Radar Section Certification

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Author:
morrin
ID:
265677
Filename:
Radar Section Certification
Updated:
2014-08-08 10:17:08
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Radar
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Description:
Q-36 / Q-37 Radar Section Certification
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  1. The maximum range of the Q-37 is _____ meters.

    A. 750
    B. 24,000
    C. 50,000
    D. 5,000
    C. 50,000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Emplacing the Q-36 radar system takes a 4-man team _____ minutes.

    A. 45
    B. 9 ½
    C. 15
    D. 30
    B. 9 ½
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Emplacing the radar system takes a 10 man team _____ minutes.

    A. 30
    B. 15
    C. 45
    D. 10
    A. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The dead zone on the Q-37 trailer is located _____.

    a. Toward the rear
    b. Curb side
    c. Road side
    d. None of the above
    d. None of the above
  5. Leveling the Q-37 radar trailer requires the use of _____ leveling
    bubbles.

    A. 1
    B. 4
    C. 3
    D. 2
    A. 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The dead zone on the Q36 trailer is located _____.

    A. Toward the rear
    B. Road side
    C. Curb side
    d. None of the above
    A. Toward the rear 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. The Q36 & Q37 trailers are emplaced within _____ inches of the surveyed point.

    A. 2” & 5”
    B. 3” & 6”
    C. ½” & 4”
    D. 6” & 2”
    B. 3” & 6”
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. All radar zones may have up to ____ points, but not less then ____.

    A. 3, 6
    B. 5, 8
    C. 6, 3
    D. 8, 5
    C. 6, 3 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Auto height correction can be performed _____.

    A. At any time
    B. When DTED is loaded into the system
    C. When manual terrain following is used
    d. All of the above
    B. When DTED is loaded into the system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. The Q36 v(8) & Q37 RMI are capable of sending to _____ subscriber(s) at a time.

    A. 5
    B. All
    C. 1
    D. 2
    C. 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Flat mask is used to allow you to _____.

    A. Use terrain-following data
    B. Auto height correction
    C. Select one mask angle
    D. a and b
    C. Select one mask angle 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. What is the maximum number of critical friendly zones that can be entered into the radar?

    A. 5
    B. 9
    C. 3
    D. 7
    B. 9 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. When using the M2 Aiming Circle you will always turn it in what direction?

    A. counterclockwise
    B. up
    C. down
    D. clockwise
    D. clockwise
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. How often should the M2 Aiming Circle be declinated?

    a. every 30 days
    b. whenever traveling more than 30km
    c. after strong electrical storms
    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  15. Video integration is used to _____.

    A. eliminate ground clutter
    B. Increase probability of detection of mortar and artillery projectiles at longer ranges
    C. Interface with TACFIRE
    D. Load digital map
    B. Increase probability of detection of mortar and artillery projectiles at longer ranges 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The site selected should have good drainage and have a ground slope of less than _____.

    A. 7 degrees
    B. 15 mils
    C. 7 mils
    D. 125 degrees
    A. 7 degrees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. What is the amount of track time needed to receive a solution for the Q-36.

    A. 5 – 9 seconds
    B. 3 – 5 seconds
    C. 5 – 8 seconds
    D. 3 – 6 seconds
    B. 3 – 5 seconds 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. The maximum range of the Q-37 radar in friendly fire mode is _____ meters.

    A. 50,000
    B. 30,000
    C. 70,000
    D. 24,000
    B. 30,000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. What is the (Q-37) optimum screening crest?

    A. 15-30 mils
    B. 5-15 mils
    C. 10-20 mils
    D. 0-10 mils
    B. 5-15 mils 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. What are the planning ranges for the AN/TPQ-37?

    Mortars:
    Artillery:
    Rockets:
    • Mortars: 30K
    • Artillery: 30K
    • Rockets: 50K
  21. What are the planning ranges for the AN/TPQ-36?

    Mortars:
    Artillery:
    Rockets:
    • Mortars: 18K
    • Artillery: 14.5K
    • Rockets: 24K
  22. Flat mask defaults to _____ on the Q-36 V(8).

    A. 22
    B. 15
    C. 20
    D. 30
    D. 30 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. How do you determine Track Volume?

    A. Low mask angle-High mask angle=Track Volume
    B. Screening crest+Low mask angle= Track Volume
    C. High mask angle-Low mask angle=Track Volume
    D. Low mask angle-High mask angle=Mask Variance Mask variance-Vertical scan=Track Volume
    D. Low mask angle-High mask angle=Mask Variance Mask variance-Vertical scan=Track Volume
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. What is the optimum screening crest for the AN/TPQ-36?

    A. 5-15 mils
    B. 0-10 mils
    C. 15-30 mils
    D. 10-20 mils
    C. 15-30 mils
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The radar typically needs a minimum of ___ mils of track volume in order to track a round to achieve a solution.

    A. 30mils
    B. 50mils
    C. 20mils
    D. 80mils
    B. 50mils 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. What are the 4 Firefinder zones? Explain each zone in detail. 
    • CFZ- critical friendly zone
    • CFFZ- call for fire zone
    • ATIZ- artillery intelligence zone
    • CZ- censor zone
  27. _____ are the only two items that you can enter from MET data. (Q-37)

    A. Wind velocity and temperature
    B. Wind direction and temperature
    C. Wind velocity and wind direction
    D. Temperature and date time group
    C. Wind velocity and wind direction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. When first entering operations after initialization, it goes automatically into hostile fire mode. Which one of the following features is NOT automatically set to ON?

    A. Jam strobe
    B. Pulsed interference rejection
    C. Auto censoring
    D. Location averaging
    C. Auto censoring 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The AN/TPQ-36 v(8) radar has ____ frequencies, each frequency is equal to approximately ______ of vertical scan.

    A. 32, 2.5mils
    B. 31, 3mils
    C. 32, 3mils
    D. 31, 2.5mils
    A. 32, 2.5mils 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. High-pressure water hoses can be used when cleaning the radar.

    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  31. What is the primary mission of the Firefinder radar system?
    To detect and locate enemy mortar, artillery, and rockets quickly and accurately enough to permit immediate engagement.
  32. What are the MIN and MAX search sectors for the AN/TPQ-37?

    A. 300 Mils – 1600 Mils
    B. 230 Mils – 1600 Mils
    C. 330 Mils – 1600 Mils
    D. 220 Mils – 1700 Mils
    A. 300 Mils – 1600 Mils 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. What are the types of radar cueing? 
    • Continuous
    • Situational
    • On Demand
  34. When in friendly fire mode what are the six radar registration and radar adjustment mission modes? 
    • Mortar air burst
    • Mortar datum plane registration
    • Mortar impact predicted
    • Artillery airburst
    • Artillery datum plane registration
    • Artillery impact predicted
  35. In the Friendly Fire mode how wide is the search window for the AN/TPQ-36?

    A. 550 Mils
    B. 230 Mils
    C. 330 Mils
    D. 440 Mils
    D. 440 Mils 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. You must turn off power immediately if an electrical fire occurs or if personnel come in contact with high voltage. You can turn off power by pressing the ______.

    A. Phase seq/sys 28VDC circuit breaker
    B. Antenna azimuth drive circuit breaker
    C. emergency stop
    D. Tilt sensor heater circuit breaker
    C. emergency stop
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The hertz applied to the radar from the generator must be set or adjusted to _____.

    A. 60
    B. 220
    C. 100
    D. 400
    D. 400 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. The minimum standoff range of the Q-37 is _____ meters.

    A. 500
    B. 750
    C. 50,000
    D. 3,000
    D. 3,000 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The power requirements for the Q-36 are _____.

    A. 115 v/208 v, 3 phase, 400 Hz, 4 wire
    B. 115 v/200 v, 3 phase, 60 Hz, 3 wire
    C. 115 v, 4 phase, 60/400 Hz, 4 wire
    D. 115 v, 4 phase, 60 Hz, 4 wire
    A. 115 v/208 v, 3 phase, 400 Hz, 4 wire
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. The MAX range of the Q-36 is _____ meters.

    A. 750
    B. 50,000
    C. 42,000
    D. 24,000
    D. 24,000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. List six considerations for radar positioning.
    • Slope
    • Cover and concealment
    • Security
    • Area in front of the Antenna
    • Screening Crest
    • Track Volume
    • Routes of approach
    • Security
    • Cable Length
    • Slope (cant)
    • Aspect angle
    • RF Hazard
    • Accessibility
  42. The minimum standoff range of the Q-36 is _____ meters.

    A. 50,000
    B. 500
    C. 750
    D. 3,000
    C. 750 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. How often should the antenna weather cover be inspected during PMCS?

    A. Weekly
    B. Daily
    C. Monthly
    D. Annually
    e. None of the above
    A. Weekly 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. When the wind velocity is _____ knots or higher, or wind gusts of up to _____ knots, the antenna must be placed in the stow position on a Q-37.
    A. 40, 75
    B. 25, 50
    C. 45, 70
    D. 35, 60
    A. 40, 75 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. When the wind velocity is _____ knots or higher, or wind gusts of up to _____ knots, the antenna must be placed in the stow position on a Q-36.

    A. 35, 60
    B. 45, 70
    C. 25, 50
    D. 52, 75
    D. 52, 75 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Initialization allows you to enter all the parameters needed by the radar before operations can begin.

    a. True
    b. False
    a. True 
  47. Where would you align the boresight telescope cross hairs on a flagpole?

    A. Centered on the peak
    B. Highest visible left hand point
    C. Lowest visible left hand point
    D. Centered on the bottom
    C. Lowest visible left hand point
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. When in Friendly Fire Mode the optimum angle-T is between _____ and ______.

    A. 0800mils and 1200mils
    B. 0400mils, 0800mils
    C. 0440mils, 1600mils
    D. 0600mils, 1200mils
    A. 0800mils and 1200mils
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. When performing friendly fire impact prediction, you must turn off location averaging so volley fires will not be averaged.

    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  50. What must the Firefinder radar have electronic line of site too?

    a. The weapon firing the projectile
    b. The projectile being fired
    c. All of the above
    d. None of the above
    b. The projectile being fired 
  51. The Q-53 radar system in 90 degree mode has a max range for Heavy Rockets of ________?

    A. 24km
    B. 25km
    C. 60km
    D. 32,000m
    C. 60km
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. List the three types of clutter associated with the Q-53.
    • 1. Surface
    • 2. Volume  
    • 3. Point
  53. For remote operations the Q-53 can be operated by the use of what?

    A. both a and c
    B. cat 5 cable
    C. wireless
    D. fiber optic cable
    A. both a and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Between the following radar systems which one is equipped with an auto-leveling system?

    A. Q-53
    B. Q-37
    C. Q-48
    D. Q-36
    A. Q-53
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. All radar systems have the capability to operate in a 90 degree or 360 degree mode.

    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  56. The Q-53 radar system with a 4-man crew can be emplaced in ____minutes and march-ordered in _____minutes.

    A. 10mins/5mins
    B. 5mins/2mins
    C. 15mins/ 7mins
    B. 5mins/2mins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The Antenna Transceiver Group of the Q-53 radar system consists of an upper and lower level of cooling fans. How many cooling fans are on each level?

    A. 8 cooling fans on each level
    B. 20 total cooling fans
    C. 16 cooling fans on each level
    D. 10 total cooling fans
    A. 8 cooling fans on each level
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. There are three main groups for the Q-53 the Antenna Transceiver Group (ATG), ___________, and the ______________.

    A. Mission Essential Group (MEG), and Sustained Operations Group (SOG)
    B. Main Fighting Group (MFG), and Service Support Group (SOG)
    C. Mission Essential Group (MEG), and Support Operations Group (SOG)
    A. Mission Essential Group (MEG), and Sustained Operations Group (SOG)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The goal is for the nose of the prime mover for the ATG to be 1-2 degrees downward before leveling.

    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  60. Which Radar system has the capability to track both Friendly Fire and Hostile Fire simultaneously?

    A. Q-53
    B. Q-37
    C. Q-36
    A. Q-53
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. BONUS: What are the Five Requirements for Accurate Predicted Fire?
    • Target Location and Size
    •  Firing Unit Location
    •  Weapon and Ammunition Information
    •  Meteorological Information
    •  Computational Procedures

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