Washington & Leaver 1-27

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RadiationTherapy
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Washington & Leaver 1-27
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2014-05-03 00:42:16
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Textbook Review
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Washington & Leaver Chapter Review Questions: Chapters 1-27
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  1. The foundation of law is:
    A. autonomy
    B. justice
    C. ethics
    D. confidentiality
    C. ethics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Moral ethics are based on which of the following?
    A. right & wrong
    B. institutions
    C. legal rights
    D. codes
    A. right & wrong
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following is it ethical principle?
    A. Confidentiality
    B. Egoism
    C. Justice
    D. Individual freedom
    C. justice
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. A tort falls under which of the following?
    A. Criminal law
    B. Statutory law
    C. Civil law
    D. Common law
    C. Civil law
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Informed consent must be secured:
    A. Verbally and written
    B. In writing
    C. Verbally
    D. Upon admission
    B. In writing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The acronym HIPAA stands for:
    Health insurance portability and accountability act
  7. A tumor that tends to grow slowly is said to be:
    A. Moderately well differentiated
    B. Poorly differentiated
    C. Well differentiated
    D. Moderately differentiated
    C. well differentiated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The most common cause of tissue damage is: A. Microbial infection
    B. Ionizing radiation
    C. Allergic or immune reaction
    D. Hypoxia
    d. hypoxia
  9. All of the following tumors arise from epithelial tissues except:
    A. Choriocarcinoma
    B. Leukemia
    C. Cystadenocarcinoma
    D. Transitional cell carcinoma
    B. leukemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. The organelle responsible for protein synthesis is the:
    A. peroxisomes
    B. ribosomes
    C. golgi apparatus
    D. Mitochondria
    B. ribosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The cell cycle phase, which is the period before the duplication or synthesis of DNA in the nucleus, is:
    A. S
    B. G1
    C. M
    D. G2
    B. G1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The process resulting in the transfer of genetic information from a molecule of DNA to a molecule of RNA is:
    A. Translation
    B. Synthesis
    C. Transcription
    D. Transfer
    C. Transcription
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The process that results in the construction of a polypeptide in accordance with the genetic information contained in a molecule of RNA is:

    A. Transfer
    B. Transcription
    C. Translation
    D. Synthesis
    C. Translation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The gene that regulates the normal development and growth of cancerous tissue is a:
    A. Oncogene
    B. Proto oncogene
    C. Tumor suppressor gene
    A. Oncogene
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. The absence or inactivation of which gene leads to uncontrolled growth or neoplasm?
    A. Proto oncogene
    B. Tumor suppressor gene
    C. Oncogene
    B. Tumor suppressor gene
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The term that relates biologic response to the quality of radiation is:
    A. TR
    B. LET
    C. OER
    D. RBE 
    B. LET
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Generally, which is the most radio sensitive phase of the cell cycle?
    A. M
    B. S
    C. G1
    D. G2
    A. M
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which of the following tissues is the most radio sensitive?
    A. Muscle
    B. Bone and cartilage
    C. Liver
    D. Ocular lens
    D. Ocular lens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. What are the four R's of radiation biology?
    Reoxygenation, Redistribution, Repopulation and Repair
  20. Strandquist's isoeffect curves are related to which of the following?
    A. Translocation of DNA
    B. Oxygen enhancement
    C. Fractionation
    D. Radiation syndromes
    C. Fractionation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. According to the law of B and T, ionizing radiation is more effective against cells that are:
    Actively mitotic, undifferentiated and have a long mitotic future
  22. Which of the following particles do not contribute to the direct effects of radiation?
    A. Positrons
    B. Protons
    C. Heavy nuclear fragment
    D. Alpha particles
    A. positrons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Gross structural changes in chromosomes resulting from radiation damage are referred to as:
    A. Interphase death or replication failure
    B. Aberrations lesions or anomalies
    C. Deletions or inversions
    D. Chromosome stickiness or clumping
    B. Aberrations lesions or anomalies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. What is another term for the cellular response that results in that the delay of division of cells in the cell cycle?
    A. Mitotic delay
    B. Interface death
    C. Apoptosis
    D. Reproductive failure
    A. Mitotic delay
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The most important parameters that allow interpretation of survival curves are:
    • Extrapolation number (n)
    • Do (or D37)
    • Quasi-threshold dose (Dq)
  26. Which of the following are considered xray interactions occurring with matter?
    A. Bremsstrahlung xrays
    B. Compton scattering
    C. photoelectric absorption
    D. Rectification
    Compton and photoelectric
  27. Pulse radio frequency techniques to help produce medical images best describes which of the following imaging modalities?
    A. MRI
    B. CT
    C. PET
    D. Ultrasound
    A. MRI
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Amorphous silicon is commonly found in:
    A. Photostimulable plates
    B. Intensifying screens
    C. Xray target material
    D. Flat panel detectors
    D. Flat panel detectors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Although the following are methods of extending the life of an xray tube except:
    A. Following manufacturer's warm-up procedure
    B. Monitoring the heat units created during multiple exposures
    C. Using high mA filament current values whenever possible that the
    D. Avoiding multiple exposures near the tube limit
    C
  30. Bremsstrahlung interactions occur:
    A. At low energies within the patient
    B. As electrons are boiled off the filament
    C. At high energy's within the patient
    D. Within the xray target
    D. within the xray target
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following does not relate to beam quality?
    A. penumbra
    B. KVP
    C. Central axis depth dose
    D. MA
    A. Penumbra
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following two kilo voltage xray machines would be used to treat a skin cancer that was estimated to be nearly 2 cm in thickness?
    A. Superficial treatments
    B. Contact therapy
    C. Orthovoltage therapy
    D. Betatron
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. If an electron beam does not demonstrate consistency in depth across the treatment field what might be at fault?
    A. wedge
    B. Multi leaf collimator
    C. Flattening filter
    D. Scattering foil
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. What is the average energy with which cobalt 60 emits gamma rays used for radiation therapy treatments?
    A. 1.25
    B. 2.50
    C. 1.33
    D. 1.17
    A. 1.25
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Penumbra is related to which of the following?

    A. Multi leaf collimator
    B. klystron
    C. cobalt 60
    D. magnetron
    (can be more than one)
    C. and B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which of the following would not be used for IGRT?
    A. Ultrasound
    B. Orthovoltage xray unit
    C. KV cone beam CT
    D. EPID
    B. Orthovoltage xray unit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. A beam flattening filter is placed in the path of the beam when __________ are used for treatment purposes.
    A. Electrons
    B. Gamma rays
    C. xrays
    D. Protons
    C. Xrays
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. What does a klystron or magnetron produce?

    A. Microwave power
    B. Magnetic fields used to bend the beam
    C. Alternating current
    D. Accelerated electrons and photons
    A. Microwave power
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Trace the path of an electron in the linear accelerator or by selecting the best route from the following:
    1 electron gun
    2 collimator
    3 accelerator guide
    4 Bending magnet
    1342: Electron gun accelerator guide Bending magnet collimator
  40. Once certified, how many continuing education credits must a radiation therapist earn to maintain his or her registry?
    A. 12 credits a year
    B. 12 credits every two years
    C. Six credits a year
    D. 24 credits every two years
    D. 24 credits every two years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which of the following viruses has been shown capable of living on environmentally friendly surface for as long as seven days?
    A. HIV
    B. rubeola
    C. Hepatitis B
    D. Influenza
    C. Hepatitis B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. The term used to describe the number of antibodies present any blood sample is:
    A. titers
    B. Antigen coefficient
    C. Immune serum level
    D. Globulin factor
    A. Titers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. If a healthcare worker is stuck by a needle and consents to blood collection but not to an HIV test, the blood sample must be preserved by law for at least:
    A. One week
    B. Six months
    C. 30 days
    D. 90 days
    D. 90 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. What are the six rights of medication administration?
    • right patient 
    • right medication 
    • right dose 
    • right time 
    • right route
    • right documentation
  45. That way in which drugs affect the body is called:
    A. pharmacodynamics
    B. Drug effectiveness
    C. Metabolism
    D. pharmacokinetics
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which of the following is not a parenteral route of administration for medications?
    A. Subcutaneous
    B. instillation
    C. Intramuscular
    D. Intravenous
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. The way a drug travels through the body to the appropriate receptor site is known as:
    A. Excretion
    B. Pharmacokinetics
    C. Pharmacodynamics
    D. Distribution
    B. Pharmacokinetics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The abbreviation QOD stands for:
    A. Once every other day
    B. Once daily
    C. Daily
    D. None of the above
    A. Once every other day
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. The escape of fluid from a vessel into the surrounding tissue, which can cause localized vasoconstriction, is termed:
    A. Extravasation
    B. Edema
    C. Anaphylaxis
    D. Hematoma
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which of the following is a parenteral route administration?
    A. Oral
    B. Topical
    C. Intravenous
    D. Inhalation
    C. Intravenous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. When using both tandem and ovoids in a gynecological implant, the typical resultant dose distribution has the shape of a:
    A. Oval
    B. Pear
    C. Butterfly
    D. Rectangle
    B. Pear
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. After loading techniques were developed primarily to reduce:
    A. Exposure to personnel
    B. The time required for a implant
    C. Exposure to nearby dose limiting structures
    D. The possibility of loading errors
    A. Exposure personnel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. The decay constant describes:
    A. Fraction of the number of atoms that decay per unit time
    B. The number of ionizations produced in tissue per unit time
    C. The half life of a particular radionuclide
    A. Fraction of the number of atoms that decay per unit time (λ)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. The average lifetime for the decay of radioactive atoms is the definition of:
    A. Decay constant
    B. Half life
    C. Mean life
    D. Specific activity
    C. Mean life
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Radium sources are leak tested to check for:
    A. lead 208
    B. radon 222
    C. radium 228
    D. uranium 238
    B. radon 222
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Packing in GYN implants serves which of the following purposes:
    I. spaces sources to even out dose distribution
    II. aids in pushing dose sensitive structures farther from the source
    III. provides stability of applicator placement 
    a. I and II
    b. I and III
    c. II and III
    d. I, II and III
    • c. II and III
    • II. aids in pushing dose sensitive structures farther from the source
    • III. provides stability of applicator placement
  57. The distance between the ends of radioactive material in a radioisotope tube is known as:
    A. Physical length
    B. Active length
    C. Permanent activity
    D. Filtration distance
    B. Active length
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Modern photon radiation treatment units may:
    A. be one device on the hospital network receiving treatment specific information
    B. Have both KV and MV imaging capabilities
    C. Be controlled by multiple Computer Systems
    D. Be designed to deliver non-isocentric treatments
    E. All of the above
    E. All of the above
  59. MV images differ from KV images in that MV images have:
    A. Better soft tissue contrast
    B. Smaller amounts of metal artifacts
    C. Lower radiation dose to the patient
    D. Higher spatial resolution
    B. Smaller amounts of metal artifacts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Four dimensional CT:
    A. Can be used to define the extent of a respiratory motion
    B. Requires the patients to hold his or her breath
    C. Images an anatomic location and the patient only once
    D. Would not display the target motion during the respiratory cycle
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Cone beam CT differs from regular CT and that cone beam CT:
    A. Uses a two dimensional xray detector
    B. Must use a KV source of a xrays below 10 KV to reduce scattering
    C. Produces images that have a smaller amount a scatter
    D. Must be produced with a mega voltage source
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. The respiratory cycle of a normal resting adult is approximately:
    A. 1 second
    B. 4 seconds
    C. 10 seconds
    D. 20 seconds
    E. 15 seconds
    B. 4 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. One significant advantage of protons compared with photons is that:
    A. Energy is deposited only two malignant tissue and not to normal tissue
    B. protons are less expensive to produce than photons
    C. Protons have limited range in the patient

    D. Image guidance is not required
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. The role of multi-leaf collimation is to produce a beam shape consistent with the 3D volume of the ________, referred to as beam sculpting.
    A. Normal tissue
    B. Field
    C. Tumor
    D. Normal and surrounding tissue
    C. Tumor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. In inverse treatment planning, the planner ________ MLC settings.
    A. Specifies
    B. Does not specify
    B. Does not specify
  66. In inverse treatment planning, desired doses _______ to the tumor, as well as to normal tissues.
    A. Are specified
    B. Are not specified
    A. Are specified
  67. Treatment portals are designed using the perspective of a:
    A. Oncology certified nurse
    B. Beams eye view
    C. Certified dosimetrist
    D. Medical physicist
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Computer iterations are performed to establish:
    A. Optimization
    B. Dose patterns
    C. Leaf movement files
    D. Field placement
    A. Optimization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. In treatment planning, when dose delivery parameters are computed based on target dose-delivery and normal tissue-avoidance criteria, the process is termed:
    A. inverse
    B. reciprocal
    C. forward
    D. reverse
    A. inverse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Plan evaluation for IMRT the relies on analysis of dose distribution to assess dose to designated normal tissue. One item of study includes the:
    A. Dose volume histogram
    B. Electronic portal imaging device
    C. Port film
    D. Record and verify system
    A. Dose volume histogram
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. A fluence pattern may also be referred to as a:

    A. Wedged pattern
    B. Intensity profile
    C. Beam direction pattern
    D. Filter profile
    B. intensity profile
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Activity is defined as:
    A. Rest mass is same as an electron but has a positive charge
    B. The rate of nuclear decay
    C. The product of a absorbed dose and QF
    D. Ionization per unit mass of air by photons
    B. The rate of nuclear decay
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. The source of ionizing radiation that contributes the most to exposure of the general population in the United States is:
    A. Natural background radiation
    B. Nuclear power plants
    C. Medical procedures
    D. Above ground nuclear testing
    A. Natural background radiation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Which type of device is best suited for output measurements of radiation therapy equipment?

    A. TLD
    B. Ionization chamber
    C. GM detector
    D. Xray film
    B. Ionization chamber
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Stochastic, or non threshold effects, of radiation exposure do not include:
    A. cancer induction
    B. Genetic effects
    C. Cataract formation
    D. Birth defects
    C. cataract formation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Exposure of which of the following people would contribute the most to the genetically significant dose?
    A. All contribute equally
    B. 70 year old man
    C. 20 year old woman
    D. 50 year old woman
    C. 20 year old woman
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. The annual effective dose equivalent limit for radiation workers is:
    A. 50 mSv
    B. 5 mSv
    C. 500 mSv
    D. 0.5 mSv
    A. 50 mSv
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Absorbed dose is defined as:
    A. Rest mass of an electron but has a positive charge
    B. Product of absorbed dose and QF
    C. Ionizations per unit mass of air by photons  

    D. Energy absorbed per unit mass
    D. Energy absorbed per unit mass
  79. Exposure is defined as:
    A. Ionizations per unit mass of air by photons
    B. Rest mass of any electron but has a positive charge
    C. Product of absorbed dose and QF

    D. Energy absorbed per unit mass
    A. Ionizations per unit mass of air by photons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. An Alpha particle is best defined as:
    A. Produced by electron rearrangement
    B. Produced during nuclear decay having no charge or mass
    C. Rest mass is same as an electron but has a positive charge
    D. Short range, relatively high mass, high LET particle
    D. Short range, relatively high mass, high LET particle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. What is the recommended frequency of checking audio and video monitors in treatment rooms?
    A. Monthly
    B. Yearly
    C. Weekly
    D. Daily
    D. Daily
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Quality improvement is specifically: 
    A. The operational techniques and activities used to fulfill quality requirements
    B. Both a and B
    C. Neither a nor B
    D. proactive means to ensure quality patient care
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Ongoing evaluation of all aspects of care for the purpose of determining areas where improvement is needed is known as:
    A. Quality assurance
    B. Quality control
    C. Total quality management
    D. Quality is assessment
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. An assessment of an aspect of a plan of action by those with the same job title and responsibilities is known as:
    A. Quality control
    B. Quality audit
    C. Peer review
    D. Quality indicator
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Which vessel returns lymph from the entire body back into the bloodstream, with the exception of the upper right limb and the right side of the thorax, head, and neck?
    A. Thoracic duct
    B. Cistern chyli
    C. superior vena cava
    D. Right lymphatic duct
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. The angle of the mandible is generally located at which vertebra number level?
    A. C1
    B. T1
    C. T4
    D. C4
    D. C4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. In the lower neck, the esophagus lies _________to the spinal cord and __________ to the trachea.
    Anterior to the spinal cord and Posterior to the trachea
  88. The ________ and ________ portions of the spine are examples of primary curves.
    Thoracic & Pelvic
  89. Which of the following steps and the radiation therapy process immediately proceeds the actual treatment of a patient?
    A. Biopsy of the tumor
    B. Consultation
    C. Simulation and treatment planning
    D. Diagnoses
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. The second part of the two-step conventional simulation process is called:
    Verification
  91. A projection is defined as:
    A. An intensity pattern created from the linear at attenuation coefficient
    B. B xray tube and detector completing one revolution around the patient
    C. The raw data recorded from CT scan
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. The average linear attenuation coefficient per pixel is called:
    A. Image matrix
    B. Filtered back projection
    C. Hounsfields units
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Contrast media may be given to patients with a brain tumor:
    A. 10 minutes prior to scan
    B: immediately before the scan
    C: time does not matter
    A.
  94. If the in the field of view for CT scanning is larger using the same image matrix, the:
    A. Spatial resolution is worse
    B. Image contrast is a better
    C. Spatial resolution is better
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. CT artifacts created from motion during the scan are called:
    A. Star artifacts
    B. Beam hardening artifacts
    C. Partial volume artifacts
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. To increase contrast when viewing a DRR one would:
    A. Increase the window level
    B. Widen the window width range to be displayed
    C. Decrease the window level
    D. Narrow the window width range to be displayed
    D. Narrow the window width
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Which of the following will reduce image noise?
    A. Increase kVp and mA's 
    B. Sharpening image filter
    C. Increased FOV
    D. Larger pixel size
    A. and C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Percentage depth dose increases with increasing:
    A. Depth
    B. Energy
    C. Field size
     (can be more than one)
    B. and C. Energy and field size
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Tissue air ratio decreases with decreasing:
    A. Field size
    B. SSD
    C. Depth
    A. Field size
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. When blocking is used in a treatment calculation, the area of the collimator is used in determining:
    A. PDD
    B. TMR
    C. Sc
    C. Sc
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. Which of the following central axis depth dose quantities would most likely be used to compute an accurate monitor unit setting on an 18 MV unit for an isocentric treatment?
    A. Back scatter factor
    B. Percentage depth dose
    C. Tissue maximum ratio
    D. All of the above the
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Two parallel opposed equally weighted cobalt 60 fields are separated by 20 cm of tissue and treated with an SSD technique. The maximum dose will occur:
    A. 5 cm under the skin surface
    B. 0.5 cm under the skin surface
    C. Directly on the skin surface
    D. At the midline of the patient
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. A wedge filter ________ the output of the beam and thus must be taken into account in the treatment calculations.
    A. Does not affect
    B. Decreases
    C. Increases
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. The Mayneord factor is used to convert:

    a. PDD with a change in SSD from the standard

    B. TAR with a change in SSD from the standard

    C. Exposure rate with a change in SSD from standard
    A.
  105. Isodose distributions are ______ dimensional representations of the spatial distribution of dose.
    A. Two
    B. Four
    C. Three
    D. One
    A. Two
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Wedged field isodose distributions are characterized by increased radiation intensity under the___________ of the wedge.
    A. Heel
    B. Toe
    B. Toe
  107. Use of parallel opposed fields only is contraindicated as beam energy __________ and patient thickness ___________.
    A. Increases, decreases
    B. Decreases, decreases
    C. Increases, increases
    D. Decreases, increases
    D. decreases, increases
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. In treatment planning, when dose delivery parameters are computed based on target dose delivery and normal tissue avoidance criteria, the process is termed ___________ planning.
    A. Inverse
    B. Reverse
    C. Reciprocal
    D. Forward
    A. Inverse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. The quality of DRR's can be improved by _______ the thickness of CT slices.
    A. Increasing
    B. Decreasing
    B. Decreasing
  110. true or false: a plan evaluation tool that simultaneously presents dose and volume information in a graphic form allowing objects is playing an assessment is the dose volume histogram
    True
  111. What is the predominant mode of electron beam interaction or scattering in the 1 to 20 MeV energy range used in radiation therapy?
    A. Radiation
    B. bremsstrahlung
    C. Collisional
    C. Collisional
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. An advantage of the use of scattering foils in electron beam therapy is:
    A. Scattering foils are simple and reliable in use
    B. decreased bremsstrahlung contamination
    C. Precision treatment with the use of low maintenance complex Electronic Systems
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. If two electron beams adjoin or abut each other on the patient's skin surface, how does this affect the dose to the patient at depth below the point where the fields abut?
    A. There is no change to the dose at depth
    B. The dose at depth is decreased
    C. The dose at depth is increased
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which of the following is not an application of bolus for electron treatments?
    A. eliminate skin sparing for low energy electrons
    B. decrease depth of dose penetration
    C. compensate for tissue deficits
    D. eliminate skin sparing for high energy electrons
    A. eliminate skin sparing for low energy electrons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Wedge systems include of the following except:
    A. universal
    B. global
    C. standard tray mounted
    D. virtual
    B. global
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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