Set 2 Volume 3

Before operating bomb bay door systems for check out you must make sure.
A. the system has been safed or disabled
B.the system safety pins and rigging stops have been installed
C. all personnel and equipment have been cleared from the area of operation.
D. the proper strut supports have been installed.

What condition permits helicopter rotor blades to droop within five feet of the ground.
A. Droop stop malfunction
B. Tail swing malfunction.
C. Rotor dip malfunction
D. Helicopter take-off

The noise intensity of jet aircraft is greatest
A. rear of the engines at an angle of 10* on either side
B. rear of the engines & at an angle of 45* on either side
C. anywhere within a 25-foot radius
D. within a 100ft radius

When electromagnetic radiation is absorbed in the tissues of the body
A. heat is produced
B. genetic damage can result
C. static charges can build up
D. radiation sickness can be induced

Which form has an entry identifying the types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft?
A. form 781H
B. form 781A
C. form 781F
D. form 781J

What is the first step in making sure an aircraft is safe for maintenance?
A. making sure firefighting equipment is available
B. checking forms for aircraft status
C. installing safety pins
D. making sure the aircraft is chocked and grounded

When are aircraft most susceptible to fire?
A. while the engines are running
B. during refueling
C. during munitions loading
D. during servicing of liquid oxygen

What hazard is of special concern during aircraft brake fires?
A. intense light from burning brake components
B. flying debris from strut collapse
C. smoke from burning fires
D. flying debris from tire blowout

Bombs can detonate within how long after being enveloped in flames
A. 45 sec to one min
B. instantaneously
C. 5 to 10 min
D. 2 to 4 min

When missiles are involved in an aircraft fire you should approach from
A. the side of the aircraft
B. the front of the aircraft
C. the rear of the aircraft
D. whichever way best fights the fire

On a four person load crew who fights the fire
A. 4 person
B. 2 person
C. crew chief
D. 3 person

Line badges are classified as what type of FOD
A. papers
B. metals
C. plastics
D. miscellaneous

Hailstones are classified as what type of FOD
A. Stones
B. Gravel
C. Pebbles
D. Miscellaneous

What is a FOD walk

Aluminum's formation of a tightly adhering oxide film
A. requires heavy lubrication
B. provides increased resistance to mild corrosive conditions
C. prevents it from being primed
D. offers reduced resistance

If unprotected, ferrous metal surfaces are
A. easily corroded in the presence of high temp exhaust
B. easily corroded if moisture is absent
C. easily corroded if moisture is present
D. highly resistant to corrosion

Piano hinges are prime spots for corrosion because they are natural traps for dirt salt moisture and
A. blistering from heat
B. residual oil
C. constant actuation
D. dissimilar metal contact

You should identify and correct corrosion when in what stage
A. earliest
B. endothermic
C. final
D. severe

What corrosion accelerant agent does dust, dirt, acid spills, or waste materials provide
A. exfoliant
B. electrolyte
C. cathode
D. anode

Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed throughout the entire electrical system
A. Main armament control panels
B. Ground operations power override panels
C. Aircraft power panels
D. Emergency jettison control panels

The energizing and deenergizing of bomb rack solenoids at selected weapons stations normally is performed through the
A. subsystem control panels
B. special weapons control panels
C. jettison control panels
D. main armament control panels

What panel has circuitry used to activate an aircraft's radar set functions to their fully operational status so ground checkout of certain missile systems may be done
A. subsystem control
B. missile control
C. audio/communication control
D. jettison control

What panel works in conjunction with the special weapons control panels to facilitate all of the functions needed to release a special weapon
A. missile control panel
B. main armament control panel
C. visual display control panel
D. subsystem control panel

What two armament system controls are found on the pilot's stick grip
A. armament and chaff and flare switch
B. armament release switch and missile consent
C. trigger and chaff and flare switch
D. trigger and armament release switch

Which aircraft use integrated keyboards
A. B-52, F-15E, and B-1
B. AC-130, F-22, and B-52
C. F-22, B-52, and B-1
D. B-52, B-1, B-2, and AC-130

The functions of a digital system are initiated by the
A. interface unit
B. back up computer
C. operator
D. main computer

Which aircraft employs all three stores management systems
A. F-15
B. B-52
C. A-10
D. B-1B

What aircraft system monitors an aircraft's system and indicates or reports its status to the aircrew or ground maintenance technician
A. controls and displays
B. radar navigation
C. communications
D. fault isolation

In fault isolation systems using built in checks, the results of the test should narrow a fault down to a
A. circuit card or component
B. circuit card or line replaceable unit
C. subsystem or system
D. subsystem or line replaceable unit

The advanced computer fault isolation system narrows malfunctions down to a single line replaceable unit
A. 80% of the time
B. 85% of the time
C. 60% of the time
D. 95% of the time

Before release firing pulses are allowed access to an installed nuclear weapon, an aircraft's nuclear weapons system must be properly
A. monitored
B. prearmed
C. enabled
D. safed

Radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems normally facilitate the computerized release of onboard
A. missiles
B. nuclear bombs
C. conventional bombs
D. rockets

Which item is the only mechanically operated bomb rack presently in use
A. BRU-44
B. MAU-12
C. MB-3A
D. B-11

During release, what component of the B-11 bomb shackle retains the arming wire
A. retention lever
B. A-6 release unit
C. arming hook
D. arming solenoid

Which bomb racks are nuclear capable
A. MAU-40, BRU-46, AND BRU-47
B. MAU-12, BRU-56, AND BRU-61
C. MAU-12, BRU-44, AND BRU-47
D. MAU-40, MAU-50, AND BRU-47

Nuclear capable bomb racks are equipped with
A. umbilical connectors for the installed weapon
B. an in-flight safety lock
C. center arming solenoids only
D. separate electrical and mechanical safety pins

What component of a cluster rack actuates the B-11 bomb shackle to release munitions
A. A-6 release unit
B. BRU-6 release unit
C. BRU-11 release unit
D. A-11 release unit

Rotating of the bomb module swing arms is enabled by
A. pneumatic actuators
B. hydraulic actuators
C. cartridge-powered actuators
D. electrical actuators

How many munitions can be loaded onto the MIL-STD-1760 enhanced conventional bomb module (SECBM)
A. 20
B. 28
C. 10
D. 8

How many MK-82 500 bombs can be carried by the bomb rack assembly
A. 20
B. 8
C. 28
D. 10

Which columns are capable of holding cluster bomb units on the smart bomb assembly SBRA
A. 1,2,3, and 4
B. 2, and 3
C. 1,3, and 4
D. 1, and 4

The multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled
A. mechanically
B. hydraulically
C. pneumatically
D. electrically

During ground rotation of the multipurpose rotary launcher, speed is
A. one-half normal speed
B. one-fourth normal speed
C. one-eighth normal speed
D. normal speed

Which bomb rack is used on the rotary launch assembly (RLA)
A. mau-12
B. bru-61/a
C. bru-44b/a
D. bru-56/a

When MASTER ARM power is initially applied, a loaded TER will step to the
A. last loaded station position of the unit
B. first station of the unit
C. first loaded station position of the unit
D. last station of the unit

When BDU-33s are carried on a TER what provides alignment of the bomb
A. set of rear swaybraces
B. yoke adapter
C. short piston
D. tension spring

What bomb racks are used by the BRU-57 Smart Rack to carry stores weighing up to 1,000 pounds
A. b-11
B. bru-46
C. mau-12
D. bru-47

Which munition is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying
A. any munition or dispenser with 14 inch lug spacing
B. GBU-39
C. CBU 87/89
D. BDU-33

How many munitions is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying
A. two
B. six
C. four
D. three

How does the safety clutch safe the F-22 pylons
A. electrically
B. mechanically
C. electrically and mechanically
D. pneumatically

The interchangeable pylons are
A. installed at one station only
B. installed differently
C. loaded differently
D. installed at any station

What is the only gas-operated missile launcher
A. lau-106
B. lau-117
C. lau-142
D. lau-88

What is the only pneudraulicly operated missile launcher
A. lau-88
B. lau-142
C. lau-117
D. lau-106

If the lau-142's ground safety lever is not in the GND position what will happen if the launcher fully expands
A. launcher will retract
B. launcher will release the missile hangars
C. impulse carts will fire
D. launcher will detach

What do you use to coat launcher rail surfaces
A. Molybdenum disulfide (drylube)
B. silicone spray oil
C. VVL-800
D. spray paint

On the LAU-88 missile launcher, what keeps the shear pin from backing out during flight
A. lock washer
B. lock nut
C. cotter pin
D. spring pin

What missile launcher carries the AGM-114
A. lau-118
B. modified m299
C. lau-117
D. lau-88

On aim-9 and aim-120 launchers what prevents the missile from leaving the launcher if the rocket motor fires.
A. detent spring pressure
B. electrically operated snubbers
C. an in-flight lock
D. dampners

What is the only launcher that automatically engages the missile umbilical during loading
A. lau-117
B. modified m299
C. lau-118
D. lau-88

What is the rocket capacity of the lau-131 rocket launcher
A. 13
B. 7
C. 5
D. 19

What mechanism withing the lau-131's tubes restrains the rockets against normal flying loads
A. inflight locks
B. snubbers
C. rocket retainer assemblies
D. detents

How is the lau-131 rocket pod safed
A. no safety device
B. electrically with a shorting pin
C. mechanically with a safing cover
D. electrically with a safing clutch

What adapter was developed to allow the B-1 to carry and Drop BDU-33s
A. rotary rack adapter
B. single station unit
C. station adapter unit
D. practice bomb adapter rack

How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser
A. 12
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

What bombing system release option is equated to a single selected weapons release
A. manual-computed
B. manual
C. computed
D. automatic

What aircraft-generated computer signal allows the AIM-120 missile to begin its launch cycle
A. umbilical retract
B. radar lock on
C. infrared lock on
D. release consent

What armament system circuits are normally disabled during selective jettison
A. armament buss
B. electrical fuzing
C. mechanical fuzing
D. essential buss

What aircraft does not have pylon jettisoning capability

Who has the authority to change time constraints of operational/functional checks
A. division chief
B. shop supervisor
C. local commander
D. flight chief

Which of the following is a detrimental effect of barrel heating
A. increased barrel wear and warping
B. reduced barrel pressure
C. excessive barrel pressure
D. increased susceptibility to corrosion

To complete the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied to the
A. detent
B. face of the bolt
C. recuperator spring
D. breech housing

What is the maximum firing rate of the GAU-2
A. 6000 spm
B. 1500 spm
C. 2000 spm
D. 4000 spm

What ammunition feed system is used to supply the GAU-2
A. linear linkless
B. linkless
C. stripper clip
D. linked

What component of the M61A1 breech bolt locks it in the firing position
A. locking buttress
B. firing tang
C. locking block
D. firing pin

What component of the M61A1 breech bolt makes electrical contact with the primer of the round
A. firing tang
B. electrical contact
C. firing pin
D. firing contact

What M61A1 gun component locks the barrels into position
A. muzzle clamp
B. diverter clamp
C. midbarrel support
D. center clamp

What caliber of ammunition is fired by the GAU-12/U
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 25mm
D. 7.62 mm

What is the firing rate of the 25mm gun
A. 1200 +- 100
B. 1100 +- 100
C. 1800 +- 100
D. 2100 +- 100

Into how many parts is the GAU-8/A 30mm gun rotor assembly divided
A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3

What GAU-8/A 30mm gun component locks the barrel in the rotor
A. muzzle clamp
B. interrupted locking lugs
C. midbarrel support
D. stub rotor

The M240 operates under the
A. closed bolt concept
B. open bolt concept
C. gatling princliple
D. recoil operated concept

The GAU-18 machine gun is operated
A. by recoil
B. by gas
C. electrically
D. pneudralically

When does the recoiling step of the GAU-18 firing cycle begin
A. the instant of firing
B. after the cocking step
C. after counter recoil
D. during manual charging

What ammunition feed system is used to supply the M2A1 40mm gun
A. linear linkless
B. linkless
C. linked
D. clip

What two 40mm gun components absorb rearward thrust caused by firing the gun
A. recuperator cylinder and recoil spring
B. cradle assembly and recuperator cylinder
C. recuperator spring and recoil cylinder
D. cradle assembly and recoil cylinder

What M2A1 40mm gun component holds the barrel assembly in the gun and wont let it fire if the barrel is not properly installed
A. barrel locking spring assemble
B. barrel locking tang assembly
C. spade grip
D. breech ring assembly

What component of the 105mm gun is composed of the sleigh, recuperator assemblies
A. housing assembly
B. cannon assembly
C. recoil mechanism
D. cradle assembly

What unit of the linkless system is attacked to the aft end of a drum assembly
A. transfer
B. access
C. entrance
D. exit

The function of the transfer unit on the linkless system is to remove rounds from the
A. conveyor elements and feeds them into the gun
B. return chute elements and places them in the drum
C. drum and places them in the feed chute
D. conveyor elements and places them in the drum

On gun gas scavenge systems, after the trigger is released, purge doors stay open for
A. 120 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 40 seconds
D. 10 seconds

What aircraft makes use of a moveable door covering the firing port for the projectiles to exit the aircraft
A. F-16
B. AC-130
C. F-22
D. F-15E

What are the two types of operational/functional checks for gun systems
A. pneumatic and electrical
B. pneumatic and hydraulic
C. mechanical and electrical
D. mechanical and hydraulic

When boresighting, the boresight target is normally placed
A. 1000 feet from the nose wheel axle
B. 2250 inches from the nose wheel axle
C. 2250 feet from the nose wheel axle
D. 1000 inches from the nose wheel axle

Where is the adjustment made on the gun when boresighting
A. heads up display
B. barrels
C. gun mounts
D. nose mount

Before handling any electrically primed munitions you must
A. verify the munitions service life
B. bond yourself
C. verify the munitions serial number
D. ground yourself

If white phosphorus contacts the skin you must keep it covered with
A. foam from a fire extinguisher
B. a wet cloth
C. a dry cloth
D. flameproof material

The first thing you do in muns prep is make sure the munition
A. matches mission requirements
B. is serviceable
C. matches fuzing requirements
D. is reliable

During what loading step do you insert arming wire loops into the bomb rack solenoids
A. fuzing
B. muns prep
C. accessory prep
D. loading

During a concurrent servicing operation what servicing action cannot be performed while refueling
A. loading
B. oxygen
C. oil
D. nitrogen

During a concurrent servicing operation a concurrent servicing supervisor is not required when
A. no oxygen servicing is taking place
B. fueling is not being performed
C. no loading is taking place
D. engines are not running