Washington & Leaver 1-27

  1. The foundation of law is:



    D. ethics
  2. Moral ethics are based on which of the following?



    D. right & wrong
  3. Which of the following is it ethical principle?



    D. justice
  4. A tort falls under which of the following?



    B. Civil law
  5. Informed consent must be secured:



    C. In writing
  6. The acronym HIPAA stands for:
    Health insurance portability and accountability act
  7. A tumor that tends to grow slowly is said to be:



    A. well differentiated
  8. The most common cause of tissue damage is: A. Microbial infection
    B. Ionizing radiation
    C. Allergic or immune reaction
    D. Hypoxia
    d. hypoxia
  9. All of the following tumors arise from epithelial tissues except:



    C. leukemia
  10. The organelle responsible for protein synthesis is the:



    A. ribosomes
  11. The cell cycle phase, which is the period before the duplication or synthesis of DNA in the nucleus, is:



    C. G1
  12. The process resulting in the transfer of genetic information from a molecule of DNA to a molecule of RNA is:



    D. Transcription
  13. The process that results in the construction of a polypeptide in accordance with the genetic information contained in a molecule of RNA is:




    A. Translation
  14. The gene that regulates the normal development and growth of cancerous tissue is a:


    A. Oncogene
  15. The absence or inactivation of which gene leads to uncontrolled growth or neoplasm?


    B. Tumor suppressor gene
  16. The term that relates biologic response to the quality of radiation is:



    C. LET
  17. Generally, which is the most radio sensitive phase of the cell cycle?



    C. M
  18. Which of the following tissues is the most radio sensitive?



    D. Ocular lens
  19. What are the four R's of radiation biology?
    Reoxygenation, Redistribution, Repopulation and Repair
  20. Strandquist's isoeffect curves are related to which of the following?



    C. Fractionation
  21. According to the law of B and T, ionizing radiation is more effective against cells that are:
    Actively mitotic, undifferentiated and have a long mitotic future
  22. Which of the following particles do not contribute to the direct effects of radiation?



    C. positrons
  23. Gross structural changes in chromosomes resulting from radiation damage are referred to as:



    A. Aberrations lesions or anomalies
  24. What is another term for the cellular response that results in that the delay of division of cells in the cell cycle?



    D. Apoptosis
    B. Mitotic delay
  25. The most important parameters that allow interpretation of survival curves are:
    • Extrapolation number (n)
    • Do (or D37)
    • Quasi-threshold dose (Dq)
  26. Which of the following are considered xray interactions occurring with matter?
    A. Bremsstrahlung xrays
    B. Compton scattering
    C. photoelectric absorption
    D. Rectification
    Compton and photoelectric
  27. Pulse radio frequency techniques to help produce medical images best describes which of the following imaging modalities?



    C. MRI
  28. Amorphous silicon is commonly found in:



    C. Flat panel detectors
  29. Although the following are methods of extending the life of an xray tube except:



    A.
  30. Bremsstrahlung interactions occur:



    D. within the xray target
  31. Which of the following does not relate to beam quality?



    D. Penumbra
  32. Which of the following two kilo voltage xray machines would be used to treat a skin cancer that was estimated to be nearly 2 cm in thickness?



    C.
  33. If an electron beam does not demonstrate consistency in depth across the treatment field what might be at fault?



    D.
  34. What is the average energy with which cobalt 60 emits gamma rays used for radiation therapy treatments?



    D. 1.25
  35. Penumbra is related to which of the following?

    A. cobalt 60
    B. Multi leaf collimator
    C. klystron
    D. magnetron
    (can be more than one)
    A. and B.
  36. Which of the following would not be used for IGRT?



    D. Orthovoltage xray unit
  37. A beam flattening filter is placed in the path of the beam when __________ are used for treatment purposes.



    D. Xrays
  38. What does a klystron or magnetron produce?




    A. Microwave power
  39. Trace the path of an electron in the linear accelerator or by selecting the best route from the following:
    1 electron gun
    2 collimator
    3 accelerator guide
    4 Bending magnet
    1342: Electron gun accelerator guide Bending magnet collimator
  40. Once certified, how many continuing education credits must a radiation therapist earn to maintain his or her registry?



    C. 24 credits every two years
  41. Which of the following viruses has been shown capable of living on environmentally friendly surface for as long as seven days?



    C. Hepatitis B
  42. The term used to describe the number of antibodies present any blood sample is:



    C. Titers
  43. If a healthcare worker is stuck by a needle and consents to blood collection but not to an HIV test, the blood sample must be preserved by law for at least:



    C. 90 days
  44. What are the six rights of medication administration?
    • right patient 
    • right medication 
    • right dose 
    • right time 
    • right route
    • right documentation
  45. That way in which drugs affect the body is called:



    C.
  46. Which of the following is not a parenteral route of administration for medications?



    C.
  47. The way a drug travels through the body to the appropriate receptor site is known as:



    D. Pharmacokinetics
  48. The abbreviation QOD stands for:



    B. Once every other day
  49. The escape of fluid from a vessel into the surrounding tissue, which can cause localized vasoconstriction, is termed:



    D.
  50. Which of the following is a parenteral route administration?



    B. Intravenous
  51. When using both tandem and ovoids in a gynecological implant, the typical resultant dose distribution has the shape of a:



    D. Pear
  52. After loading techniques were developed primarily to reduce:



    A. Exposure personnel
  53. The decay constant describes:


    C.  Fraction of the number of atoms that decay per unit time (λ)
  54. The average lifetime for the decay of radioactive atoms is the definition of:



    B. Mean life
  55. Radium sources are leak tested to check for:



    C. radon 222
  56. Packing in GYN implants serves which of the following purposes:
    I. spaces sources to even out dose distribution
    II. aids in pushing dose sensitive structures farther from the source
    III. provides stability of applicator placement 



    • B. II and III
    • II. aids in pushing dose sensitive structures farther from the source
    • III. provides stability of applicator placement
  57. The distance between the ends of radioactive material in a radioisotope tube is known as:



    D. Active length
  58. Modern photon radiation treatment units may:




    E. All of the above
  59. MV images differ from KV images in that MV images have:



    A. Smaller amounts of metal artifacts
  60. Four dimensional CT:



    D.
  61. Cone beam CT differs from regular CT and that cone beam CT:



    C.
  62. The respiratory cycle of a normal resting adult is approximately:




    B. 4 seconds
  63. One significant advantage of protons compared with photons is that:




    D. Image guidance is not required
    C.
  64. The role of multi-leaf collimation is to produce a beam shape consistent with the 3D volume of the ________, referred to as beam sculpting.



    A. Tumor
  65. In inverse treatment planning, the planner ________ MLC settings.
    A. Specifies
    B. Does not specify
    B. Does not specify
  66. In inverse treatment planning, desired doses _______ to the tumor, as well as to normal tissues.
    A. Are specified
    B. Are not specified
    A. Are specified
  67. Treatment portals are designed using the perspective of a:



    A.
  68. Computer iterations are performed to establish:



    D. Optimization
  69. In treatment planning, when dose delivery parameters are computed based on target dose-delivery and normal tissue-avoidance criteria, the process is termed:



    B. inverse
  70. Plan evaluation for IMRT the relies on analysis of dose distribution to assess dose to designated normal tissue. One item of study includes the:



    C. Dose volume histogram
  71. A fluence pattern may also be referred to as a:




    B. intensity profile
  72. Activity is defined as:



    D. The rate of nuclear decay
  73. The source of ionizing radiation that contributes the most to exposure of the general population in the United States is:



    C. Natural background radiation
  74. Which type of device is best suited for output measurements of radiation therapy equipment?




    C. Ionization chamber
  75. Stochastic, or non threshold effects, of radiation exposure do not include:



    A. cataract formation
  76. Exposure of which of the following people would contribute the most to the genetically significant dose?



    B. 20 year old woman
  77. The annual effective dose equivalent limit for radiation workers is:
    A. 0.5 mSv
    B. 5 mSv
    C. 50 mSv
    D. 500 mSv
    C. 50 mSv
  78. Absorbed dose is defined as:
    A. Rest mass of an electron but has a positive charge
    B. Product of absorbed dose and QF
    C. Ionizations per unit mass of air by photons  

    D. Energy absorbed per unit mass
    D. Energy absorbed per unit mass
  79. Exposure is defined as:




    D. Energy absorbed per unit mass
    B. Ionizations per unit mass of air by photons
  80. An Alpha particle is best defined as:



    A. Short range, relatively high mass, high LET particle
  81. What is the recommended frequency of checking audio and video monitors in treatment rooms?



    C. Daily
  82. Quality improvement is specifically: 



    C.
  83. Ongoing evaluation of all aspects of care for the purpose of determining areas where improvement is needed is known as:



    A.
  84. An assessment of an aspect of a plan of action by those with the same job title and responsibilities is known as:



    A.
  85. Which vessel returns lymph from the entire body back into the bloodstream, with the exception of the upper right limb and the right side of the thorax, head, and neck?



    B.
  86. The angle of the mandible is generally located at which vertebra number level?



    B. C4
  87. In the lower neck, the esophagus lies _________to the spinal cord and __________ to the trachea.
    Anterior to the spinal cord and Posterior to the trachea
  88. The ________ and ________ portions of the spine are examples of primary curves.
    Thoracic & Pelvic
  89. Which of the following steps and the radiation therapy process immediately proceeds the actual treatment of a patient?



    A.
  90. The second part of the two-step conventional simulation process is called:
    Verification
  91. A projection is defined as:


    B.
  92. The average linear attenuation coefficient per pixel is called:


    C.
  93. Contrast media may be given to patients with a brain tumor:
    A. 10 minutes prior to scan
    B: immediately before the scan
    C: time does not matter
    A.
  94. If the in the field of view for CT scanning is larger using the same image matrix, the:


    A.
  95. CT artifacts created from motion during the scan are called:


    A.
  96. To increase contrast when viewing a DRR one would:



    D. Narrow the window width
  97. Which of the following will reduce image noise?



    C. and C.
  98. Percentage depth dose increases with increasing:



     (can be more than one)
    C. and C. Energy and field size
  99. Tissue air ratio decreases with decreasing:


    A. Field size
  100. When blocking is used in a treatment calculation, the area of the collimator is used in determining:


    B. Sc
  101. Which of the following central axis depth dose quantities would most likely be used to compute an accurate monitor unit setting on an 18 MV unit for an isocentric treatment?



    C.
  102. Two parallel opposed equally weighted cobalt 60 fields are separated by 20 cm of tissue and treated with an SSD technique. The maximum dose will occur:



    C.
  103. A wedge filter ________ the output of the beam and thus must be taken into account in the treatment calculations.


    A.
  104. The Mayneord factor is used to convert:

    a. PDD with a change in SSD from the standard

    B. TAR with a change in SSD from the standard

    C. Exposure rate with a change in SSD from standard
    A.
  105. Isodose distributions are ______ dimensional representations of the spatial distribution of dose.



    C. Two
  106. Wedged field isodose distributions are characterized by increased radiation intensity under the___________ of the wedge.
    A. Heel
    B. Toe
    B. Toe
  107. Use of parallel opposed fields only is contraindicated as beam energy __________ and patient thickness ___________.



    B. decreases, increases
  108. In treatment planning, when dose delivery parameters are computed based on target dose delivery and normal tissue avoidance criteria, the process is termed ___________ planning.



    A. Inverse
  109. The quality of DRR's can be improved by _______ the thickness of CT slices.
    A. Increasing
    B. Decreasing
    B. Decreasing
  110. true or false: a plan evaluation tool that simultaneously presents dose and volume information in a graphic form allowing objects is playing an assessment is the dose volume histogram
    True
  111. What is the predominant mode of electron beam interaction or scattering in the 1 to 20 MeV energy range used in radiation therapy?


    B. Collisional
  112. An advantage of the use of scattering foils in electron beam therapy is:


    A.
  113. If two electron beams adjoin or abut each other on the patient's skin surface, how does this affect the dose to the patient at depth below the point where the fields abut?
    A. The dose at depth is increased
    B. The dose at depth is decreased
    C. There is no change to the dose at depth
    A.
  114. Which of the following is not an application of bolus for electron treatments?



    D.  eliminate skin sparing for low energy electrons
  115. Wedge systems include of the following except:



    C. global
Author
RadiationTherapy
ID
267292
Card Set
Washington & Leaver 1-27
Description
Washington & Leaver Chapter Review Questions: Chapters 1-27
Updated