Set 2 Volume 3

Card Set Information

Author:
Jaytrex91
ID:
265497
Filename:
Set 2 Volume 3
Updated:
2014-03-07 22:54:00
Tags:
study
Folders:

Description:
AME and Gun Stuff
Show Answers:

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  1. Before operating bomb bay door systems for check out you must make sure.
    A. the system has been safed or disabled
    B.the system safety pins and rigging stops have been installed
    C. all personnel and equipment have been cleared from the area of operation.
    D. the proper strut supports have been installed.
    C. all personnel and equipment have been cleared from the area of operation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. What condition permits helicopter rotor blades to droop within five feet of the ground.
    A. Droop stop malfunction
    B. Tail swing malfunction.
    C. Rotor dip malfunction
    D. Helicopter take-off
    A. Droop stop malfunction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The noise intensity of jet aircraft is greatest
    A. rear of the engines at an angle of 10* on either side
    B. rear of the engines & at an angle of 45* on either side
    C. anywhere within a 25-foot radius
    D. within a 100ft radius
    B. Rear of the engines and at an angle of 45* on either side
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. When electromagnetic radiation is absorbed in the tissues of the body
    A. heat is produced
    B. genetic damage can result
    C. static charges can build up
    D. radiation sickness can be induced
    A. heat is produced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which form has an entry identifying the types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft?
    A. form 781H
    B. form 781A
    C. form 781F
    D. form 781J
    B. AFTO form 781A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. What is the first step in making sure an aircraft is safe for maintenance?
    A. making sure firefighting equipment is available
    B. checking forms for aircraft status
    C. installing safety pins
    D. making sure the aircraft is chocked and grounded
    B. checking forms for aircraft status
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. When are aircraft most susceptible to fire?
    A. while the engines are running
    B. during refueling
    C. during munitions loading
    D. during servicing of liquid oxygen
    A. while the engines are running
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What hazard is of special concern during aircraft brake fires?
    A. intense light from burning brake components
    B. flying debris from strut collapse
    C. smoke from burning fires
    D. flying debris from tire blowout
    D. flying debris from tire blowout
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Bombs can detonate within how long after being enveloped in flames
    A. 45 sec to one min
    B. instantaneously
    C. 5 to 10 min
    D. 2 to 4 min
    D. 2 to 4 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. When missiles are involved in an aircraft fire you should approach from
    A. the side of the aircraft
    B. the front of the aircraft
    C. the rear of the aircraft
    D. whichever way best fights the fire
    A. the side of the aircraft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. On a four person load crew who fights the fire
    A. 4 person
    B. 2 person
    C. crew chief
    D. 3 person
    D. 3 person
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Line badges are classified as what type of FOD
    A. papers
    B. metals
    C. plastics
    D. miscellaneous
    B. metals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Hailstones are classified as what type of FOD
    A. Stones
    B. Gravel
    C. Pebbles
    D. Miscellaneous
    D. miscellaneous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. What is a FOD walk
    An organized inspection and physical pickup of foreign objects
  15. Aluminum's formation of a tightly adhering oxide film
    A. requires heavy lubrication
    B. provides increased resistance to mild corrosive conditions
    C. prevents it from being primed
    D. offers reduced resistance
    B. provides increased resistance to mild corrosive conditions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. If unprotected, ferrous metal surfaces are
    A. easily corroded in the presence of high temp exhaust
    B. easily corroded if moisture is absent
    C. easily corroded if moisture is present
    D. highly resistant to corrosion
    C. easily corroded if moisture is present
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Piano hinges are prime spots for corrosion because they are natural traps for dirt salt moisture and
    A. blistering from heat
    B. residual oil
    C. constant actuation
    D. dissimilar metal contact
    D. dissimilar metal contact between the steel pin and the aluminum hinge tangs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. You should identify and correct corrosion when in what stage
    A. earliest
    B. endothermic
    C. final
    D. severe
    A. earliest
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. What corrosion accelerant agent does dust, dirt, acid spills, or waste materials provide
    A. exfoliant
    B. electrolyte
    C. cathode
    D. anode
    B. electrolyte
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed throughout the entire electrical system
    A. Main armament control panels
    B. Ground operations power override panels
    C. Aircraft power panels
    D. Emergency jettison control panels
    C. Aircraft power panels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. The energizing and deenergizing of bomb rack solenoids at selected weapons stations normally is performed through the
    A. subsystem control panels
    B. special weapons control panels
    C. jettison control panels
    D. main armament control panels
    D. main armament control panels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. What panel has circuitry used to activate an aircraft's radar set functions to their fully operational status so ground checkout of certain missile systems may be done
    A. subsystem control
    B. missile control
    C. audio/communication control
    D. jettison control
    B. missile control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. What panel works in conjunction with the special weapons control panels to facilitate all of the functions needed to release a special weapon
    A. missile control panel
    B. main armament control panel
    C. visual display control panel
    D. subsystem control panel
    B. main armament control panel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. What two armament system controls are found on the pilot's stick grip
    A. armament and chaff and flare switch
    B. armament release switch and missile consent
    C. trigger and chaff and flare switch
    D. trigger and armament release switch
    D. Trigger and armament release switch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which aircraft use integrated keyboards
    A. B-52, F-15E, and B-1
    B. AC-130, F-22, and B-52
    C. F-22, B-52, and B-1
    D. B-52, B-1, B-2, and AC-130
    D. B-52, B-1, B-2, and AC-130
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The functions of a digital system are initiated by the
    A. interface unit
    B. back up computer
    C. operator
    D. main computer
    C. operator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which aircraft employs all three stores management systems
    A. F-15
    B. B-52
    C. A-10
    D. B-1B
    B. B-52
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. What aircraft system monitors an aircraft's system and indicates or reports its status to the aircrew or ground maintenance technician
    A. controls and displays
    B. radar navigation
    C. communications
    D. fault isolation
    D. fault isolation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. In fault isolation systems using built in checks, the results of the test should narrow a fault down to a
    A. circuit card or component
    B. circuit card or line replaceable unit
    C. subsystem or system
    D. subsystem or line replaceable unit
    C. subsystem or system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. The advanced computer fault isolation system narrows malfunctions down to a single line replaceable unit
    A. 80% of the time
    B. 85% of the time
    C. 60% of the time
    D. 95% of the time
    D. 95% of the time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Before release firing pulses are allowed access to an installed nuclear weapon, an aircraft's nuclear weapons system must be properly
    A. monitored
    B. prearmed
    C. enabled
    D. safed
    C. enabled
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems normally facilitate the computerized release of onboard
    A. missiles
    B. nuclear bombs
    C. conventional bombs
    D. rockets
    A. missiles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which item is the only mechanically operated bomb rack presently in use
    A. BRU-44
    B. MAU-12
    C. MB-3A
    D. B-11
    D. B-11
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. During release, what component of the B-11 bomb shackle retains the arming wire
    A. retention lever
    B. A-6 release unit
    C. arming hook
    D. arming solenoid
    C. arming hook
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which bomb racks are nuclear capable
    A. MAU-40, BRU-46, AND BRU-47
    B. MAU-12, BRU-56, AND BRU-61
    C. MAU-12, BRU-44, AND BRU-47
    D. MAU-40, MAU-50, AND BRU-47
    C. MAU-12, BRU-44, AND BRU-47
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Nuclear capable bomb racks are equipped with
    A. umbilical connectors for the installed weapon
    B. an in-flight safety lock
    C. center arming solenoids only
    D. separate electrical and mechanical safety pins
    B. an in-flight safety lock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. What component of a cluster rack actuates the B-11 bomb shackle to release munitions
    A. A-6 release unit
    B. BRU-6 release unit
    C. BRU-11 release unit
    D. A-11 release unit
    A. A-6 release unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Rotating of the bomb module swing arms is enabled by
    A. pneumatic actuators
    B. hydraulic actuators
    C. cartridge-powered actuators
    D. electrical actuators
    C. cartridge-powered actuators
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. How many munitions can be loaded onto the MIL-STD-1760 enhanced conventional bomb module (SECBM)
    A. 20
    B. 28
    C. 10
    D. 8
    C. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. How many MK-82 500 bombs can be carried by the bomb rack assembly
    A. 20
    B. 8
    C. 28
    D. 10
    A. 20
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which columns are capable of holding cluster bomb units on the smart bomb assembly SBRA
    A. 1,2,3, and 4
    B. 2, and 3
    C. 1,3, and 4
    D. 1, and 4
    A. 1,2,3, and 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. The multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled
    A. mechanically
    B. hydraulically
    C. pneumatically
    D. electrically
    D. electrically
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. During ground rotation of the multipurpose rotary launcher, speed is
    A. one-half normal speed
    B. one-fourth normal speed
    C. one-eighth normal speed
    D. normal speed
    C. one-eighth normal speed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Which bomb rack is used on the rotary launch assembly (RLA)
    A. mau-12
    B. bru-61/a
    C. bru-44b/a
    D. bru-56/a
    C. bru-44b/a
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. When MASTER ARM power is initially applied, a loaded TER will step to the
    A. last loaded station position of the unit
    B. first station of the unit
    C. first loaded station position of the unit
    D. last station of the unit
    C. first loaded station position of the unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. When BDU-33s are carried on a TER what provides alignment of the bomb
    A. set of rear swaybraces
    B. yoke adapter
    C. short piston
    D. tension spring
    B. yoke adapter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. What bomb racks are used by the BRU-57 Smart Rack to carry stores weighing up to 1,000 pounds
    A. b-11
    B. bru-46
    C. mau-12
    D. bru-47
    B. BRU-46
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which munition is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying
    A. any munition or dispenser with 14 inch lug spacing
    B. GBU-39
    C. CBU 87/89
    D. BDU-33
    B. GBU-39
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. How many munitions is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying
    A. two
    B. six
    C. four
    D. three
    C. four
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. How does the safety clutch safe the F-22 pylons
    A. electrically
    B. mechanically
    C. electrically and mechanically
    D. pneumatically
    A. electrically
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. The interchangeable pylons are
    A. installed at one station only
    B. installed differently
    C. loaded differently
    D. installed at any station
    D. installed at any station
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. What is the only gas-operated missile launcher
    A. lau-106
    B. lau-117
    C. lau-142
    D. lau-88
    A. lau-106
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. What is the only pneudraulicly operated missile launcher
    A. lau-88
    B. lau-142
    C. lau-117
    D. lau-106
    B. lau-142
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. If the lau-142's ground safety lever is not in the GND position what will happen if the launcher fully expands
    A. launcher will retract
    B. launcher will release the missile hangars
    C. impulse carts will fire
    D. launcher will detach
    B. launcher will release missile hangars
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. What do you use to coat launcher rail surfaces
    A. Molybdenum disulfide (drylube)
    B. silicone spray oil
    C. VVL-800
    D. spray paint
    A. molybdenum disulfide (dry lube)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. On the LAU-88 missile launcher, what keeps the shear pin from backing out during flight
    A. lock washer
    B. lock nut
    C. cotter pin
    D. spring pin
    B. lock nut
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. What missile launcher carries the AGM-114
    A. lau-118
    B. modified m299
    C. lau-117
    D. lau-88
    B. modified m299
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. On aim-9 and aim-120 launchers what prevents the missile from leaving the launcher if the rocket motor fires.
    A. detent spring pressure
    B. electrically operated snubbers
    C. an in-flight lock
    D. dampners
    C. an in-flight lock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. What is the only launcher that automatically engages the missile umbilical during loading
    A. lau-117
    B. modified m299
    C. lau-118
    D. lau-88
    B. modified m299
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. What is the rocket capacity of the lau-131 rocket launcher
    A. 13
    B. 7
    C. 5
    D. 19
    B. 7
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. What mechanism withing the lau-131's tubes restrains the rockets against normal flying loads
    A. inflight locks
    B. snubbers
    C. rocket retainer assemblies
    D. detents
    D. detents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. How is the lau-131 rocket pod safed
    A. no safety device
    B. electrically with a shorting pin
    C. mechanically with a safing cover
    D. electrically with a safing clutch
    B. electrically with a shorting pin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. What adapter was developed to allow the B-1 to carry and Drop BDU-33s
    A. rotary rack adapter
    B. single station unit
    C. station adapter unit
    D. practice bomb adapter rack
    D. practice bomb adapter rack
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser
    A. 12
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8
    D. 8
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. What bombing system release option is equated to a single selected weapons release
    A. manual-computed
    B. manual
    C. computed
    D. automatic
    B. manual
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. What aircraft-generated computer signal allows the AIM-120 missile to begin its launch cycle
    A. umbilical retract
    B. radar lock on
    C. infrared lock on
    D. release consent
    D. release consent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. What armament system circuits are normally disabled during selective jettison
    A. armament buss
    B. electrical fuzing
    C. mechanical fuzing
    D. essential buss
    C. mechanical fuzing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. What aircraft does not have pylon jettisoning capability
    F-16
  69. Who has the authority to change time constraints of operational/functional checks
    A. division chief
    B. shop supervisor
    C. local commander
    D. flight chief
    C. local commander
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Which of the following is a detrimental effect of barrel heating
    A. increased barrel wear and warping
    B. reduced barrel pressure
    C. excessive barrel pressure
    D. increased susceptibility to corrosion
    A. increased barrel wear and warping
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. To complete the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied to the
    A. detent
    B. face of the bolt
    C. recuperator spring
    D. breech housing
    D. face of the bolt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. What is the maximum firing rate of the GAU-2
    A. 6000 spm
    B. 1500 spm
    C. 2000 spm
    D. 4000 spm
    D. 4000 spm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. What ammunition feed system is used to supply the GAU-2
    A. linear linkless
    B. linkless
    C. stripper clip
    D. linked
    D. linked
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. What component of the M61A1 breech bolt locks it in the firing position
    A. locking buttress
    B. firing tang
    C. locking block
    D. firing pin
    C. locking block
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. What component of the M61A1 breech bolt makes electrical contact with the primer of the round
    A. firing tang
    B. electrical contact
    C. firing pin
    D. firing contact
    C. firing pin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. What M61A1 gun component locks the barrels into position
    A. muzzle clamp
    B. diverter clamp
    C. midbarrel support
    D. center clamp
    D. center clamp
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. What caliber of ammunition is fired by the GAU-12/U
    A. 20mm
    B. 30mm
    C. 25mm
    D. 7.62 mm
    C. 25mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. What is the firing rate of the 25mm gun
    A. 1200 +- 100
    B. 1100 +- 100
    C. 1800 +- 100
    D. 2100 +- 100
    C. 1800 +-100
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Into how many parts is the GAU-8/A 30mm gun rotor assembly divided
    A. 4
    B. 2
    C. 1
    D. 3
    B. 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. What GAU-8/A 30mm gun component locks the barrel in the rotor
    A. muzzle clamp
    B. interrupted locking lugs
    C. midbarrel support
    D. stub rotor
    C. midbarrel support
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. The M240 operates under the
    A. closed bolt concept
    B. open bolt concept
    C. gatling princliple
    D. recoil operated concept
    B. open bolt concept
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. The GAU-18 machine gun is operated
    A. by recoil
    B. by gas
    C. electrically
    D. pneudralically
    A. by recoil
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. When does the recoiling step of the GAU-18 firing cycle begin
    A. the instant of firing
    B. after the cocking step
    C. after counter recoil
    D. during manual charging
    A. the instant of firing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. What ammunition feed system is used to supply the M2A1 40mm gun
    A. linear linkless
    B. linkless
    C. linked
    D. clip
    D. clip
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. What two 40mm gun components absorb rearward thrust caused by firing the gun
    A. recuperator cylinder and recoil spring
    B. cradle assembly and recuperator cylinder
    C. recuperator spring and recoil cylinder
    D. cradle assembly and recoil cylinder
    C. recuperator spring and recoil cylinder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. What M2A1 40mm gun component holds the barrel assembly in the gun and wont let it fire if the barrel is not properly installed
    A. barrel locking spring assemble
    B. barrel locking tang assembly
    C. spade grip
    D. breech ring assembly
    D. breech ring assembly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. What component of the 105mm gun is composed of the sleigh, recuperator assemblies
    A. housing assembly
    B. cannon assembly
    C. recoil mechanism
    D. cradle assembly
    C. recoil mechanism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. What unit of the linkless system is attacked to the aft end of a drum assembly
    A. transfer
    B. access
    C. entrance
    D. exit
    C. entrance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. The function of the transfer unit on the linkless system is to remove rounds from the
    A. conveyor elements and feeds them into the gun
    B. return chute elements and places them in the drum
    C. drum and places them in the feed chute
    D. conveyor elements and places them in the drum
    A. conveyor elements and feed them into the gun
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. On gun gas scavenge systems, after the trigger is released, purge doors stay open for
    A. 120 seconds
    B. 30 seconds
    C. 40 seconds
    D. 10 seconds
    B. 30 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. What aircraft makes use of a moveable door covering the firing port for the projectiles to exit the aircraft
    A. F-16
    B. AC-130
    C. F-22
    D. F-15E
    C. F-22
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. What are the two types of operational/functional checks for gun systems
    A. pneumatic and electrical
    B. pneumatic and hydraulic
    C. mechanical and electrical
    D. mechanical and hydraulic
    C. mechanical and electrical
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. When boresighting, the boresight target is normally placed
    A. 1000 feet from the nose wheel axle
    B. 2250 inches from the nose wheel axle
    C. 2250 feet from the nose wheel axle
    D. 1000 inches from the nose wheel axle
    D. 1000 inches from the nose wheel axle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Where is the adjustment made on the gun when boresighting
    A. heads up display
    B. barrels
    C. gun mounts
    D. nose mount
    C. gun mounts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Before handling any electrically primed munitions you must
    A. verify the munitions service life
    B. bond yourself
    C. verify the munitions serial number
    D. ground yourself
    D. ground yourself
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. If white phosphorus contacts the skin you must keep it covered with
    A. foam from a fire extinguisher
    B. a wet cloth
    C. a dry cloth
    D. flameproof material
    B. a wet cloth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. The first thing you do in muns prep is make sure the munition
    A. matches mission requirements
    B. is serviceable
    C. matches fuzing requirements
    D. is reliable
    A. matches mission requirements
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. During what loading step do you insert arming wire loops into the bomb rack solenoids
    A. fuzing
    B. muns prep
    C. accessory prep
    D. loading
    D. loading
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. During a concurrent servicing operation what servicing action cannot be performed while refueling
    A. loading
    B. oxygen
    C. oil
    D. nitrogen
    B. oxygen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. During a concurrent servicing operation a concurrent servicing supervisor is not required when
    A. no oxygen servicing is taking place
    B. fueling is not being performed
    C. no loading is taking place
    D. engines are not running
    B. fueling is not being performed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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