perio1.txt

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perio1.txt
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  1. 1. Etiology of gingival recession can be classified as either internal trauma or external trauma. Traumatic brushing habit can be classified as both external and internal trauma

    a. T
    b. F
    • b,TB is external only
  2. 2. Excessive buccal orthodontic tooth movement can destroy the buccal bone leading to gingival recession.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  3. a
  4. 3. Root coverage (grafting coronal to recession) procedure is indicated for most gingival grafting because it results in the most stable dentogingival anatomy.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  5. b
    Grafting coronal to recession is indicated for esthetic areas.
  6. 4. The mucogingival junction on the palate separates the papilla from the soft palate.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  7. b
  8. 5. Vertical incisions are necessary to reflect a flap in the pouch and tunnel technique.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  9. b
    A flap is not reflected. The sulcular incision is the only one done.
  10. 6. Which of the following technique allows for the best blood supply to the donor tissue?
    • a. Free connective tissue graft
    • b. Free gingival graft
    • c. Pedicle graft
    • d. None of the above
  11. c, Which heals by secondary intention
  12. 7. Pedicle graft is an example of an internal graft
    • a. T
    • b. F
  13. b
    • External:
    • Free gingival
    • CT
    • Pedicle
    • Internal
    • Sandwich (Langer Type Graft)
    • Pouch and Tunnel
  14. 8. The strip graft, accordion graft and the combination graft are all variant techniques of the free gingival and connective tissue grafts.
    • a. T
    • b. F Free gingival autograft only
  15. b
  16. 9. The apically positioned flap is a pedical graft.????????
    • a. T
    • b. F
  17. a
  18. 10. A predictable root coverage can be achieved in a Miller class IV type recession. (LOOK THIS UP IN THE BOOK)
    • a. T
    • b. F
  19. b
  20. 11. Blood supply to the donor connective tissue can be attained on either side of the grat.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  21. a
  22. 12. Criteria for selection of techniques for solving mucogingival problems are:
    • a. surgical site free of plaque, calculus and inflammation
    • b. adequate blood supply to the donor tissue
    • c. anatomy of the recipient and donor sites
    • d. stability of the grafted tissue to the recipient site
    • e. all of the above
  23. e
  24. 13. A short root trunk at the furcation area predisposes a tooth to furcation lesions due to:
    • a. The early exposure of the concavity at the entrance of the furcation
    • b. Plaque accumulation in the concavity leading to the furcation opening
    • c. The early exposure of the furcation opening
    • d. All of the above
  25. d
  26. 14. A maxillary first molar may have a class III furcation opening at all three furcation opening at the same time.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  27. a
  28. 15. The average distance regarded at the biologic width is:
    • a. 2.04 cm
    • b. 2.04 mm
    • c. 0.97 mm Junc
    • d. 1.07 mm CT
  29. b
  30. 16. These are indications for crown lengthening,EXCEPT:
    • a. subgingival caries
    • b. subgingival crown fracture
    • c. excessive gingival display
    • d. excessive tooth display
  31. d
  32. 17. Crown lengthening via orthdontic extrusion is indicated in cases of an isolated tooth in an esthetic area.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  33. a
  34. 18. In a non-esthetic area, the usual time lapse between a surgical crown lengthening procedure and tooth preparation/final impression is:
    • a. 2-3 days
    • b. 2-3 weeks
    • c. 6-8 weeks
    • d. 9-12 months
  35. c
  36. 19. The distance between the margin of a restoration and the alveolar bone crest should be at least 1 mm or an area of chronic inflammation may develop.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  37. b
  38. 20. Bone removal to reestablish the biologic width is best described by the term:
    • a. osteoplasty
    • b. ostectomy-Removes tooth supported bone
    • c. alveoloplasty
    • d. odontoplasty
  39. b
  40. 21. Surgical clinical crown lengthening can be used on an upper anterior segment (teeth’s 6 through 11) that will be restored with crowns.
    • a. T- Group of teeth in an esthetic area
    • b. F
  41. a
  42. 22. The surgical reconstruction of interproximal papillae lost during crown lengthening is a predictable procedure.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  43. b
  44. 23. Resorption of the alveolar ridge in the apico-coronal direction belongs to which of the following defect classification:
    • a. class I
    • b. class II
    • c. class III
    • d. combination
  45. c
  46. 24. When performing a ridge augmentation procedure, it is generally more predictable to increase the bucco-lingual dimension as compared to the apico-coronal ridge dimension.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  47. a
  48. 25. The onlay soft tissue grafting technique is usually indicated for what types or ridge defect:
    • a. class I and II
    • b. class I and III
    • c. class II and III
    • d. class I, II, and III
  49. a
  50. 26. What surgical technique is NOT indicated for augmenting the edentulous ridge prior to implant placement:
    • a. connective tissue graft
    • b. guided bone regeneration
    • c. guided bone regeneration combined with a bone graft
    • d. distraction osteogenesis
  51. d
  52. 27. The ovate pontic design presents with advantageous esthetics over the ridge lap pontic design.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  53. a
  54. 28. Following healing of a surgical ridge augmentation procedure, preparation of the ovate pontic site is achieved by using a large round diamond on the augmented tissue to what depth:
    • a. 0-1 mm
    • b. 2-3 mm
    • c. 4-5 mm
    • d. 6-7 mm
  55. a
    • 29. In general terms, shrinkage following ridge augmentation procedures with a connective tissue graft is minimal.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  56. a
  57. 30. Healing after a ridge augmentation procedure with a soft tissue graft can be negatively affected by mechanical pressure exerted by the pontic present in the temporary restoration.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  58. a
  59. 31. Osteoplasty during osseous recontouring is performed to achieve:
    • a. positive bony architecture
    • b. flat bony architecture
    • c. removal of widow’s peaks
    • d. flat adaptation
  60. a
  61. 32. Ostectomy can be achieved with:
    • a. bony chisel
    • b. end-cutting bur
    • c. either ‘a’ or ‘b’
    • d. neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
  62. c
  63. 33. Fiberotomy is surgical procedure in which supra-crestal periodontal fibers are severed to prevent the coronal migration of the gingival tissues during tooth extrusion.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  64. a
  65. 34. Retention time following orthodontic extrusion should b as long as the active tooth movement time.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  66. b
  67. 35. Cervical enamel projections are enamel projections which extends from the cemento-enamel junction (CEJ) of the tooth toward the furcation entrance. These areas are NOT predisposed to early furcation lesions because the enamel protects the root surface.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  68. b
  69. 36. The teeth that are most commonly involved with recurrent pockets based on their root morphology are:
    • a. Maxilary and mandibular first molars
    • b. Maxillary and mandibular second molars
    • c. Maxillary 1st bicuspid and maxillary 1st molar
    • d. All of the above
  70. c
  71. 37. The Lindhe-Nyman Clasification of a grade II furcation lesion is exactly the same as the Glickman Classifiction Grade III furcation lesion.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  72. b
  73. 38. Class III furcation lesion (Glickman) presents a poor prognosis for regenerative therapy. Regenerative therapy is not recommended for class IV furcation lesions. These statements are:
    • a. T
    • b. F
  74. a
  75. 39. The distal-buccal root of the maxillary first molar presents the largest and deepest concavity in the internal portion of the root.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  76. b
  77. 40. It is possible to have a class II (Glickman) furcation opening from both the buccal and lingual surfaces on the same tooth:
    • a. T
    • b. F
  78. b
  79. 41. Root resection is the treatment of choice for all class II furcation lesions.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  80. b
  81. 42. The donor site wound in a free gingival graft heals by secondary intention healing.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  82. a
  83. 43. The free gingival graft is the technique of choice where a good esthetic result is necessary.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  84. b
  85. 44. Connective tissue from the undersurface of keratinized epithelium (such as the palate) will produce both keratinized and non-keratinized gingival.
    • a. T
    • b. F
  86. b
  87. 45. The functional name for keratinized attached gingival around a tooth is:
    • a. lining mucosa
    • b. palatal gingival
    • c. masticatory mucosa
    • d. occlusal mucosa
  88. c
  89. 46. Peri-implant collagen fibers are non-attached and run ________________ the implant surface.
    • a. parallel to
    • b. perpendicular to
    • c. toward
    • d. away from
  90. a
  91. 47. The advantages of the ONE stage surgical approach to implant placement are:
    • a. mucogingival tissue management is easier
    • b. there is less surgery required
    • c. all of the above
    • d. management of simultaneous bone grafting is beter
    • e. none of the above
  92. c
  93. 48. the advantages of the TWO stage surgical approach to implant placement are:
    • a. mucogingival tissue management is easier
    • b. there is less surgery required
    • c. all of the above
    • d. management of simultaneous bone grafting is better
    • e. none of the above
  94. d
  95. 49. The original Branemark implant surgery protocol required an undisturbed healing period _________ for implants in the mandible and ________ for implants in the maxilla.
    • a. 4-6 months, 6-9 months
    • b. 3-5 months, 5-7 months
    • c. 2-3 months, 4-6 months
    • d. 2-3 months, 5-7 months
    • e. None of the above
  96. a
  97. 50. The advantage(s) of delayed implant placement following tooth extraction are:
    • a. facilitates proper implant positioning
    • b. permits soft tissue healing of the extraction site
    • c. permits hard tissue healing of the extraction site
    • d. all of the above
    • e. none of the above
  98. b
  99. 51. The advantage(s) of staged implant placement following tooth extraction are:
    • a. facilitates proper implant positioning
    • b. permits soft tissue healing of the extraction site
    • c. permits hard tissue healing of the extraction site
    • d. all of the above
    • e. b and c
  100. e
  101. 52. The success and predictability have resulted in a paradigm shift in Periodontics. Today, it is more predictable to use periodontal regeneration to “save” furcation involved teeth that would otherwise have been extracted (before regeneration advances).
    • a. The first sentence is true. The second sentence is true.
    • b. The first sentence is true. The second sentence is false.
    • c. The first sentence is false. The second sentence is true.
    • d. The first sentence is false. The second sentence is false.
  102. b
  103. 53. “Osseointegration” is defined as the intimate contact of vital bone with the titanium implant surface without intervening soft tissue. In optimal conditions, osseointegrated dental implants have slight physiologic movement similar to teeth.
    • a. The first sentence is true. The second sentence is true.
    • b. The first sentence is true. The second sentence is false.
    • c. The first sentence is false. The second sentence is true.
    • d. The first sentence is false. The second sentence is false.
  104. b
  105. 54. Previous implant systems that did not use titanium failed as a result of epithelial migration and fibrous encapsulation.
    • a. True
    • b. False
  106. a
  107. 55. The use of dental implants to replace teeth is considered the standard of care.
    • a. True
    • b. False
  108. a
  109. 56. Proper implant positioning is critical for:
    • a. Prosthetic rehabilitation
    • b. Esthetic outcome of final restoration
    • c. Both a and b
    • d. Bone grafting procedures
    • e. None of the above
  110. c
  111. 57. Bone loss around implants is similar to bone loss around teeth because
    • a. Both are exposed to the same periodontal pathogens
    • b. Periodontal and peri-implant infections are comparable
    • c. Implants are a very good reproduction of teeth
    • d. All of the above
    • e. None of the above
  112. c
  113. 58. Implant surgical techniques use sequentially increasing drill sizes with profuse irrigation in order to minimize heat generation to the bone
    • a. True
    • b. False
  114. a
  115. 59. The most important area of bone support around implants is along the middle nad apical 1/3 of the implant. The coronal 1/3 of the implant is always well supported by dense cortical bone at the crest of the ridge.
    • a. The first sentence is true. The second sentence is true.
    • b. The first sentence is true. The second sentence is false.
    • c. The first sentence is false. The second sentence is true.
    • d. The first sentence is false. The second sentence is false.
  116. d
  117. Cantelevered restorations (i.e. pontics without distal support) are contraindicated with implants because:
    a. it results in load magnification to the neck of the implant on the opposite side
    b. it results in load magnification to the neck of the implant adjacent to the cantilever
    c. it may result in bone loss around the implant adjacent to the cantelever
    d. b and c
    e. none of the above
    d

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