EMS Exam 1 Questions

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EMS Exam 1 Questions
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Questions ch. 1-5
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  1. The patient's first and perhaps most crucial contact with the EMS system occurs when the _________ arrives.

    A. emergency medical responder (EMR) 
    B. paramedic ambulance
    C. emergency medical technician (EMT) 
    A. emergency medical responder (EMR)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The emergency medical system (EMS) was developed: 

    A. to give patients a greater chance for survival. 
    B. to reduce the time spent waiting for hospital treatment. 
    C. to make better use of the physicians' time and energy.
    D. to eliminate unnecessary hospital treatment. 
    A. to give patients a greater chance for survival.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. An EMR needs a set of skills that includes: 
    a. controlling airway, breathing, and circulation. 
    b. treating wounds and shock.
    c. spinting injuries to stabilize extremities. 
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  4. When EMTs or paramedics arrive, the EMR should: 
    A. assist the EMTs or paramedics. 
    B. get statements from bystanders. 
    C. leave the scene as quickly as possible. 
    d. all of the above.
    A. assist the EMTs or paramedics.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. A person who is trained and certified to provide advanced life support (ALS) and other medical procedures is called: 
    A. an EMR. 
    B. a basic life support (BLS) provider.
    C. a paramedic. 
    d. none of the above.
    C. a paramedic.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following needs to be documented by the EMR? 
    a. condition of the patient when found 
    b. vital signs 
    c. agency and personnel who took over treatment 
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  7. The treatment provided by the EMR may be followed by care given by: 
    a. nurses. 
    b. paramedics. 
    c. EMTs. 
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  8. A physician who gives direction to EMRs: 
    a. helps to set medical policy. 
    b. directs training courses. 
    c. is known as indirect or off-line medical direction. 
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  9. Which of the following is NOT a component of the quality improvement (QI) process identified by the Institute of Medicine? 
    A. efficiency 
    B. certification
    C. effectiveness 
    D. safety 
    B. certification
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Once other personnel such as paramedics or EMTs have arrived on the scene, the responsibilities of the EMR end. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  11. Which of the following statements regarding EMR certification is FALSE? 
    A. Once certified as an EMR, you are obligated to conform to the standards that are set nationally or by your state for your level of practice. 
    B. You are responsible for keeping your certification up-to-date by maintaining continuing educationrequirements. 
    C. It is the responsibility of the medical director to track certification requirements. 
    D. Failure to keep your certification current can result in penalties.
    C. It is the responsibility of the medical director to track certification requirements.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. A person who is able to perform BLS skills and limited ALS skills is a(n): 
    A. EMR. 
    B. EMT. 
    C. paramedic.
    D. advanced EMT (AEMT). 
    D. advanced EMT (AEMT).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. EMRs are a critical component of an EMS system because they are:

    A.  responsible for reporting such emergencies.
    B.  the first medically trained personnel to
    arrive on the scene.
    C.  able to provide both basic and advanced life
    support.
    D.  trained in traffic control.
    B.  the first medically trained personnel toarrive on the scene.
  14. Which of the following is not a level of care
    typically found during the EMS response phase?

    A.  EMT

    B.  AEMT

    C.  paramedic

    D.  physician
    D.  physician
  15. The civilian EMS system tends to follow trends seen in which
    area of medicine?

    A.  military
    medicine

    B.  hospital
    medicine

    C.  veterinary
    medicine

    D.  private
    physician medicine
    A.  militarymedicine
  16. National levels of EMS training include all of the
    following except:

    A. advanced first aid.

    B. EMR.

    C.  AEMT.

    D.  paramedic.
    A. advanced first aid.
  17. The major emphasis of the EMR curriculum deals with ____________
    of the ill or injured patient in the prehospital setting.

    A.  advanced life
    support

    B.  interpretation
    of electrocardiograms

    C.  assessment and
    care

    D.  techniques of
    advanced airway care
    C.  assessment andcare
  18. The overall leader of the EMS system is the physician.

    A.  True

    B.  False
    A.  True
  19. The difference
    between online (direct) and off-line (indirect) medical direction is that:

    A.  off-line medical direction does not need
    protocols.

    B.  off-line orders are given by the on-duty
    physician, usually over the radio or phone.

    C.  online medical direction uses standing orders.

    D.  online orders are given by the on-duty physician, usually over the radio or phone
    D. onlineorders are given by the on-duty physician, usually over the radio or phone
  20. The grief process is important for the patient and patient's family, but does not affect a well-trained and emotionally stable caregiver. 

    TRUE FALSE
    FALSE
  21. In the grief process, a normal reaction is one of disbelief, which protects those who are experiencing a grieving situation. This stage is called: 
    A. depression. 
    B. preservation. 
    C. denial. 
    D. skepticism.
    C. denial.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. The stage of the grief process that involves trying to negotiate a postponement of death is called: 
    A. bargaining. 
    B. acceptance. 
    C. denial.
    D. contracts. 
    A. bargaining.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. The first step in managing stress is to:  
    A. get more sleep.
    B. change eating habits.
    C. recognize the signs and symptoms. 
    D. change jobs. 
    C. recognize the signs and symptoms.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Consuming a healthy diet involves limiting which group of foods? 
    A. vegetables
    B. milk and cheese 
    C. meats and fish 
    D. sugars and fats 
    D. sugars and fats
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Alcoholic drinks will relax you and help you deal with the stress of your job. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  26. Tuberculosis is spread by contact with contaminated: 
    A. blood. 
    B. air. 
    C. feces. 
    D. all of the above.
    B. air.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. The standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) call for the use of: 
    A. supplies manufactured in the United States. 
    B. medical gloves, protective eye wear, and a face shield or pocket mask.
    C. equipment with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) seal. 
    D. reflective vests and hard hats or helmets. 
    B. medical gloves, protective eye wear, and a face shield or pocket mask.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. The MOST important consideration at the scene of an accident is: 
    A. to protect the emergency scene and emergency providers from further accidents or injury. 
    B. to have your vehicle facing the flow of traffic.
    C. to park your vehicle as close as possible to the victims. 
    D. to make sure your vehicle is visible. 
    A. to protect the emergency scene and emergency providers from further accidents or injury.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. A competent, well-trained EMR will experience no stress in carrying out his or her responsibilities. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  30. Which of the following statements is FALSE? 

    A. A CISD is a type of investigation. 
    B.The purpose of a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) is to allow an open discussion of feelings, fears, and reactions to a high stress situation. 
    C. CISDs are usually held 24 to 72 hours after a major incident. 
    D. CISD leaders offer suggestions and information on overcoming stress.
    A. A CISD is a type of investigation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following immunizations are recommended for EMS providers? 
    A. influenza 
    B. tetanus prophylaxis 
    C. hepatitis B 
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  32. You should park your vehicle at an emergency scene so that it protects the area from traffic hazards. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  33. Some warning signs that an EMR is being affected by stress include:

    A.  overeating
    and ringing in the ears.
    B.  rapid
    urination and sweating.
    C.  indecisiveness
    and guilt.
    D.  increased
    sexual activity and sleep.
    C.  indecisivenessand guilt.
  34. All of the following are recommended lifestyle changes an EMR may take to deal with job stress except:

    A.  developing more healthful and positive dietary
    habits.
    B.  devoting time to relaxation.
    C.  exercising.
    D.  avoiding talking about his or her feelings.
    D.  avoiding talking about his or her feelings.
  35. A meeting held by a team of peer counselors and mental health professionals within 24 to 72 hours after a major incident is called a(n):

    A.  critical incident stress debriefing.
    B.  quality circle.
    C.  MCI.
    D.  incident critique.
    A.  critical incident stress debriefing.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Standard precautions include all of the following except:

    A.  proper handling of used needles.
    B.  avoiding mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing whenever possible.
    C.  washing your hands after patient contact.
    D.  wearing medical gloves when handling patients.
    B.  avoiding mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing whenever possible.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Certain immunizations are recommended for EMS providers, including:

    A.  influenza.
    B.  tetanus prophylaxis.
    C.  Hepatitis B.
    D.  all of the above.
    D.  all of the above.
  38. The most important job of the EMR is to:

    A.  provide medical advice to friends and
    B.  immediately assess the patient and call the hospital.
    C.  stay physically safe and emotionally well.
    community members.
    D.  check the unit at the end of each shift.
    C.  stay physically safe and emotionally well.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. If you suspect that a scene involves violence, and if weapons are visible, you should:

    A.  enter the scene carefully.
    B.  retreat and wait for the police.
    C.  blow your siren to scare the perpetrators
    away.
    D.  focus your efforts on the patient.
    B.  retreat and wait for the police.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. The manner in which an individual must act or behave when giving care is called:

    A.  duty to act.
    B.  negligence.
    C.  competency.
    D.  standard of care.
    D.  standard of care.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMR is called:

    A.  Good Samaritan laws.
    B.  advance directives.
    C.  duty to act.
    D.  scope of care.
    D.  scope of care.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Consent based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve lifesaving interventions is called:

    A.  implied consent.
    B.  negligence.
    C.  expressed consent.
    D.  informed consent.
    A.  implied consent.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. When a patient lets you know verbally that he or she is willing to accept treatment, you have received:

    A.  expressed consent.
    B.  patient refusal.
    C.  implied consent.
    D.  consent for a minor.
    A.  expressed consent.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. What must a patient demonstrate to refuse medical care?

    A.  the ability to treat himself or herself
    B.  disinterest
    C.  a college degree
    D.  competency
    D.  competency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Termination of care for the patient without ensuring the continuation of care at the same level or higher is called:

    A.  liability infraction.
    B.  battery.
    C.  abandonment.
    D.  breach of duty.
    C.  abandonment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. An example of ensuring continuity during the
    transfer of care of the patient would be:

    A.  performing more hospital procedures in the field.
    B.  only giving a report directly to a physician.
    C.  providing pertinent patient information to the hospital staff.
    D.  none of the above.
    C.  providing pertinent patient information to the hospital staff.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. If an EMR with a duty to act fails to provide the standard of care, and if this failure causes harm or injury to the patient, the EMR may be accused of:

    A.  assault.
    B.  negligence.
    C.  abandonment.
    D.  breach of promise.
    B.  negligence.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which of the following is not a condition of negligence?

    A.  breach of duty
    B.  abandonment
    C.  resulting injuries
    D.  duty to act
    E.   proximate cause
    B.  abandonment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. To avoid violating patient confidentiality, the EMR should:

    A.  perform an accurate interview.
    B.  avoid discussing privileged information with family members.
    C.  develop the ability to listen to others.
    D.  communicate with medical direction.
    B. avoid discussing privileged information with family members.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. ____________ transmits electrocardiograms and other patient data to online medical control.

    A.     A fax machine
    B.    Telemetry
    C.     A mobile data terminal
    D.     A paging system
    B.    Telemetry
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. If you are not sure that you have received all the dispatch information correctly, ask the dispatcher to:

    A.     write it down.
    B.    call back later.
    C.    speak louder.
    D.     repeat it.
    D.     repeat it.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Which information should not be relayed when transferring care of a patient to other professionals?

    A.     your personal feelings about the patient’s activities prior to
    B.    description of the patient’s chief complaint
    C.    description of the history of the incident
    the incident
    D.    description of the patient’s level of responsiveness
    A.     your personal feelings about the patient’s activities prior tothe incident
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. What is the most important thing to do when dealing with a patient who is displaying
    disruptive behavior?

    A.     Take weapons away from the patient.
    B.     Ensure personal safety.
    C.    Leave your partner alone with the patient to reduce the patient’s level of agitation.
    D.     Provide patient care regardless of threats.
    B.     Ensure personal safety.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. All of the following should be documented in your patient care report except:

    A.     the specific treatments rendered by the receiving medical crews.
    B.    the treatment you administered to the patient.
    C.    the patient’s chief complaint.
    D.     pertinent medical conditions.
    A.     the specific treatments rendered by the receiving medical crews.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The flapper valve that prevents food and foreign objects from entering the trachea is called the:

    A.     epiglottis.
    B.     larynx.
    C.    bronchi.
    D.    pharynx.
    A.     epiglottis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Oxygen travels from the environment to the lungs in what order?

    A.    epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, alveoli
    B.     nose, larynx, trachea, lungs
    C.     mouth, pharynx, trachea, alveoli
    D.     larynx, esophagus, trachea, alveoli
    C.     mouth, pharynx, trachea, alveoli
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The pulse at the thumb side of the wrist is referred to as the ______________ pulse.

    A.    brachial
    B.    femoral
    C.     carotid
    D.     radial
    D.     radial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Oxygen is transported throughout the body by means of the:

    A.     red blood cells.
    B.     white blood cells.
    C.     platelets.
    D.     plasma.
    A.     red blood cells.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Bones in the upper extremities include the:

    A.    humerus and radius.
    B.    phalanges and tibia.
    C.    ulna and cervical.
    D.    humerus and calcaneus.
    A.    humerus and radius.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. The system that carries electrical impulses to and from areas of the body, and that is responsible for regulating many body activities, is called the ______________ system.

    A.    integumentary (skin)
    B.     endocrine
    C.    digestive
    D.     nervous
    D.     nervous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which of the following structures is not part of the digestive system?

    A.     kidney
    B.     esophagus
    C.    pharynx
    D.    gallbladder
    A.     kidney
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. The standard of care includes:
     
    a. using your knowledge and skills to the best of your ability. 
    b. providing care that a reasonable, prudent person with similar training would provide. 
    c. following local protocols. 
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  63. Ethical issues of an EMR include: 

    A. certification. 
    B. race or nationality. 
    C. paid or volunteer duties.
    D. honesty. 
    D. honesty.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Consent means:

    A. following an event, as a result. 
    B. an injury of the soft tissue.
    C. approval or permission.
    D. to confine or restrict movement.
    C. approval or permission.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Minors:

    A. are considered to be capable of speaking for themselves in medical decisions.
    B. are those who are not of legal age as designated by the state.
    C. may not be given emergency medical treatment in the field without permission. 
    d. all of the above.
    B. are those who are not of legal age as designated by the state.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. An EMR must honor refusal of treatment if the patient:

    A. is a minor.
    B. is incompetent.
    C. has an order of protective custody.
    D. is competent.
    D. is competent.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. The failure of the EMR to continue emergency medical treatment until another trained person arrives to take over is called: 

    A. advance directive.
    B. dependent lividity.
    C. abandonment.
    D. incompetency.
    C. abandonment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. A temporary stiffening of the muscles that occurs several hours after death is called:

    A. rigor mortis.
    B. dependent lividity.
    C. musculoskeletal injuries.
    D. auscultation.
    A. rigor mortis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. State regulations may require a report of certain wounds or certain abuse.

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  70. At a crime scene, a patient needing treatment for severe shock must not be moved until law enforcement officials have arrived and approved movement. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    FALSE
  71. Since an EMR is not a law enforcement personnel, reporting a crime is not a responsibility. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  72. Which of the following is NOT considered an advance directive?
    A. durable power of attorney for healthcare
    B. living will
    C. guardianship
    c. do not resuscitate (DNR) order
    C. guardianship
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) prevents EMRs from sharing a patient's personal health information with anyone. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  74. If you determine that a crime scene is unsafe, you should not approach the patient until law enforcement secures the scene. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  75. A device that receives a weak radio signal, amplifies that signal, and then rebroadcasts it is called a(n):

    A. repeater.
    B. antenna.
    C. paging system.
    D. amplifier.
    A. repeater.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. A pager is MOST accurately defined as a: 

    A. stationary alert device that can only transmit text messages.
    B. two-way radio that can send and receive voice information.
    C. radio receiver that is silent unless activated by a dispatcher.
    D. device that receives multiple frequencies but cannot transmit.
    C. radio receiver that is silent unless activated by a dispatcher.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. A __________ transmits data messages through a radio system and reduces the amount of time the radio frequency is tied up to send or receive a message.

    A. fax machine 
    B. rapid paging system 
    C. mobile data terminal
    D. stationary base station
    C. mobile data terminal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call, a visual survey will enable you to:

    A. identify the patients who are the most critically ill or injured.
    B. determine the events that occurred shortly before the incident.
    C. identify any type of hazardous material that may be involved.
    D. determine the number of patients and estimate injury severity.
    D. determine the number of patients and estimate injury severity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Good communication means that:
    A. the person being spoken to understands exactly what he or she is told.
    B. all external distractions have been eliminated from a conversation.
    C. only a minimal communication barrier exists between two people.
    D. the person being spoken to will be able to hear what is being said. 
    A. the person being spoken to understands exactly what he or she is told.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Sick or injured patients may not always understand what you are doing or saying because they:
    A. are often scared.
    B. experience trauma-related hearing loss.
    C. are thinking about their family.
    D. do not trust your abilities.
    A. are often scared.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. Communication guidelines used to help EMRs calm and reassure patients include:
    a. introducing yourself.
    b. making eye contact.
    c. speaking slowly, clearly, and distinctly.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  82. EMRs should never tell patients the truth since EMRs do not have the details about a patient's medical/trauma conditions. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  83. Body language is a type of: 

    a. nonverbal communication.
    d. visual contact with patients.
    b. verbal communication.
    c. none of the above.
    a. nonverbal communication.
  84. Proper documentation includes all of the following EXCEPT: 

    A. the patient's chief complaint.
    B. the patient's level of response.
    C. the age and sex of the patient.
    D. the patient's insurance information.
    D. the patient's insurance information.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. It is necessary for EMRs to have a strong, working knowledge and understanding of all medical terminology. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  86. Documentation is important because:

    a. it provides a record for others.
    b. it provides a basis to evaluate the quality of care given. 
    c. it provides a legal record for the actions you took. 
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  87. The term used to describe a location on the body close to the point where an arm or leg is attached is called:
     
    A. proximal. 
    B. posterior.
    C. anterior.
    D. distal.
    A. proximal.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. The structures of the body that contribute to normal breathing make up which system? 

    A. genitourinary 
    B. circulatory 
    C. digestive
    D. respiratory
    D. respiratory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. The large muscle that forms the bottom of the chest cavity is the: 

    A. vena cava.
    B. epiglottis. 
    C. diaphragm. 
    D. trachea. 
    C. diaphragm.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Blood is carried away from the heart via the:
     
    A. atria. 
    B. ventricles. 
    C. veins. 
    D. arteries.
    D. arteries.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. The section of the neck in the spine is called the: 

    A. sacrum.
    B. lumbar spine.
    C. thoracic spine. 
    D. cervical spine. 
    D. cervical spine.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. The shoulder girdles consist of the: 

    A. thoracic spine, clavicle, and scapula. 
    B. clavicle, humerus, and thoracic spine.
    C. clavicle, scapula, and humerus.
    D. vertebrae, humerus, and ulna.
    C. clavicle, scapula, and humerus.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. The reproductive organs are protected by the: 

    A. vertebrae. 
    B. xiphoid process.
    C. pelvis. 
    D. intestines. 
    C. pelvis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. The muscles that carry out automatic functions of the body:

    a.  are responsible for propelling food through the digestive system. 
    b. are called involuntary muscles.
    c.  are called smooth muscles.
    d.  all of the above.
    d.  all of the above.
  95. The brain:
    a. is part of the nervous system. 
    b. may be called the body's central computer. 
    c. controls the functions of thinking, voluntary actions, and involuntary functions.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  96. A hormone produced by the pancreas is called:
     
    A. hepatitis.
    B. estrogen. 
    C. insulin. 
    D. diabetes mellitus. 
    C. insulin.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Which of the following statements is TRUE? 

    a. Skin protects the body from the environment.
    b. Skin regulates the internal temperature of the body.
    c. Skin is made up of three layers.
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  98. Floating ribs are attached to the spine but are not attached to the sternum. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  99. The skull is an example of a fused joint. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  100. Adolescence (ages 13 to 18 years) is the period when most body systems are fully developed. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE

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