area
    5. A reduction in inflammation by removal of bacteria
    5. A reduction in inflammation by removal of bacteria
  42. The effectiveness of autoclaving is best determined by
    1. Culturing bacterial spores
    2. Culturing the water reservoir
    3. Thermocouples (temperature recording devices) 
    4. Indicators that change color at elevated temperatures
    1. Culturing bacterial spores
  43. An oral lesion that may appear as an ulcer, a nodule or a vegetative process and is often mistaken for squamous cell carcinoma is a manifestation of 
    1. Candidiasis
    2. Trichinosis
    3. Sporotrichosis
    4. Histoplasmosis
    4. Histoplasmosis
  44. The nuclear material of a bacterial cell is typically characterized as a
    1. Single, double-stranded DNA molecule enclosed within a nuclear membrane
    2. Single, double-stranded DNA molecule not confined within a nuclear membrane
    3. Rigid, DNA protein complex enclosed within a nuclear membrane
    4. Rigid, DNA lipopolysaccharide complex not confined within a nuclear membrane
    2. Single, double-stranded DNA molecule not confined within a nuclear membrane
  45. Which of the following is the most common initial sign or symptom in patients with malignant lymphoma?
    1. Pallor
    2. Weight loss
    3. Lymphadenopathy
    4. Chronic infection
    5. Unexplained fever
    3. Lymphadenopathy
  46. Most rickettsial diseases produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae
    1. Produce potent exotoxins
    2. Are destructive for endothelial cells
    3. Are particularly destructive to cutaneous tissues
    4. Are primarily neurotropic and cause extensive damage in certain CNS centers
    2. Are destructive for endothelial cells
  47. Which of the following bacteria has the highest lipid content in the cell wall?
    1. Escherichia coli
    2. Lactobacillus casei
    3. Leptotrichia buccalis
    4. Staphylococcus aureus
    5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  48. A complication of peptic ulcer disease that accounts for the majority of deaths is
    1. Bleeding
    2. Perforation
    3. Surgical complication 
    4. Malignant transformation
    5. Obstruction from edema or scarring
    2. Perforation
  49. Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valve abnormality who is allergic to penicillin is
    1. Ampicillin
    2. Lincomycin
    3. Tetracycline
    4. Streptomycin
    5. Erythromycin
    5. Erythromycin
  50. Which if the following organs is the most uncommon site for infarcts?
    1. Brain 
    2. Heart
    3. Liver
    4. Kidney
    5. Adrenals
    3. Liver
  51. Cervicofacial actinomycosis is usually due to 
    1. Poor aseptic technique during oral surgery
    2. Contamination of a trauma or surgical site with spores
    3. Contamination of a trauma or surgical site with endogenous organisms 
    4. Spread of the organisms from dermal or thoracic infection
    3. Contamination of a trauma or surgical site with endogenous organisms
  52. Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis
    1. Decreased albumin 
    2. Elevated serum lipase
    3. Decreased serum amylase
    4. Elevated alkaline phosphatase
    2. Elevated serum lipase
  53. Classic Hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal factor VIII which in turn is due to a genetic deficiency that is
    1. Partially dominant
    2. Autosomal dominant
    3. Autosomal recessive
    4. Sex linked dominant
    5. Sex linked recessive
    5. Sex linked recessive
  54. Ten days after hospitalization for a large, incapacitating myocardial infarct, a 50 year old man suddenly develops paralysis of the right side of his body.m the best explanation for his brain damage is
    1. Rupture of a congenital aneurysm of the circle of Willis.
    2. Brain access from necrosis of the myocardium
    3. Detachment of a bacterial embolus from the pulmonic valve
    4. Detachment of a mural thrombus from the right ventricle
    5. Detachment of a mural thrombus from the left ventricle
    5. Detachment of a mural thrombus from the left ventricle
  55. Features of the herpes simplex virus type 1 virion surface include
    1. No envelope
    2. An envelope synthesized  de novo
    3. An envelope acquired by budding through the cytoplasmic membrane 
    4. An envelope acquired by budding through the nuclear membrane
    5. None of the above
    4. An envelope acquired by budding through the nuclear membrane
  56. Hemorrhagic infarction and necrosis are characteristic of which of the following fungal diseases?
    1. Candidiasis 
    2. Actinomycosis
    3. Cryptococcosis
    4. Histoplasmosis
    5. Coccidiodomycosis
    6. Mucormycosis (phycomycosis)
    6. Mucormycosis (phycomycosis)
  57. The chemical nature of bacterial endotoxins is a 
    1. Lipid
    2. Protein
    3. Complex carbohydrate
    4. Lipopolysaccharide complex
    5. Low molecular weight polypeptide
    4. Lipopolysaccharide complex
  58. Detergents kill bacteria by interfering with the function of the cell
    1. Wall
    2. Capsule
    3. Membrane
    4. Ribosome
    5. Chromosome
    3. Membrane
  59. Phage conversion is responsible for
    1. Transduction of bacteria
    2. Antigenic phase variation
    3. Production of B-galactosidase
    4. Anita of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen
    5. Production of erythrogenic toxin by streptococcus pyogenes
    5. Production of erythrogenic toxin by streptococcus pyogenes
  60. An Rh-negative mother delivered a normal first child.  Her second child developed symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis.  Which of the following can be concluded?
    1. The father is Rh-negative
    2. The first baby is Rh-negative
    3. The first baby is a girl; the second is a boy
    4. The mother has very high levels of serum complement and anti-Rh IgE.
    5. None of the above
    5. None of the above
  61. A summer illness that produces vesicular lesions of the uvula, anterior pillars and the posterior pharynx is
    1. Influenza
    2. Herpes virus
    3. ECHO virus
    4. Coxackievirus
    4. Coxackievirus
  62. Bacterial endotoxins exerts it's pathologic effect, in part, by
    1. Stimulating production of IgA
    2. Activating the complement cascade
    3. Inactivating nonspecific lymphokines
    4. Releasing transfer factor from Blymphocytes 
    5. Releasing vasoactive lipopolysaccharides
    2. Activating the complement cascade
  63. The host response to a malignancy is best reflected by
    1. Marked cellularity of the tumor
    2. Many Mitotic figures in the tumor
    3. Lymphocytic infiltration at the edge of the neoplasm
    4. A larger number of blood vessels in the  neoplastic mass
    5. Large areas of necrosis in the center of the neoplastic mass
    5. Large areas of necrosis in the center of the neoplastic mass
  64. Which of the following is most commonly associated with development of gastrointestinal cancer?
    1. Amebiasis
    2. Villous adenoma
    3. Meckel's diverticulum
    4. Duodenal peptic ulcer
    5. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
    2. Villous adenoma
  65. Which of the following is the most common skin cancer in man?
    1. Malignant melanoma
    2. Basal cell carcinoma
    3. Squamous cell carcinoma 
    4. Sebaceous adenocarcinoma
    5. Transitional cell carcinoma
    2. Basal cell carcinoma
  66. Multiple drug resistance is related most closely to
    1. viruses
    2. Plasmids
    3. Transformation
    4. Cell chromosomes
    2. Plasmids
  67. Which of the following organisms is most frequently isolated from the oral cavity?
    1. Streptococcus sanguis
    2. Streptococcus pyogenes
    3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    4. Neisseria meningitidis
    5. Staphylococcus aureus
    1. Streptococcus sanguis
  68. Which of the following characteristics of enterobacteria is most inorganic in hospital infections?
    1. High degree of invasiveness
    2. Ability to become resistant to antibiotics
    3. Production of enzymes destructive to tissue
    4. Ability to survive drying due to spore formation
    2. Ability to become resistant to antibiotics
  69. The most common clinical consequence of benign prostatic hyperplasia is
    1. Pain
    2. Jaundice
    3. Urinary tract obstruction
    4. Red blood cell casts in urine
    5. Progression to prostatic carcinoma
    3. Urinary tract obstruction
  70. In organisms sensitive to penicillin, this antibiotic shows the greatest bactericidal activity against
    1. Growing gram-negative bacteria
    2. Growing gram-positive bacteria
    3. Nongrowing gram-negative bacteria
    4. Nongrowing gram-positive bacteria
    5. Sporulating gram-negative bacteria
    2. Growing gram-positive bacteria
  71. Myasthenia Travis is caused by dysfunction of the
    1. Motor nerves 
    2. Smooth muscle
    3. Sensory nerves 
    4. Skeletal muscle
    5. Myoneural junction
    5. Myoneural junction
  72. Which antibody type is resistant to hydrolysis by microbial proteolytic enzymes?
    1. IgA
    2. SIgA
    3. IgE
    4. IgG
    2. SIgA
  73. Which of the following are rarely, if ever, acquired from another Individual?
    a) blastomycosis
    b) sporotrichosis
    c) histoplasmosis
    d) neonatal candidiasis
    • a) blastomycosis
    • b) sporotrichosis
    • c) histoplasmosis
  74. Granulation tissue typically contains
    a) fibroblasts
    b) nerve fibers
    c) endothelial cells
    d) epithelioid cells
    e) giant cells
    • a) fibroblasts
    • c) endothelial cells
  75. significant functions of polymorphonuclear leukocytes in inflammation are
    a) replication of new cells
    b) phagocytosis of bacteria
    c) elaboration of proteolytic enzymes
    d) elaboration of antibodies
    • b) phagocytosis of bacteria
    • c) elaboration of proteolytic enzymes
  76. IgE is involve in which of the following conditions?
    a) hives
    b) hay fever
    c) pemphigoid vulgaris
    d) lupus erythematosus
    • a) hives
    • b) hay fever
  77. Invasive staphylococcal infections of orofacial structures are likely to result
    a) brain abscess 
    b) osteomyelitis
    c) cavernous sinus thrombosis 
    d) localized tissue abscesses
    e) any of the above
    e) any of the above
  78. Which of the following diseases are commonly associated with pathogenic staphylococci?
    a) impetigo
    b) dysentery
    c) food poisoning
    d) rheumatic fever
    • a) impetigo
    • c) food poisoning
  79. Which of the following are associated with a patient who has AIDS?
    a) recent Heptavax vaccination
    b) loss of cellular immunity defenses 
    c) alteration of T-helper/T-suppressor cell ratio in blood
    d) increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections
    e) decreased immunoglobulin concentration in peripheral circulation
    • b) loss of cellular immunity defenses 
    • c) alteration of T-helper/T-suppressor cell ratio in blood
    • d) increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections
  80. Infants are routinely immunized against diseases caused by
    a) Brucella abortus
    b) Bordetella pertusis
    c) corynebacterium diphteriae
    d) clostridium tetani
    e) Hemophiluslua influenzae
    • b) Bordetella pertusis
    • c) corynebacterium diphteriae
    • d) clostridium tetani
  81. Which of the following blood disease are red cell disorders?
    a) thalassemia 
    b) polycythemia vera
    c) erythroblastosis fetalis
    d) hereditary spherocytosis
    e) all of the above
    e) all of the above
  82. Basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma are similar in that both
    a) are invasive
    b) readily metastasize
    c) exhibit Mitotic figures
    d) are cured by early excision
    e) commonly occur in the oral cavity
    • a) are invasive
    • c) exhibit Mitotic figures
    • d) are cured by early excision
  83. The secondary stage of syphilis may be manifested in which of the following forms?
    a) hard chancre
    b) soft chancre
    c) maculopapular rash
    d) extensive CNS involvement
    e) mucous patches in the oral cavity
    • c) maculopapular rash
    • e) mucous patches in the oral cavity
  84. Ascites which is often a complication of alcoholic liver disease, develops as a result of
    a) cirrhosis 
    b) esophageal varices
    c) portal hypertension 
    d) decreased protein production by the liver
    • a) cirrhosis 
    • c) portal hypertension 
    • d) decreased protein production by the liver
  85. Cells of which of the following retain a latent capacity for Mitotic division?
    a) liver
    b) bone marrow
    c) cardiac muscle
    d) salivary glands
    e) neurons
    • a) liver
    • b) bone marrow
    • d) salivary glands
  86. In healing of a fracture, which of the following will prevent favorable reconstruction and alignment of bone?
    a) formation of pseudoarthrosis
    b) functional remodeling of the pro callus by osteoblasts and osteoclasts
    c) formation of new bone at the site of fracture
    d) presence of sequestrum
    e) organization of a hematoma at the site of fracture
    • a) formation of pseudoarthrosis
    • d) presence of sequestrum
  87. Abnormalities in cell growth that causes cells, tissues or organs to be smaller than normal include
    a) metaplasia
    b) atrophy
    c) anaplasia
    d) hypoplasia
    • b) atrophy
    • d) hypoplasia
  88. Right sided heart failure affects the kidneys by causing
    a) renal hypoxia
    b) venous congestion
    c) retention of H2O and NaCl
    d) decreased glomerular filtration rate
    e) all of the above
    e) all of the above
  89. A soft tissue infection rather diffusely spread along the mandible and into the floor of the mouth would likely involve which of the following organisms?
    a) eikenella corrodens
    b) staphylococcus aureus
    c) streptococcus pyogenes
    d) peptostreptococcus anaerobius
    e) all of the above
    e) all of the above
  90. Bacteria of which of the following genera have a limited range of habitats in the oral cavity?
    a) treponema
    b) bacteroides
    c) actynomices
    d) streptococcus
    • a) treponema
    • b) bacteroides
  91. Which of the following will NOT promote fluid retention in the interstitial compartment?
    1. Lymphatic obstruction
    2. Increased capillary permeability 
    3. Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood
    4. Increased hydrostatic pressure of the blood
    5. Decreased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid
    5. Decreased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid
  92. Each of the following may be seen in multiple myeloma EXCEPT
    1. Hypoproteinemia
    2. Plasma cell neoplasia
    3. Hypergammaglobulinemia
    4. Light chain proteinuria
    5. Punched out areas of bone
    2. Plasma cell neoplasia
  93. Which of the follow is NOT a feature of infectious mononucleosis?
    1. Splenomegaly
    2. Necrotizing pharyngitis
    3. Depressed heterophile titer
    4. Abnormal lymphocytes in peripheral blood
    5. Marked increase in the number of circulating lymphocytes
    3. Depressed heterophile titer
  94. A primary tumor of which of the following organs is least likely to give rise to skeletal metastasis?
    1. breast
    2. Tongue
    3. Kidney
    4. Thyroid
    5. Prostate
    2. Tongue
  95. Which of the following is NOT Mediated by immunoglobulins
    1. Anaphylaxis
    2. Atopic allergy
    3. Serum sickness
    4. Arthus' reaction
    5. Contact dermatitis
    5. Contact dermatitis
  96. Which of the following is NOT a direct cause of left-sided heart failure?
    1. emphysema
    2. Hypertension 
    3. Aortic stenosis
    4. Myocardial infarction
    5. Rheumatic heart disease
    1. emphysema
  97. Which if the following virus is least likely to be spread in the dental office?
    1. HTLV III
    2. Adenovirus 
    3. Rhinovirus 
    4. Hepatitis B
    5. Herpes simplex virus
    1. HTLV III
  98. Which of the following is NOT a function of T lymphocytes in defense of the host?
    1. Production of MIF
    2. Production of Histamine
    3. Activation of macrophages
    4. Production of chemotactic factors
    5. Protection against intracellular parasites
    2. Production of Histamine
  99. Patient with which of the following diseases is least likely to show "clubbing" of fingers and cyanotic nail beds?
    1. Polycythemia 
    2. Congenital heart disease
    3. Chronic pulmonary disease
    4. Congestive heart failure
    5. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    5. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  100. Which if the following species of streptococci is usually NOT found in human dental plaque?
    1. S. Mutans
    2. S. Sanguis
    3. S. Pyogenes
    4. S. Salivarius
    5. S. Mitior (Mitis)
    3. S. Pyogenes

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