Washington & Leaver Chapters 28-40

  1. The incidence rate of bone cancer is highest during:



    B.
  2. A nonosseous malignant tumor of the marrow is:



    B. Multiple myeloma
  3. A bone lesion resulting from a primary site elsewhere in the body is a:



    D. Metastatic disease
  4. The most common site of a primary bone sarcoma is:



    D. metaphyseal
  5. Prognostic indicators for patients with primary bone cancer include all of the following accept: A. Age
    B. Gender
    C. Location
    D. Weight
    D. Weight
  6. The most common site of metastasis from primary bone cancer is:



    B. Lung
  7. _____________ is most commonly used in treating metastatic bone disease resulting from primary prostate or breast cancer.



    B. Strontium 89
  8. Although the exact cause of STS is unknown, a factor that has been implicated is:




    D.  Appearance as a second primary 5 to 15 years after high dose radiation therapy for other cancers
  9. Factors or clinical signs that are incorporated into the staging systems and considered appropriate as general prognostic indicators for STS include:
    I. Histology II. Size III. Gender



    D.
  10. Regional lymph nodes are generally not included in the treatment portals for STS. Which of the following are exceptions for this statement? I. rhabdomyosarcoma II. synovial sarcoma III. leiomyosarcoma
    A. I and II
    B. I and III
    C. II and III
    D. I, II, and III
    A. rhabdomyosarcoma & synovial sarcoma require inclusion of regional lymphatics
  11. The rationale for leaving a 1 to 3 centimeter strip of skin and soft tissue rather than total circumference a radiation of an extremity being treated for STS is that it:



    B.  Avoids future excessive fibrosis and edema
  12. Advantages of preoperative radiation therapy for STS include:



    A.  Possibility of less aggressive surgery because of tumor regression
  13. Intra operative electron beam radiation usually involves energies ranging from 9 to 15 MeV with doses to the range of:



    A.  10 to 20 Gy
  14. The estimated number of new cases of primary bone cancer diagnosed each year is approximately:
    A. 1000 to 1800
    B. 2300 to 2800
    C. 3000 to 3600
    B.  2300-2800
  15. Radiation therapy doses for post operative STS are generally in the range of:



    D. 60-66 Gy
  16. The __________ lymph nodes are typically treated in a mantle irradiation field:



    D. Hilar
  17. The following is not B symptom:



    B. itching
  18. Which subtype of hodgkin's lymphoma offers the most favorable prognosis?
    A. Lymphocytic predominance
    B. Nodular sclerosis
    C. mixed cellularity
    D. lymphocytic depletion
    A. lymphocytic predominance
  19. When treating a posterior mantle field, the Superior Field border should include the _________ lymph node group.



    C. occipital
  20. The following may be seen as an acute complication of treatment for lymphoma:



    C. fatigue
  21. Non Hodgkins lymphoma differs from hodgkin's disease in which of the following ways? I. Occurs in older persons II. Can originate in extra lymphatic tissue III. Is less likely to spread randomly



    B. occurs in older persons & is less likely to spread randomly
  22. Subdiaphragmatic field arrangements used in the inverted Y commonly include:



    C.  Paraaortic nodes & Inguinal node
  23. True or false: Chemotherapy treatment regimens have had an increasing role in lymphoma management
    True
  24. The following radiographic studies are commonly used in the diagnostic work up of lymphoma:
    I. Thoracic CT scan II. PET scan III. MRI



    C.
  25. True or false: AIDS associated lymphomas are usually intermediate and high grade disease and are highly aggressive.
    True
  26. Which of the following concerning CLL is not true



    B.
  27. Which of the following is a specific characteristic of CML?



    C. Philadelphia chromosome
  28. Which of the following is not a common symptom associated with acute leukemia at the time of presentation?



    B. N & V
  29. Which of the following leukemias has not been associated with previous radiation exposure?



    A. CLL
  30. Anatomic sites that are potential sanctuaries for leukemic cells are of the:
    I. Testes II. Spleen III. CNS



    B. Testes and CNS
  31. Which of the following is not one of the main subtypes of leukemia?



    D. CCL
  32. The primary treatment modality for leukemia is:



    A. Chemotherapy
  33. The most documented etiologic factor for leukemia in humans is:



    C. ionizing radiation
  34. The type of leukemia that essentially has no cure is:



    C. CML
  35. Splenomegaly indicates:



    D. An enlargement of the spleen
  36. The cancers that are most common of the endocrine malignancies are:



    C. Thyroid
  37. Radioactive iodine 131 is used in the treatment of __________ tumors.



    C. Thyroid
  38. Of all functioning pituitary adenomas, prolactin secreting tumors affect the _________ as a target organ.



    B. breast
  39. The anatomic structure located just superior to the pituitary gland is the:



    B.  optic chiasm
  40. Which of the following is an indication for the use of radioactive iodine?



    D.
  41. The pituitary tumors that remain within the pituitary are:



    B.  intra hypophyseal
  42. Which of the following would not be considered an endocrine type tumor?



    B. breast
  43. Which of the following is not a hormone secreted by the pituitary gland?



    D. ZH
  44. Proton beams are sometimes used in the treatment of __________ tumors.
    A. breast
    B. thyroid
    C. adrenal gland
    D. pituitary
    D. pituitary
  45. Which of the following does not belong in this group?



    C. follicular
  46. Microscopically, diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place at the:



    B. alveolar-capillary membranes
  47. (lung cancer) Symptoms associated with local disease include:
    I. hemoptysis II. dyspnea III. orthopnea



    A. hemoptysis & orthopnea
  48. (lung cancer)Symptoms associated with regional disease include:
    I. dysphagia II. Superior vena cava syndrome III. orthopnea



    A.
  49. In what part of the lung are adenocarcinomas usually found? 



    C. peripheral
  50. In what part of the lung are primary large cell carcinomas usually found? 



    D. peripheral
  51. In what part of the lung are primary squamous cell carcinomas usually found?



    C. central

    (tend to be proximal & invade the hilum)
  52. Critical structures frequently located in the treatment fields for lung cancer include:



    A. normal lung and trachea
  53. What are the two groups of lymphatics that are primarily responsible for the regional spread of bronchogenic carcinomas?
    Mediastinal & Intrapulmonary
  54. With conventional fractionation, what is the commonly accepted definitive dose range for localized bronchogenic carcinomas?
    60 to 75 Gy
  55. Multiple tumor types are included in the head and neck region, which type of primary tumor is most common?



    D.  Squamous cell carcinoma
  56. The primary lymphatic drainage of the lower lip would be to:
    A. Submental nodes
    B. Submaxillary nodes
    C. Subdigastric node
    D. The posterior cervical chain
    A. Submental nodes
  57. What normal tissue would be at most risk of radiation damage when treating the maxillary antrum?



    C. eye
  58. The most common sign or symptom of oral cancer is:



    C. ulceration
  59. The most commonly involved group of nodes in oropharyngeal cancer is the:
    A. submandibular
    B. retropharyngeal
    C. jugulodigastric
    D. supraclavicular
    C. jugulodigastric
  60. A tumor confined to the larynx with cord fixation in glottic cancer is staged as a:



    A. T3

    (cord fixation is automatic stage three)
  61. Palpation of the cricoid cartilage indicates the inferior border of the:



    C. larynx
  62. For patients with carious teeth, when is dental work recommended when anticipating oral cavity radiation?
    A. following treatment
    B. preceding treatment
    C. neither A nor B
    B. preceding treatment
  63. True or false: postcricoid cancers occur predominantly in women.
    True
  64. Tumors of the head and neck may involve the cranial nerves that control at our major senses. This may lead to signs and symptoms that can point to a possible location of a tumor. The cranial nerves that may be involved in facial paralysis is the cranial nerve:



    C. VII
  65. Karnofsky performance status (KPS) is:



    C.  A measure of the neurologic and functional status of the patient
  66. The purpose of the blood brain barrier is to: I. hinder the penetration of some substances into the brain and CSF II. protect the brain from potentially toxic substances III. Protect the brain from radiation IV. Prevent the passage of lipid or water soluble substances into the brain



    • C. I and II
    • Hinder the penetration of substances into the CSF & brain
    • Protect the the brain from potentially toxic substances
  67. Which of the following are important factors to consider in the initial work up for a definitive diagnosis of CNS neoplasms?



    D.
  68. What does not belong in this group?



    D.
  69. Surgery for CNS neoplasms can be limited by: A. tumor location and extent
    B. patients status
    C. risk of causing neurologic deficits
    D. all of the above
    D.
  70. The most common brain lesion is:
    a. Astrocytoma
    b. glioma
    c. metastatic
    d. medulloblastoma
    C. Metastatic
  71. Little is known concerning the ___________, development and growth mechanisms of CNS tumors.
    A. etiology
    B. dose response
    C. effects of alcohol
    D. BBB
    A. etiology
  72. Which of the following does not provide protection for the brain?
    A. cerebellum
    B. cranial bones
    C. meninges
    D. CSF
    A. cerebellum
  73. Weakened proximal pelvic muscles, impotence, bladder paralysis and decreased knee jerk maybe signs of a spinal tumor in the ___________ region.
    A. cervical
    B. upper thoracic
    C. lower thoracic
    D. lumbosacral
    D. lumbosacral
  74. Side effects from radiation treatment of primary brain tumors include:



    A. spinal cord damage
  75. Which of the following methods may reduce dose to the small bowel during pubic radiation therapy?
    A. supine position
    B. prone position
    C. treatment with a full bladder
    D. both B and C
    D. prone & full bladder
  76. The principal advantage of IMRT over conventional 3D conformal in the treatment of rectal, anal, or pancreatic cancer is:




    D.
  77. The principle lymph node group involved in patients with rectal cancer is the:



    B. internal iliac nodes
  78. The principle etiologic factors in the development of squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus cancer in North America is/are:



    B. alcohol and tobacco
  79. A common sight of blood borne metastasis from rectal, pancreatic, or esophageal malignancies is the:



    D. liver
  80. For radiation treatment to the thorax for esophageal cancer, the dose limiting structure of most concern is the:



    B. spinal cord
  81. The radiation field design most commonly used to avoid the critical structure in question six is:



    A. oblique fields
  82. Which of the following are common presenting symptoms of pancreatic cancer? I. Jaundice II. Nausea and vomiting III. 10% weight loss IV. Anorexia




    D. Jaundice, 10% weight loss, Anorexia
  83. Which of the following statements regarding pancreatic cancer is not correct?



    A.  the five year survival rate is 80%
  84. For irradiation of the upper abdomen for pancreatic cancer, the most radiosensitive dose limiting structure is the:



    A. kidneys
  85. The most radiotolerant gynecological structure is the:



    D. endocervix
  86. The most radiosensitive gynecological structure is the:



    C. ovary
  87. The dose response for radiation side effects in gynecological structures is dependent on:



    A. Age
  88. Gynecological radiation therapy planning requires consideration of which drainage patterns to ensure appropriate field coverage?



    C. both a and B
  89. True or false: Bladder and rectal doses are more important to gynecological radiation therapy planning than kidney or ovarian doses
    True
  90. What is the average age of onset which each of the diseases below:
    ovarian cancer
    cervical cancer
    uterine cancer
    clear cell vaginal cancer
    vulvar cancer
    • ovarian cancer 60
    • cervical cancer 48
    • uterine cancer 58
    • clear cell vaginal cancer 19
    • vulvar cancer 65+
  91. The most common pathology of malignant tumors of the prostate is:



    B. Adenocarcinoma
  92. The most common type of kidney tumor is:



    D. Adenocarcinoma
  93. The cancer with the highest incidence rate for Males is:



    D. Prostate cancer
  94. For patients with bladder cancer, the bladder should be __________ during whole bladder radiation.
    A. empty
    B. partially full
    C. full
    D. localized with contrast material
    A empty
  95. A side effect associated with the treatment of prostate cancer, in which the adult male is unable to obtain an erection, is:



    C. impotence
  96. The prostate gland is located _________ to the rectum.



    B. anterior
  97. The tumor of the male reproductive and genitourinary system that requires the lowest dose to control the disease is:



    C. seminoma
  98. The tumor of the male reproductive and genitourinary system for which a brachytherapy implant would be most likely used to control the disease is:



    A. prostate
  99. The most common testicular tumor pathology is:



    A. Seminoma
  100. The pathologic staging system for breast cancer incorporates: I. Lymph node status II. Tumor extent III. Distant metastasis



    D.  Lymph node status, Tumor extent, Distant metastasis
  101. The most common presenting symptom of early stage breast cancer is:



    A. palpable mass
  102. Which of the following is proper advice for a patient receiving radiation treatments to the breast?
    I. Do not wear restrictive clothing
    II. Avoid using commercial deodorant
    III. Avoided sun exposure to the skin of the treated area



    A.
  103. TD 5/5 refers to:


    C. Minimal tolerance dose
  104. The TD 5/5 of the spinal cord delivered through standard fractionation is:



    D. 4500cGy
  105. Which of the following is not currently a standard technique for breast surgery?
    A. radical mastectomy
    B. modified radical mastectomy
    C. lumpectomy
    D. tylectomy
    A. radical mastectomy 

    (tylectomy = lumpectomy)
  106. Chemotherapy for breast cancer may consist of: I. Drug therapy II. Endocrine therapy III. Immunotherapy



    D. drug therapy and endocrine therapy
  107. In treating a breast cancer patient via tangential fields plus an electron field boost, the usual total dose to the tumor bed delivered through a standard fractionation schedule is:



    C. 6000-6600 cGy
  108. The technique that may be used to adequately irradiate the internal mammary lymph nodes on a patient with left breast cancer and simultaneously deliver the least cardiac dose is:
    A. anterior photon field, 50 GY in five weeks B. anterior photon-electron fields, equally weighted, 50 GY in five weeks
    C. wide tangential fields, extending 5 cm across the midline, 50 GY in five weeks
    D. anterior electron field, 50 GY in five weeks
    B.  anterior photon-electron fields, equally weighted, 50 GY in five weeks
  109. The skin usually reacts in a pattern that is dose dependent. Which of the following would you expect to see first for radiation administered using a standard fractionation schedule?
    A. dry desquamation
    B. erythema
    C. moist desquamation
    D. radiation pneumonitis
    B. Erythema
  110. A tumor and that does not spread through the entire central nervous system is:



    B.  craniopharyngioma
  111. The approximate survival rate for patients with stage four Wilm's tumor is:
    A 10%
    B 30%
    C 50%
    D 70%
    D. 70%
  112. The factor not related to survival in neuroblastoma cases is:



    D. male gender
  113. The retinoblastoma gene is a:



    A. tumor suppressor
  114. The present protocol dose for occult Wilm's tumor is approximately:



    D. 1000cGy
  115. The tolerance of the kidney is about:



    B. 1500cGy
  116. The most likely second malignant neoplasm after radiation for retinoblastoma is:



    B. osteosarcoma
  117. Which of the following has the highest incidence in children?
    A. retinoblastoma
    B. neuroblastoma
    C. ALL
    D. Wilm's tumor
    C. ALL
  118. Craniospinal irradiation is usually administered for treatment of:
    A. retinoblastoma
    B. neuroblastoma
    C. leukemia
    D. medulloblastoma
    D. medulloblastoma
  119. The main triggering mechanism for skin cancer is:



    D. traumatic exposure
    B. exposure to ultraviolet light
  120. The layer of the epidermis that contains cells that is most sensitive to radiation is the:
    A. stratum basale
    B. stratum granulosum
    C. stratum lucidum
    D. stratum corneum
    A. stratum basale
  121. The disease that is occasionally treated by a total skin irradiation with electrons is:
    A. Kaposi's sarcoma
    B. malignant melanoma
    C. mycosis fungoides
    D. glandular adenocarcinoma
    C. mycosis fungoides
  122. The layers of the skin, starting with the most superficial to the deepest, are:
    I. Subcutaneous layer II. Epidermis III. Dermis IV. Basement layer



    D. IV, I, III, II
    A. Epidermis, basement layer, dermis, subcutaneous layer
  123. Melanocytes are found in the __________ layer of the skin stratum.



    D. basale
  124. The treatment of choice for most melanoma skin cancers is:



    A. surgery
  125. The technique in which the tumor is removed and examined one layer at a time is:



    D. laser surgery
    A. Moh's surgery
  126. Tanning of the skin and the treated area after a course of radiation therapy is caused by:



    C. stimulation of the melanocytes
  127. With the use of shielding to protect the eye during irradiation, back scatter can be minimized by:



    D. coating the outer surface of the shield with a low atomic number material such as wax
  128. True or false: the use of kilovoltage xrays allows the target volume to be covered with a smaller field size compared with a field that would produce similar effects near the skin through the use of the electrons.
    True
Author
RadiationTherapy
ID
267379
Card Set
Washington & Leaver Chapters 28-40
Description
Washington & Leaver Chapter Review Questions: Chapters 28-40
Updated