SEN601 - Software Engineering Principles Unit 3 - Chapters 13-18

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caldreaming
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266907
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SEN601 - Software Engineering Principles Unit 3 - Chapters 13-18
Updated:
2014-03-21 10:20:34
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software engineering principles UML unified modeling language development national university sen601 sen 601 webapps operating systems design programming java drupal html http Practitioner approach seventh edition roger pressman McGraw Hill 978 07 337597
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Software Engineering Principles - The Unified Modeling Language (UML) is a standard language for writing software blueprints. UML may be used to visualize, specify, construct and document the artifacts of a software intensive system. Just as building architects use blueprints for a construction company, software architects create UML diagrams to help software developers build the software.
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  1. Which of the following characteristics should not be used to assess the quality of a WebApp?

    A) aesthetics
    B) maintainability
    C) usability
    D) reliability
    A) aesthetics

    The Quality Requirement Tree for WebApps;

    1) Usability
    2) Functionality
    3) Reliability
    4) Efficiency
    5) Maintainability
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which quality from the Quality Requirements Tree involves; ease of correction, adaptability, and extensibility?

    1) Usability
    2) Functionality
    3) Reliability
    4) Efficiency
    5) Maintainability
    5) Maintainability
  3. Which quality from the Quality Requirements Tree involves; Global site understandability, online feedback and help features, interface and aesthetic features and special features?

    1) Usability
    2) Functionality
    3) Reliability
    4) Efficiency
    5) Maintainability
    1) Usability
  4. Which quality from the Quality Requirements Tree involves; Correct link processing, error recovery and user input validation and recovery?

    1) Usability
    2) Functionality
    3) Reliability
    4) Efficiency
    5) Maintainability
    3) Reliability
  5. Which quality from the Quality Requirements Tree involves; Response time performance, page generation speed and graphics generation speed?

    1) Usability
    2) Functionality
    3) Reliability
    4) Efficiency
    5) Maintainability
    4) Efficiency
  6. Which quality from the Quality Requirements Tree involves; Searching and retrieving capability, navigation and browsing features and application domain-related features?

    1) Usability
    2) Functionality
    3) Reliability
    4) Efficiency
    5) Maintainability
    2) Functionality
  7. The quality from the Quality Requirements Tree that involves; ease of correction, adaptability, and extensibility is __________.
    Maintainability
  8. The quality from the Quality Requirements Tree that involves; Response time performance, page generation speed and graphics generation speed, is ___________.
    Efficiency
  9. The quality from the Quality Requirements Tree that involves; Correct link processing, error recovery and user input validation and recover, is ___________.
    Reliability
  10. The quality from the Quality Requirements Tree that involves; Searching and retrieving capability, navigation and browsing features and application domain-related features, is ________.
    Functionality
  11. The quality from the Quality Requirements Tree that involves; Global site understandability, online feedback and help features, interface and aesthetic features and special features, is ________.
    Usability
  12. What are the four major attributes of quality for WebApps?  

    Clue: SAST
    • Security
    • Availability
    • Scalability
    • Time-to-market
  13. Which of these is NOT one of the 4 attributes of quality for Web Apps?

    A) Time-to-market
    B) Security
    C) Commodity
    D) Availability
    E) Scalability
    C) Commodity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Quality for WebApps consist of which attributes?
    Security, Availability, Scalability, Time-to-market
  15. Design goals for WebApps consist of what 7 goals?

    Clue:  SCIRNVC
    • Simplicity
    • Consistency
    • Identity
    • Robustness
    • Navigability
    • Visual Appeal
    • Compatibility
  16. Which of the following are not a design goal for WebApps?

    A) Identity
    B) Time-to-market
    C) Simplicity
    D) Navigability
    E) Compatibility
    F) Robustsness
    G) Visual Appeal
    B) Time-to-market
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. The bottom level of the WebApp design pyramid is ___________.
    Component Design
  18. The level missing from the WebE Pyramid is;
    Component Design
  19. The level missing from the WebE Pyramid is;
    Architecture Design
  20. The level missing from the WebE Pyramid is;
    Navigation Design
  21. The level missing from the WebE Pyramid is;
    Content Design
  22. The level missing from the WebE Pyramid is;
    Aesthetic Design
  23. The level missing from the WebE Pyramid is;
    Interface Design
  24. Which of the following are design goals for every WebApp?

    A) Simplicity
    B) Consistency
    C) Navigability
    D) Visual Appeal
    E) All of the above
    E) All of the above
  25. Which of the following are not part of the design pyramid for WebE design?

    A) Aesthetic Design
    B) Content Design
    C) Navigation Design
    D) Component Design
    E) Business Case Design
    F) Interface Design
    G) Architectural Design
    E) Business Case Design
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. T/F  Screen layout design has several widely accepted standards based on human factors research?

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  27. T/F  Graphic design considers every aspect of the look and feel of a WebApp.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A) True
  28. Content design is conducted  by;

    A)  Copywriters, graphic designers and web engineers
    B)  Web engineers
    C)  Copywriters and graphic designer
    D)  None of the above
    A)  Copywriters, graphic designers and web engineers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. T/F  Content objects are not normally chunked into Web pages until the implementation activities begin.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  30. T/F  Content objects have both information attributes defined during analysis and implementation specific attributes specified during design.  

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  31. T/F  Content architecture and WebApp architecture are pretty much the same thing for many WebApps.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  32. Which of the following is not one of the content architectural structures used by web engineers?

    A)  grid
    B)  linear
    C)  parallel
    D)  hierarchical
    C)  parallel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. MVC is a 3 layer architecture that contains a;

    A)  machine, view, content objects
    B)  model, view and controller
    C)  model, view, and content objects
    D)  machine, view and controller
    B)  model, view and controller
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. T/F  Web navigational design involves creating a semantic navigational unit for each goal associated with each defined user role.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  35. T/F  To allow the user to feel in control of a WebApp, it is a good idea to mix both horizontal and vertical navigation mechanisms on the same page.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  36. T/F  Component level design for WebApps is very similar to component level design for other software delivery systems.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  37. Which of these is not one of the design activities associated with object-oriented hypermedia design?

    A) navigational design
    B) conceptual design
    C)  abstract interface design
    D) content design
    D) content design
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. T/F  UML does not have any representation schemas that are useful in building WebApp design models.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  39. T/F  Quality of conformance focuses on the degree to which the implementation of a design meets its requirements and performance goals.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  40. Which of the following is not one of the attributes of software quality?

    A)  Effective software process creates infrastructure
    B)  Adds value for developers and users
    C)  Removes need to consider performance issues
    D)  Useful products satisfy stakeholder requirements
    C)  Removes need to consider performance issues
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. T/F  Product quality can only be assessed by measuring hard quality factors.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  42. T/F  Many software metrics can only be measures indirectly.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  43. Which of the following are ISO 9126 software quality factors?

    A)  Functionality
    B)  a, b, and c
    C)  Portability
    D)  Visual appeal
    E)  Reliability
    B)  a, b, and c

    Functionality, portability and reliability
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. T/F  Developers need to create a collection of targeted questions to asses each quality factor.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  45. T/F  Software metrics represent direct measures of some manifestation of quality.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  46. T/F  The quality dilemma might be summarized as choosing between building things quickly or building things correctly.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  47. T/F  Good enough software delivers high quality software functions along with specialized functions that contain known bugs.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  48. Which of the following is likely to be the most expensive cost of quality?

    A)  Internal failure costs
    B)  Prevention costs
    C)  Appraisal costs
    D)  External failure costs
    D)  External failure costs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. T/F  Poor quality leads to software risks that can become serious?

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  50. T/F  When a system fails to deliver required functions it is because the customer changes requirements?

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  51. T/F  Developers must start focusing on quality during the design phase in order to build secure systems.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  52. Which of the following management decisions have the potential to impact software quality?

    A)  Estimation decisions
    B)  Risk-oriented decisions
    C)  Scheduling decisions
    D)  All of the above
    D)  All of the above
  53. The project plan should include explicit techniques for _______ and _______ management?

    A)  both change and cost
    B)  cost
    C)  error
    D)  both change and quality
    E)  both change and error
    F)  change
    G)  quality
    D)  both change and quality
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. T/F  Quality control encompasses a set of software engineering actions that help to ensure that each work product meets its quality goals.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  55. T/F  The goal of quality assurance is to insure that a software project is error free.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  56. T/F  The purpose of software reviews is to uncover errors and defects in work products so they can be removed before moving on to the next phase of development.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  57. T/F  In general the earlier a software defect is discovered and corrected the less costly to the overall project budget.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  58. T/F  Defect amplification models can be used to illustrate the costs associated with using software from its initial deployment to its retirement.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  59. T/F  Review metrics can be used to assess the efficacy of each review activity.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  60. T/F  Defect density can be estimated for any software engineering work product.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  61. T/F  Agile software developers are aware that software reviews always take time without saving any.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  62. The level of review formality is determined by which of the following?

    A)  size of project budget
    B)  amount of preparation, reviewer follow-up and structure of review
    C)  reviewer follow-up, size of project budget and structure review
    D)  amount of preparation
    E)  reviewer follow-up
    F)  structure of review
    G)  amount of preparation, size of project budget and structure of review
    B)  amount of preparation, reviewer follow-up and structure of review
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. An informal review may consist of which of the following?

    A)  inspection
    B)  desk check
    C)  both pair programming and inspection
    D)  both casual meeting and desk check
    E)  casual meeting
    F)  both casual meeting and inspection
    G)  pair programming
    D)  both casual meeting and desk check
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which of the following are objectives for formal technical reviews?

    A)  allow senior staff members to correct errors
    B)  uncover errors in software work products
    C)  determining who introduced an error into a program
    D)  assess programmer productivity
    B)  uncover errors in software work products
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. At the end of a formal technical review all attendees can decide to;

    A)  reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies
    B)  reject the product due to severe errors
    C)  accept the work product without modification
    D)  modify the work product and continue the review
    E)  both accept the work product without modification and reject the product due to severe errors
    E)  both accept the work product without modification and reject the product due to severe errors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. A review summary report answers which three questions?

    A)  what defects were found, what caused defects, who was responsible
    B)  what was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings
    C)  terminate project, replace producer, request a time extension
    D)  none of the above
    B)  what was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. T/F  In any type of technical review, the focus of the review is on the product and not the producer.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  68. T/F  Sample driven reviews only make sense for very small software development projects.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  69. T/F  Software quality might be defined as conformance to explicitly stated requirements and standards, nothing more and nothing less.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  70. T/F  People who perform software quality assurance must look at the software from the customer's perspective.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  71. T/F  The elements of software quality assurance consist of reviews, audits, and testing.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  72. Which of these activities is not one of the activities recommended to be performed by an independent SQA group?

    A)  review software engineering activities to verify process compliance
    B)  serve as the sole test team for any software produced
    C)  prepare SQA plan for the project
    D)  report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management
    B)  serve as the sole test team for any software produced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. T/F  Metrics can be used to indicate the relative strength os a software quality attribute.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  74. T/F  Attempts to apply mathematical proof to demonstrate that a program conforms to its specifications are doomed to failure.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  75. Statistical quality assurance involves;

    A)  tracing each defect to its underlying causes and using the Pareto principle to correct each problem found
    B)  surveying customers to find out their opinions about product quality
    C)  tracing each defect to its underlying cause, isolating the "vital few" causes, and moving to correct them
    D)  using sampling in place of exhaustive testing of software
    C)  tracing each defect to its underlying cause, isolating the "vital few" causes, and moving to correct them
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps.

    A)  analyze, improve, control
    B)  analyze, design, verify
    C)  define, measure, analyze
    D)  define, measure, control
    C)  define, measure, analyze
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Software reliability problems can almost always be traced to;

    A)  errors in accuracy
    B)  both errors in accuracy and errors in design
    C)  both errors in accuracy and errors in implementation
    D)  errors in design
    D)  errors in implementation
    E)  errors in operation
    F)  both errors in accuracy and errors in operation
    C)  both errors in accuracy and errors in implementation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that;

    A)  may cause an entire system to fail
    B)  may result from user input errors
    C)  affect the reliability of a software component
    D)  prevent profitable marketing of the final product
    A)  may cause an entire system to fail
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is;

    A)  ISO 9000
    B)  ISO 9001
    C)  ISO 9002
    D)  ISO 9003
    B)  ISO 9001
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Which of the following is not a section in the standard for SQA plans recommended by IEEE?

    A)documentation
    B)reviews and audits
    C)test
    D)budget
    D)budget
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. T/F  In software quality assurance work there is no difference between software verification and software validation.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  82. The best reason for using Independent software test teams is that;

    A)  testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins
    B)  the conflicts of interest between developers and testers is reduced
    C)  strangers will test the software mercilessly
    D)  software developers do not need to do any testing
    B)  the conflicts of interest between developers and testers is reduced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software testing is organized?

    A)  system testing, validation testing, unit testing, and integration testing
    B)  validation testing, integration testing, system testing, ad unit testing
    C)  integration testing, system testing, unit testing, and validation testing
    D)  unit testing, system testing, integration testing, and validation testing
    E)  unit testing, integration testing, validation testing, and system testing
    E)  unit testing, integration testing, validation testing, and system testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. T/F  By collecting software metrics and making use of existing software reliability models it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines for determining when software testing is done.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  85. Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process?

    A)  both conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing and use independent test teams
    B)  both conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing and specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
    C)specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
    D)  use independent test teams
    E)  wait till code is written prior to writing the test plan
    B)  both conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing and specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Which of the following need to be assessed during unit testing?

    A)  both error handling and code stability
    B)  error handling
    C)  algorithmic performance
    D)  code stability
    E)  both error handling and execution paths
    F)  execution paths
    E)  both error handling and execution paths
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. T/F  Units and stubs are not needed for unit testing because the modules are tested independently of one another.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  88. Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that;

    A)  both no stubs need to be written and major decision points are tested early
    B)  no stubs need to be written
    C)  low level modules never need testing
    D)  both no drivers need to be written and major decision points are tested early
    E)  major decision points are tested early
    F)  no drivers need to be written
    D)  both no drivers need to be written and major decision points are tested earl
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Bottom-up integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that;

    A)  no stubs need to be written
    B)  major decision points are tested early
    C)  regression testing is not required
    D)  no drivers need to be written
    A)  no stubs need to be written
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Regression testing should be a normal part of integration testing because as a new module is added to the system new;

    A)  drivers require testing
    B)  data flow paths are established
    C)  control logic is invoked
    D)  control logic is invoked and data flow paths are established
    E)  control logic is invoked, data flows are established, and drivers require testing
    D)  control logic is invoked and data flow paths are established
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Smoke testing might best be described as;

    A)  testing that hides implementation errors
    B)  unit testing for small programs
    C)  bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software
    D)  rolling integration testing
    D)  rolling integration testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. T/F  When testing object-oriented software it is important to test each class operation separately as part of the unit testing process.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  93. The OO testing integration strategy involves testing;

    A)  groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way
    B)  single operations as they are added to the evolving class implementation
    C)  operator programs derived from use-case scenarios
    D)  none of the above
    A)  groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. T/F  Since many WebApps evolve continuously, the testing process must be ongoing as well.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  95. T/F  The focus of validation testing is to uncover places that s user will be able to observe failure of the software to conform to its requirements.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    A)  True
  96. T/F  Software validation is achieved through a series of tests performed by the user once the software is deployed in his or her work environment.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  97. T/F  Configuration reviews are not needed if regression testing has been rigorously applied during software integration.

    A)  True
    B)  False
    B)  False
  98. Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the;

    A)  developer
    B)  systems engineers
    C)  test team
    D)  end users
    D)  end users
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail in a variety of ways and verifies that software is able to continue execution without interruption.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  100. Security testing attempts to verify that protection mechanisms built into a system protect it from improper penetration.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  101. Stress testing examines the pressures placed on the user during system use in extreme environments.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  102. Performance testing is only important for real-time or embedded systems.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  103. Debugging is not testing, but always occurs as a consequence of testing.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  104. Which of the following is an approach to debugging?

    A)  a, b, and c
    B)  brute force
    C)  code restructuring
    D)  backtracking
    E)  cause elimination
    A)  a, b, and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Which of the following is an approach to debugging?

    A)  backtracking, brute force, and cause elimination
    B)  code restructuring
    C)  backtracking
    D)  cause elimination
    E)  brute force
    A)  backtracking, brute force, and cause elimination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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