EMS Exam 2 Questions

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Scott57
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266943
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EMS Exam 2 Questions
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2014-03-24 13:23:18
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CPR Airwaymangement
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ch 6-8
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  1. The posterior part of the mouth is called the:

    A. oropharynx.
    B. trachea.
    C. nasopharynx.
    d. none of the above.
    A. oropharynx.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Parts of the body used in breathing include the:

    a. oropharynx and nasopharynx.
    b. lungs and diaphragm.
    c. trachea.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  3. The first step in assessing a patient's airway is to:

    A. place the patient on his or her back.
    B. use the head tilt-chin lift technique.
    C. check for responsiveness.
    D. look and listen for signs of breathing.
    C. check for responsiveness.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. A mechanical suction device:

    A. can be used with a rigid suction tip or a flexible whistle-tip catheter.
    B. is used in the same way for all nonbreathing patients.
    C. should be used continuously until the patient arrives at a medical facility.
    d. all of the above.
    A. can be used with a rigid suction tip or a flexible whistle-tip catheter.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. If an unconscious patient is breathing, the recovery position can be used to keep the airway open:

    a. if the patient has not suffered trauma.
    b. by allowing secretions to drain out of the mouth.
    c. because gravity will help keep the patient's tongue and lower jaw from blocking the airway.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  6. Signs of inadequate breathing include:

    a. wheezing or gurgling.
    b. pale or blue skin, especially around the lips or fingernail beds.
    c. a lack of chest movement and lack of breath sounds.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  7. Partial or complete obstruction of the respiratory passages:

    A. may be caused by food, vomitus, or objects.
    B. will not cause unconsciousness.
    C. is called the Heimlich maneuver.
    d. all of the above.
    A. may be caused by food, vomitus, or objects.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. If it has been determined that a patient's airway is partially obstructed, the patient should be instructed not to cough.

    TRUE
    FALSE
    FALSE
  9. Airway obstruction in a conscious infant may require a combination of back slaps and chest thrusts. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  10. If a patient is wheezing and has blue lips, medical personnel should begin rescue breathing. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  11. Which of the following statements regarding the airway of infants and children is FALSE?

    A. In children and infants, the tongue is proportionately larger than in adults.
    B. Children and infants have smaller lungs than adults.
    C. The structures of the respiratory system in children and infants are smaller than they are in adults.
    D. The trachea of infants and children is more rigid than that of an adult.
    D. The trachea of infants and children is more rigid than that of an adult.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The jaw-thrust maneuver should be used to open the airway of all nonbreathing patients. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  13. To determine the proper size oral airway, measure from the patient's:

    A. earlobe to the corner of the mouth.
    B. chin to the ear.
    C. nose to the chin.
    D. earlobe to the tip of the nose.
    A. earlobe to the corner of the mouth.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. An oral airway should be inserted upside down and then rotated 180 degrees.

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  15. In an unconscious patient, a blocked airway is most likely caused by:

    A. the larynx.
    B. the epiglottis.
    C. a foreign object.
    D. the tongue.
    D. the tongue.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The first step in correcting a blocked airway is to:

    A. attempt to give rescue breaths.
    B. shake the patient to determine responsiveness.
    C. clear foreign matter from the throat.
    D. position the head properly.
    D. position the head properly.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. To open the airway in an unconscious adult with no suspected spinal injury, you should use the:

    A. jaw-thrust technique.
    B. head lift–chin tilt technique.
    C. manual suction device.
    D. tongue–jaw lift technique
    B. head lift–chin tilt technique.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. An oral airway of proper size will extend from the:

    A. nose to the angle of the jaw.
    B. lips to the larynx.
    C. corner of the patient’s mouth to the tip of the earlobe.
    D. none of the above
    C. corner of the patient’s mouth to the tip of the earlobe.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, lubricate the outside of the tube with:

    A. a water-soluble lubricant.
    B. a silicone-based lubricant.
    C. petroleum jelly.
    D. an oil-based lubricant.
    A. a water-soluble lubricant.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. When at rest, the normal breathing rate for an adult is ______ times per minute.

    A. 75 to 100
    B. 60 to 80
    C. 30 to 40
    D. 12 to 20
    D. 12 to 20
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Signs of inadequate breathing in an adult include all of the following except:

    A. respirations that are slowed.
    B. breathing is very shallow, is very deep, or appears labored.
    C. the patient is unable to speak in full sentences.
    D. a respiratory rate of 14 to 18 breaths per minute.
    D. a respiratory rate of 14 to 18 breaths per minute.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. To correct breathing, the very first step you should take is to:

    A. apply positive-pressure ventilation.
    B. administer oxygen.
    C. clear the mouth.
    D. open the airway.
    D. open the airway.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. If a patient is coughing forcefully with something caught in the throat:

    A. encourage the patient to cough.
    B. give abdominal thrusts.
    C. sweep out the mouth.
    D. check the pulse.
    A. encourage the patient to cough.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. If gastric distention occurs while you are doing CPR, it is probably caused by:

    A. too much force while doing chest compressions.
    B. rescue breaths that are too small.
    C. too much fluid in the patient’s stomach.
    D. air entering the patient’s stomach.
    D. air entering the patient’s stomach.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The carotid artery is located in the:

    A. neck.
    B. wrist.
    C. groin.
    D. arm.
    A. neck.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Cardiac arrest means:

    a. a sudden ceasing of heart function.
    b.that oxygen is not getting to the organs.
    c. a patient is unconscious and not breathing.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  27. The cause of cardiac arrest should be determined before beginning treatment.

    TRUE
    FALSE
    FALSE
  28. Chest compression:

    a. mimics the squeezing and relaxation cycles of a normal heart.
    b. should be used if there is no carotid pulse.
    c. requires a firm, horizontal surface.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  29. Chest compressions on an adult should be at the rate of 100 compressions per minute. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  30. __________ is the movement of air in and out of the lungs.

    A. Compression
    B. Ventilation
    C. Defibrillation
    d. all of the above
    B. Ventilation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Signs of effective CPR include which of the following?

    a. The patient's skin color improves.
    b. The chest visibly rises during ventilations.
    c. There is a carotid pulse during chest compression.
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  32. Gastric distention:

    a. may cause vomiting.
    b. requires a change in the CPR technique.
    c. may signal a partially obstructed airway.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  33. Two-rescuer CPR is usually more effective than one-rescuer CPR. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  34. CPR should not be started when reliable signs of death are present.

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  35. If you are alone with an adult cardiac arrest victim, you should call 9-1-1 before beginning CPR. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  36. The first step before beginning CPR on a cardiac arrest victim of any age is to determine unresponsiveness. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  37. The ratio of chest compressions to breaths in child CPR is:

    A. 5:1.
    B. 30:2.
    C. 15:2.
    D. 15:1.
    B. 30:2.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Automated external defibrillators (AEDs) can only be used by EMTs.

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  39. What are the four most
    appropriate places to check a patient’s pulse if you suspect cardiac arrest?

    A. ________________________________

    B. ________________________________

    C. ________________________________

    D. ________________________________
    Radial, brachial, carotid, femoral
  40. Which condition should exist before starting CPR?

    A. absence of breathing and pulse
    B. shallow breathing
    C. dilated pupils
    D. pale skin
    A. absence of breathingand pulse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Place the following links in the Chain of Survival in the appropriate order.

    A. early defibrillation

    B. early CPR

    C. early advanced care

    D. early recognition
    D, B, A, C
  42. If you are alone with a pulseless adult patient, you should:

    A. perform CPR for 3 minutes before activating the EMS system.
    B. activate the EMS system before beginning CPR.
    C. perform CPR for 1 minute before activating the EMS system.
    D. perform CPR for 5 minutes before activating the EMS system.
    B. activate the EMS system before beginning CPR.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Which of the following is a reliable sign of death?

    A.  decapitation
    B.  rigor mortis
    C.  dependent lividity
    D.  all of the above
    D.  all of the above
  44. To perform chest compressions on an adult patient, you should press on the:

    A. center of the chest, in between the nipples.
    B. upper half of the sternum.
    C. lower half of the sternum.
    D. xiphoid process.
    A. center of the chest, in between the nipples.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. The rate of chest compressions in an adult patient is:

    A. 80 to 100 per minute.
    B. less than 60 per minute.
    C. 100 per minute.
    D. 60 to 80 per minute.
    C. 100 per minute.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. When performing two-rescuer CPR on an adult patient, the ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is:

    A. 30 to 2.
    B. 15 to 1.
    C. 1 to 15.
    D. 5 to 1.
    A. 30 to 2.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Which of the following statements about defibrillation is true?

    A. It is a procedure that replaces the need for CPR.
    B. It identifies the ineffective pulsations of the heart in cardiac arrest and reorganizes them into effective heartbeats.
    C. It is a rapid, disorganized, ineffective pulsation of the heart that occurs when a person is in cardiac arrest.
    D. It is a serious condition of the heart known as “V-fib.”
    B. It identifies the ineffective pulsations of the heart in cardiac arrest and reorganizes them into effective heartbeats.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Place the five steps of the patient assessment in the correct order.

    A. Examine from head to toe
    B. Initial patient assessment
    C. Obtain a medical history
    D. Scene size-up
    E. Ongoing assessment
    D, B, A, C, E
  49. Performing a scene size-up includes all of the following except:

    A. forming a general impression of the patient.
    B. assessing the mechanism of injury or illness.
    C. determining the number of patients.
    D. determining the need for additional resources.
    A. forming a general impression of the patient.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. The main objective of the primary assessment is to:

    A. identify immediate life threats.
    B. determine treatment priorities.
    C. correct life-threatening conditions.
    D. all of the above.
    D. all of the above.
  51. Place the seven steps of the primary assessment in the correct order.

    A. Assess the patient’s breathing and correct any life-threatening conditions.

    B. Assess the patient’s airway and correct any life-threatening conditions.

    C. Update responding EMS units.

    D. Form a general impression of the patient.

    E. Assess the patient’s circulation, including severe bleeding.

    F. Assess the patient’s responsiveness and stabilize the spine if necessary.

    G. Acknowledge the patient’s chief complaint.
    D, F, B, A, E, G, C
  52. A patient who moans when you pinch her earlobe should be classified as which level on the AVPU scale?

    A. U
    B. A
    C. V
    D. P
    D. P
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. What are the vital signs taken by EMRs during a secondary assessment?
    • Respiration,
    • pulse,
    • capillary refill,
    • blood pressure,
    • skin condition,
    • pupil size and reactivity,
    • level of consciousness
  54. Where is the carotid pulse point located?

    A. on the patient’s foot
    B. on the patient’s wrist
    C. on the patient’s upper arm
    D. on the patient’s neck
    D. on the patient’s neck
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Place the steps of the reassessment in the proper order.

    A. Identify and treat changes in the patient’s condition.

    B. Reassess the chief complaint.

    C. Repeat the primary assessment.

    D. Reassess the patient.

    E. Provide a hand-off report.

    F. Reassess vital signs.

    G. Recheck the effectiveness of the treatment.
    C, F, B, G, A, D, E
  56. Your dispatcher should have obtained:

    a. the safety level of the scene.
    b. the number of people involved in the incident.
    c. the location of the incident.
    e. all of the above.
    e. all of the above.
  57. The primary patient assessment includes:
    A. forming a general impression.
    B. medical history.
    C. SAMPLE history.
    D. physical examination.
    A. forming a general impression.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. The AVPU scale is a four level scale used for:

    A. communicating the patient's vital signs to the hospital.
    B. describing a patient's level of consciousness.
    C. determining how rapidly you will need to transport the patient. 
    d. all of the above.
    B. describing a patient's level of consciousness.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. To check a patient's breathing:

    a. see if the chest rises and falls with each breath.
    b. place the side of your face next to the patient's nose and mouth.
    c. listen for air exchange. 
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  60. Immediate action used to control severe bleeding is to:

    A. apply pressure on a pressure point.
    B. elevate the body part.
    C. bandage the wound.
    D. apply direct pressure.
    D. apply direct pressure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Yellowish skin often indicates:

    A. liver problems.
    B. decreased circulation.
    C. increased circulation.
    D. lack of oxygen.
    A. liver problems.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Pale skin often indicates:

    A. liver problems.
    B. lack of oxygen.
    C. increased circulation.
    D. decreased circulation.
    D. decreased circulation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. When you check a patient's respiration rate:

    A. one complete cycle of inhaling and exhaling is counted as one breath.
    B. tell the patient you are counting respirations.
    C. count for two minutes.
    d. all of the above.
    A. one complete cycle of inhaling and exhaling is counted as one breath.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. The patient's skin condition should be checked for:
    a. color.
    b. temperature.
    c. moisture.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  65. Flail chest can result from:

    A. multiple rib fractures.
    B. internal bleeding.
    C. inadequate oxygen supply.
    d. all of the above.
    A. multiple rib fractures.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. In which part of the SAMPLE history would you ask a patient if he or she is under the care of a physician? 

    A. M
    B. A
    C. S
    D. P
    D. P
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. The S in the acronym DOTS stands for:

    A. swelling.
    B. signs.
    C. sweating.
    D. symptoms.
    A. swelling.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Cyanotic skin will appear:

    A. yellow.
    B. red.
    C. blue.
    D. white.
    C. blue.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. The palpation method of measuring blood pressure does not give you a diastolic pressure. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  70. When you shine a penlight into a patient's eyes, the pupils should:

    A. constrict.
    B. dilate.
    C. not change.
    d. none of the above.
    A. constrict.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Name the steps in the full-body assessment:
    a.   Assess the head.

    b.   Assess the eyes.

    c.   Assess the nose.

    d.   Assess the mouth.

    e.   Assess the breath odor.

    f.    Assess the neck.

    g.  Assess the chest and observe breathing motion

    h.  Palpate the chest

    i.   Assess the abdomen.

    j.    Assess the pelvis.

    k.    Assess the back.

    l.   Assess the extremities.
  72. What does DOTS stand for?
    a.   Deformities

    b.   Open injuries

    c.   Tenderness

    d.   Swelling
  73. What is the "S" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Signs and symptoms
  74. What is the "A" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Allergies
  75. What is the "M" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Medications
  76. What is the "P" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Pertinent past medical history
  77. What is the "L" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Last oral intake
  78. What is the "E" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Events leading up to this illness or injury
  79. To determine the proper size nasal airway, measure from the patient's:

    A. nose to the chin.
    B. chin to the ear.
    C. earlobe to the corner of the mouth.
    D. earlobe to the tip of the nose.
    D. earlobe to the tip of the nose.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. When performing two-rescuer CPR on an child patient, the ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is:

    A. 30 to 2.
    B. 5 to 1.
    C. 15 to 1.
    D. 15 to 2.
    D. 15 to 2.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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