Set 2 Volume 3

  1. Before operating bomb bay door systems for check out you must make sure.



    D. all personnel and equipment have been cleared from the area of operation.
  2. What condition permits helicopter rotor blades to droop within five feet of the ground.



    D. Droop stop malfunction
  3. The noise intensity of jet aircraft is greatest



    C. Rear of the engines and at an angle of 45* on either side
  4. When electromagnetic radiation is absorbed in the tissues of the body



    A. heat is produced
  5. Which form has an entry identifying the types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft?



    C. AFTO form 781A
  6. What is the first step in making sure an aircraft is safe for maintenance?



    C. checking forms for aircraft status
  7. When are aircraft most susceptible to fire?



    B. while the engines are running
  8. What hazard is of special concern during aircraft brake fires?



    C. flying debris from tire blowout
  9. Bombs can detonate within how long after being enveloped in flames



    B. 2 to 4 minutes
  10. When missiles are involved in an aircraft fire you should approach from



    B. the side of the aircraft
  11. On a four person load crew who fights the fire



    D. 3 person
  12. Line badges are classified as what type of FOD



    D. metals
  13. Hailstones are classified as what type of FOD



    B. miscellaneous
  14. What is a FOD walk
    An organized inspection and physical pickup of foreign objects
  15. Aluminum's formation of a tightly adhering oxide film



    B. provides increased resistance to mild corrosive conditions
  16. If unprotected, ferrous metal surfaces are



    C. easily corroded if moisture is present
  17. Piano hinges are prime spots for corrosion because they are natural traps for dirt salt moisture and



    B. dissimilar metal contact between the steel pin and the aluminum hinge tangs
  18. You should identify and correct corrosion when in what stage



    D. earliest
  19. What corrosion accelerant agent does dust, dirt, acid spills, or waste materials provide



    C. electrolyte
  20. Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed throughout the entire electrical system



    D. Aircraft power panels
  21. The energizing and deenergizing of bomb rack solenoids at selected weapons stations normally is performed through the



    D. main armament control panels
  22. What panel has circuitry used to activate an aircraft's radar set functions to their fully operational status so ground checkout of certain missile systems may be done



    A. missile control
  23. What panel works in conjunction with the special weapons control panels to facilitate all of the functions needed to release a special weapon



    C. main armament control panel
  24. What two armament system controls are found on the pilot's stick grip



    A. Trigger and armament release switch
  25. Which aircraft use integrated keyboards



    A. B-52, B-1, B-2, and AC-130
  26. The functions of a digital system are initiated by the



    B. operator
  27. Which aircraft employs all three stores management systems



    B. B-52
  28. What aircraft system monitors an aircraft's system and indicates or reports its status to the aircrew or ground maintenance technician



    C. fault isolation
  29. In fault isolation systems using built in checks, the results of the test should narrow a fault down to a



    C. subsystem or system
  30. The advanced computer fault isolation system narrows malfunctions down to a single line replaceable unit



    A. 95% of the time
  31. Before release firing pulses are allowed access to an installed nuclear weapon, an aircraft's nuclear weapons system must be properly



    B. enabled
  32. Radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems normally facilitate the computerized release of onboard



    D. missiles
  33. Which item is the only mechanically operated bomb rack presently in use



    A. B-11
  34. During release, what component of the B-11 bomb shackle retains the arming wire



    B. arming hook
  35. Which bomb racks are nuclear capable



    D. MAU-12, BRU-44, AND BRU-47
  36. Nuclear capable bomb racks are equipped with



    D. an in-flight safety lock
  37. What component of a cluster rack actuates the B-11 bomb shackle to release munitions



    A. A-6 release unit
  38. Rotating of the bomb module swing arms is enabled by



    D. cartridge-powered actuators
  39. How many munitions can be loaded onto the MIL-STD-1760 enhanced conventional bomb module (SECBM)



    D. 10
  40. How many MK-82 500 bombs can be carried by the bomb rack assembly



    A. 20
  41. Which columns are capable of holding cluster bomb units on the smart bomb assembly SBRA



    B. 1,2,3, and 4
  42. The multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled



    B. electrically
  43. During ground rotation of the multipurpose rotary launcher, speed is



    A. one-eighth normal speed
  44. Which bomb rack is used on the rotary launch assembly (RLA)



    B. bru-44b/a
  45. When MASTER ARM power is initially applied, a loaded TER will step to the



    A. first loaded station position of the unit
  46. When BDU-33s are carried on a TER what provides alignment of the bomb



    B. yoke adapter
  47. What bomb racks are used by the BRU-57 Smart Rack to carry stores weighing up to 1,000 pounds



    A. BRU-46
  48. Which munition is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying



    D. GBU-39
  49. How many munitions is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying



    A. four
  50. How does the safety clutch safe the F-22 pylons



    B. electrically
  51. The interchangeable pylons are



    D. installed at any station
  52. What is the only gas-operated missile launcher



    B. lau-106
  53. What is the only pneudraulicly operated missile launcher



    A. lau-142
  54. If the lau-142's ground safety lever is not in the GND position what will happen if the launcher fully expands



    A. launcher will release missile hangars
  55. What do you use to coat launcher rail surfaces



    D. molybdenum disulfide (dry lube)
  56. On the LAU-88 missile launcher, what keeps the shear pin from backing out during flight



    B. lock nut
  57. What missile launcher carries the AGM-114



    A. modified m299
  58. On aim-9 and aim-120 launchers what prevents the missile from leaving the launcher if the rocket motor fires.



    B. an in-flight lock
  59. What is the only launcher that automatically engages the missile umbilical during loading



    D. modified m299
  60. What is the rocket capacity of the lau-131 rocket launcher



    B. 7
  61. What mechanism withing the lau-131's tubes restrains the rockets against normal flying loads



    B. detents
  62. How is the lau-131 rocket pod safed



    D. electrically with a shorting pin
  63. What adapter was developed to allow the B-1 to carry and Drop BDU-33s



    A. practice bomb adapter rack
  64. How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser



    C. 8
  65. What bombing system release option is equated to a single selected weapons release



    D. manual
  66. What aircraft-generated computer signal allows the AIM-120 missile to begin its launch cycle



    B. release consent
  67. What armament system circuits are normally disabled during selective jettison



    A. mechanical fuzing
  68. What aircraft does not have pylon jettisoning capability
    F-16
  69. Who has the authority to change time constraints of operational/functional checks



    D. local commander
  70. Which of the following is a detrimental effect of barrel heating



    C. increased barrel wear and warping
  71. To complete the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied to the



    B. face of the bolt
  72. What is the maximum firing rate of the GAU-2



    C. 4000 spm
  73. What ammunition feed system is used to supply the GAU-2



    B. linked
  74. What component of the M61A1 breech bolt locks it in the firing position



    C. locking block
  75. What component of the M61A1 breech bolt makes electrical contact with the primer of the round



    B. firing pin
  76. What M61A1 gun component locks the barrels into position



    C. center clamp
  77. What caliber of ammunition is fired by the GAU-12/U



    C. 25mm
  78. What is the firing rate of the 25mm gun



    C. 1800 +-100
  79. Into how many parts is the GAU-8/A 30mm gun rotor assembly divided



    C. 2
  80. What GAU-8/A 30mm gun component locks the barrel in the rotor



    D. midbarrel support
  81. The M240 operates under the



    C. open bolt concept
  82. The GAU-18 machine gun is operated



    B. by recoil
  83. When does the recoiling step of the GAU-18 firing cycle begin



    C. the instant of firing
  84. What ammunition feed system is used to supply the M2A1 40mm gun



    B. clip
  85. What two 40mm gun components absorb rearward thrust caused by firing the gun



    D. recuperator spring and recoil cylinder
  86. What M2A1 40mm gun component holds the barrel assembly in the gun and wont let it fire if the barrel is not properly installed



    B. breech ring assembly
  87. What component of the 105mm gun is composed of the sleigh, recuperator assemblies



    B. recoil mechanism
  88. What unit of the linkless system is attacked to the aft end of a drum assembly



    B. entrance
  89. The function of the transfer unit on the linkless system is to remove rounds from the



    B. conveyor elements and feed them into the gun
  90. On gun gas scavenge systems, after the trigger is released, purge doors stay open for



    C. 30 seconds
  91. What aircraft makes use of a moveable door covering the firing port for the projectiles to exit the aircraft



    A. F-22
  92. What are the two types of operational/functional checks for gun systems



    A. mechanical and electrical
  93. When boresighting, the boresight target is normally placed



    D. 1000 inches from the nose wheel axle
  94. Where is the adjustment made on the gun when boresighting



    A. gun mounts
  95. Before handling any electrically primed munitions you must



    D. ground yourself
  96. If white phosphorus contacts the skin you must keep it covered with



    D. a wet cloth
  97. The first thing you do in muns prep is make sure the munition



    A. matches mission requirements
  98. During what loading step do you insert arming wire loops into the bomb rack solenoids



    A. loading
  99. During a concurrent servicing operation what servicing action cannot be performed while refueling



    C. oxygen
  100. During a concurrent servicing operation a concurrent servicing supervisor is not required when



    B. fueling is not being performed
Author
Jaytrex91
ID
265497
Card Set
Set 2 Volume 3
Description
AME and Gun Stuff
Updated