Washington & Leaver Chapters 28-40

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RadiationTherapy
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Washington & Leaver Chapters 28-40
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2014-04-29 20:54:02
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Washington & Leaver Chapter Review Questions: Chapters 28-40
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  1. The incidence rate of bone cancer is highest during:
    A. Infancy
    B. Adolescence
    C. Equal for all ages
    D. Adulthood
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. A nonosseous malignant tumor of the marrow is:
    A. fibrosarcoma
    B. Multiple myeloma
    C. osteosarcoma
    D. Chondrosarcoma
    B. Multiple myeloma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. A bone lesion resulting from a primary site elsewhere in the body is a:
    A. Chondrosarcoma
    B. osteosarcoma
    C. Metastatic disease
    D. Multiple myeloma
    C. Metastatic disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The most common site of a primary bone sarcoma is:
    A. epiphyseal
    B. metaphyseal
    C. diaphyseal
    D. Shaft
    B. metaphyseal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Prognostic indicators for patients with primary bone cancer include all of the following accept: A. Age
    B. Gender
    C. Location
    D. Weight
    D. Weight
  6. The most common site of metastasis from primary bone cancer is:
    A. Lung
    B. Brain
    C. Bowel
    D. Distal extremities
    A. Lung
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. _____________ is most commonly used in treating metastatic bone disease resulting from primary prostate or breast cancer.
    A. Iodine 131
    B. Iodine 125
    C. Technetium 99m
    D. Strontium 89
    D. Strontium 89
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Although the exact cause of STS is unknown, a factor that has been implicated is:

    A. Predisposition of paget's disease
    B. Prior sun exposure
    C. Appearance as a second primary 5 to 15 years after high dose radiation therapy for other cancers
    D. Tobacco use
    C. Appearance as a second primary 5 to 15 years after high dose radiation therapy for other cancers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Factors or clinical signs that are incorporated into the staging systems and considered appropriate as general prognostic indicators for STS include:
    I. Histology II. Size III. Gender
    A. I, II, and III
    B. II and III
    C. I and II
    D. I and III
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Regional lymph nodes are generally not included in the treatment portals for STS. Which of the following are exceptions for this statement? I. rhabdomyosarcoma II. synovial sarcoma III. leiomyosarcoma
    A. I and III
    B. I and II
    C. I, II, and III
    D. II and III
    B. rhabdomyosarcoma & synovial sarcoma require inclusion of regional lymphatics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The rationale for leaving a 1 to 3 centimeter strip of skin and soft tissue rather than total circumference a radiation of an extremity being treated for STS is that it:
    A. Decreases excessive erythema
    B. Avoids future excessive fibrosis and edema
    C. Promotes healing of the incision scar
    D. Increases future mobility for the treated limb
    B. Avoids future excessive fibrosis and edema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Advantages of preoperative radiation therapy for STS include:
    A. Possibility of less aggressive surgery because of tumor regression
    B. Availability of the precise extent and description of the tumor
    C. Decreased difficulty with post irradiation surgical wound healing
    D. Possibility of a larger treatment volume
    A. Possibility of less aggressive surgery because of tumor regression
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Intra operative electron beam radiation usually involves energies ranging from 9 to 15 MeV with doses to the range of:
    A. 20 to 25 Gy
    B. 10 to 20 Gy
    C. 25 to 30 Gy
    D. 30 to 40 Gy
    B. 10 to 20 Gy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The estimated number of new cases of primary bone cancer diagnosed each year is approximately:
    A. 1000 to 1800
    B. 3000 to 3600
    C. 2300 to 2800
    C.  2300-2800
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Radiation therapy doses for post operative STS are generally in the range of:
    A. 60 to 66 Gy
    B. 40 to 48 Gy
    C. 36 to 40 Gy
    D. 50 to 55 Gy
    A. 60-66 Gy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The __________ lymph nodes are typically treated in a mantle irradiation field:
    A. inguinal
    B. paraaortic
    C. Hilar
    D. Waldeyer's ring
    C. Hilar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. The following is not B symptom:
    A. Weight loss
    B. Fever higher than 38° C
    C. Night sweats
    D. itching
    D. itching
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which subtype of hodgkin's lymphoma offers the most favorable prognosis?
    A. Nodular sclerosis
    B. Lymphocytic predominance
    C. lymphocytic depletion
    D. mixed cellularity
    B. lymphocytic predominance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. When treating a posterior mantle field, the Superior Field border should include the _________ lymph node group.
    A. paraaortic
    B. Occipital
    C. Hilar
    D. Axillary
    B. occipital
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. The following may be seen as an acute complication of treatment for lymphoma:
    A. L'hermittes syndrome 
    B. Radiation pneumonitis
    C. fatigue
    D. All of the above
    C. fatigue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Non Hodgkins lymphoma differs from hodgkin's disease in which of the following ways? I. Occurs in older persons II. Can originate in extra lymphatic tissue III. Is less likely to spread randomly
    A. I and II
    B. I and III
    C. I, II, and III
    D. II and III
    A. occurs in older persons & is less likely to spread randomly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Subdiaphragmatic field arrangements used in the inverted Y commonly include:
    A. Both A and B
    B. Paraaortic nodes
    C. Neither A nor B
    D. Inguinal node
    A. Paraaortic nodes & Inguinal node
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. True or false: Chemotherapy treatment regimens have had an increasing role in lymphoma management
    True
  24. The following radiographic studies are commonly used in the diagnostic work up of lymphoma:
    I. Thoracic CT scan II. PET scan III. MRI
    A. I and II
    B. I and III
    C. II and III
    D. I, II, and III
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. True or false: AIDS associated lymphomas are usually intermediate and high grade disease and are highly aggressive.
    True
  26. Which of the following concerning CLL is not true
    A. Eight resembles CML but with a malignant lymphoid cell line
    B. It is a disease of children
    C. Therapy is usually reserved until the patient is symptomatic
    D. It can be confused with lymphoma
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following is a specific characteristic of CML?
    A. It is a disease of children
    B. Requirements of prophylactic CNS radiation
    C. Presentation with an enlarged spleen
    D. Philadelphia chromosome
    D. Philadelphia chromosome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following is not a common symptom associated with acute leukemia at the time of presentation?
    A. Easy bleeding and bruised ability
    B. Fever
    C. Fatigue
    D. Nausea and vomiting
    D. N & V
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Which of the following leukemias has not been associated with previous radiation exposure?
    A. CML
    B. CLL
    C. AML
    D. ALL
    B. CLL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Anatomic sites that are potential sanctuaries for leukemic cells are of the:
    I. Testes II. Spleen III. CNS
    A. I and III
    B. I and II
    C. II and III
    D. I, II, and III
    A. Testes and CNS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following is not one of the main subtypes of leukemia?
    A. CCL
    B. CLL
    C. AML
    D. ALL
    A. CCL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The primary treatment modality for leukemia is:
    A. Immunotherapy
    B. Chemotherapy
    C. Ionizing radiation
    D. Surgery
    B. Chemotherapy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. The most documented etiologic factor for leukemia in humans is:
    A. immunotherapy
    B. ionizing radiation
    C. surgery
    D. chemotherapy
    B. ionizing radiation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. The type of leukemia that essentially has no cure is:
    A. CLL
    B. CML
    C. AML
    D. ALL
    B. CML
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Splenomegaly indicates:
    A. an enlargement of the spleen
    B. a better than average prognosis for ALL and CLL
    C. an increase in the circulating platelets
    D. An enlargement of the liver
    A. An enlargement of the spleen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. The cancers that are most common of the endocrine malignancies are:
    A. Thyroid
    B. Parathyroid
    C. Pituitary
    D. Adrenal gland
    A. Thyroid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Radioactive iodine 131 is used in the treatment of __________ tumors.
    A. pituitary
    B. adrenal gland
    C. Thyroid
    D. parathyroid
    C. Thyroid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Of all functioning pituitary adenomas, prolactin secreting tumors affect the _________ as a target organ.
    A. Thyroid
    B. uterus
    C. pancreas
    D. breast
    D. breast
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The anatomic structure located just superior to the pituitary gland is the:
    A. Occipital lobe of the bran
    B. sphenoid sinus
    C. optic chiasm
    D. maxillary sinus
    C. optic chiasm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which of the following is an indication for the use of radioactive iodine?
    A. inoperable primary tumor
    B. thyroid capsular invasion
    C. distant metastasis
    D. all of the above
    D.
  41. The pituitary tumors that remain within the pituitary are:
    A. intra hypophyseal
    B. diffuse
    C. invasive
    D. intrasellar
    A. intra hypophyseal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Which of the following would not be considered an endocrine type tumor?
    A. adrenal gland
    B. pituitary
    C. thyroid
    D. breast
    D. breast
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Which of the following is not a hormone secreted by the pituitary gland?
    A. FSH
    B. ZH
    C. ACTH
    D. TSH
    B. ZH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Proton beams are sometimes used in the treatment of __________ tumors.
    A. breast
    B. adrenal gland
    C. thyroid
    D. pituitary
    D. pituitary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Which of the following does not belong in this group?
    A. cortex
    B. follicular
    C. medulla
    D. mineralcorticoids & glucocorticoids
    B. follicular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Microscopically, diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place at the:
    A. bronchiolar ducts
    B. right and left primary bronchi
    C. bifurcation of the trachea
    D. alveolar-capillary membranes
    D. alveolar-capillary membranes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. (lung cancer) Symptoms associated with local disease include:
    I. hemoptysis II. dyspnea III. orthopnea
    A. I and II
    B. I, II, and III
    C. II and III
    D. I and III
    C. hemoptysis & orthopnea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. (lung cancer)Symptoms associated with regional disease include:
    I. dysphagia II. Superior vena cava syndrome III. orthopnea
    A. II and III
    B. I and III
    C. I, II, and III
    D. I and II
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. In what part of the lung are adenocarcinomas usually found? 
    A. peripheral
    B. central 
    C. superior 
    D. lateral 
    A. peripheral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. In what part of the lung are primary large cell carcinomas usually found? 
    A. superior 
    B. lateral 
    C. central 
    D. peripheral
    D. peripheral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. In what part of the lung are primary squamous cell carcinomas usually found?
    A. peripheral
    B. central
    C. lateral
    D. superior
    B. central

    (tend to be proximal & invade the hilum)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Critical structures frequently located in the treatment fields for lung cancer include:
    A. normal lung and trachea
    B. heart and esophagus
    C. spinal cord and heart
    D. esophagus and trachea
    A. normal lung and trachea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. What are the two groups of lymphatics that are primarily responsible for the regional spread of bronchogenic carcinomas?
    Mediastinal & Intrapulmonary
  54. With conventional fractionation, what is the commonly accepted definitive dose range for localized bronchogenic carcinomas?
    60 to 75 Gy
  55. Multiple tumor types are included in the head and neck region, which type of primary tumor is most common?
    A. Adenocarcinoma
    B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    C. fibrosarcoma
    D. Basal cell carcinoma
    B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The primary lymphatic drainage of the lower lip would be to:
    A. Subdigastric node
    B. Submental nodes
    C. Submaxillary nodes
    D. The posterior cervical chain
    B. Submental nodes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. What normal tissue would be at most risk of radiation damage when treating the maxillary antrum?
    A. eye
    B. skin
    C. pituitary
    D. brain
    A. eye
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. The most common sign or symptom of oral cancer is:
    A. ulceration
    B. xerostomia
    C. odynophagia
    D. hoarseness
    A. ulceration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The most commonly involved group of nodes in oropharyngeal cancer is the:
    A. supraclavicular
    B. jugulodigastric
    C. submandibular
    D. retropharyngeal
    B. jugulodigastric
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. A tumor confined to the larynx with cord fixation in glottic cancer is staged as a:
    A. T4
    B. T2
    C. T3
    D. T1
    C. T3

    (cord fixation is automatic stage three)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Palpation of the cricoid cartilage indicates the inferior border of the:
    A. hypopharynx
    B. oral cavity
    C. larynx
    D. oropharynx
    C. larynx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. For patients with carious teeth, when is dental work recommended when anticipating oral cavity radiation?
    A. neither A nor B
    B. following treatment
    C. preceding treatment
    C. preceding treatment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. True or false: postcricoid cancers occur predominantly in women.
    True
  64. Tumors of the head and neck may involve the cranial nerves that control at our major senses. This may lead to signs and symptoms that can point to a possible location of a tumor. The cranial nerves that may be involved in facial paralysis is the cranial nerve:
    A. I
    B. VII
    C. VIII
    D. XII
    B. VII
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Karnofsky performance status (KPS) is:
    A. Measured in cGy
    B. A measure of the biologic grade of the tumor
    C. A measure of the neurologic and functional status of the patient
    D. Directly measures the chance of five year survival
    C. A measure of the neurologic and functional status of the patient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. The purpose of the blood brain barrier is to: I. hinder the penetration of some substances into the brain and CSF II. protect the brain from potentially toxic substances III. Protect the brain from radiation IV. Prevent the passage of lipid or water soluble substances into the brain
    A. I and III 
    B. I and II 
    C. II and III
    D. I, II, and III
    • B. I and II
    • Hinder the penetration of substances into the CSF & brain
    • Protect the the brain from potentially toxic substances
  67. Which of the following are important factors to consider in the initial work up for a definitive diagnosis of CNS neoplasms?
    A. Family and social histories
    B. Changes in behavior or personality
    C. Difficulties with speech, memory, or logical thought process
    D. All of the above
    D.
  68. What does not belong in this group?
    A. papilledma
    B. edema
    C. increased intracranial pressure
    D. high dose fractionation
    D.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Surgery for CNS neoplasms can be limited by: A. tumor location and extent
    B. patients status
    C. risk of causing neurologic deficits
    D. all of the above
    D.
  70. The most common brain lesion is:
    A. medulloblastoma
    B. glioma
    C. metastatic
    D. Astrocytoma
    C. Metastatic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Little is known concerning the ___________, development and growth mechanisms of CNS tumors.
    A. etiology
    B. dose response
    C. BBB
    D. effects of alcohol
    A. etiology
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Which of the following does not provide protection for the brain?
    A. cerebellum
    B. cranial bones
    C. meninges
    D. CSF
    A. cerebellum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Weakened proximal pelvic muscles, impotence, bladder paralysis and decreased knee jerk maybe signs of a spinal tumor in the ___________ region.
    A. cervical
    B. lower thoracic
    C. upper thoracic
    D. lumbosacral
    D. lumbosacral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Side effects from radiation treatment of primary brain tumors include:
    A. spinal cord damage
    B. edema
    C. hair loss
    D. dry and moist desquamation
    A. spinal cord damage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which of the following methods may reduce dose to the small bowel during pubic radiation therapy?
    A. treatment with a full bladder
    B. prone position
    C. both B and C
    D. supine position
    C. prone & full bladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. The principal advantage of IMRT over conventional 3D conformal in the treatment of rectal, anal, or pancreatic cancer is:

    A. fewer long-term radiation side effects
    B. bettered dose conformity to target volumes
    C. more sparing of normal structures
    D. all of the above
    D.
  77. The principle lymph node group involved in patients with rectal cancer is the:
    A. paraaortic nodes
    B. common iliac nodes
    C. inguinal nodes
    D. internal iliac nodes
    D. internal iliac nodes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. The principle etiologic factors in the development of squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus cancer in North America is/are:
    A. a diet high in fat and high in nitrate content
    B. a diet low in fat and high in vegetables and fruits
    C. achalasia and Plummer Vinson
    D. excessive alcohol and tobacco use
    D. alcohol and tobacco
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. A common sight of blood borne metastasis from rectal, pancreatic, or esophageal malignancies is the:
    A. liver
    B. brain
    C. Bone
    D. adrenal gland
    A. liver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. For radiation treatment to the thorax for esophageal cancer, the dose limiting structure of most concern is the:
    A. trachea
    B. esophagus
    C. spinal cord
    D. heart
    C. spinal cord
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. The radiation field design most commonly used to avoid the critical structure in question six is:
    A. Wedge pair
    B. AP/PA fields
    C. Oblique fields
    D. Lateral opposed fields
    C. oblique fields
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Which of the following are common presenting symptoms of pancreatic cancer? I. Jaundice II. Nausea and vomiting III. 10% weight loss IV. Anorexia
    A. II and III
    B. I, II, III and IV
    C. I and II
    D. I, II and IV 
    E. I, III, and IV 
    E. Jaundice, 10% weight loss, Anorexia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Which of the following statements regarding pancreatic cancer is not correct?
    A. hematogenous spread to the liver at the time of diagnosis is common
    B. most tumors are unresectable
    C. the five year survival rate is 80%
    D. it is locally invasive into surrounding structures
    C. the five year survival rate is 80%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. For irradiation of the upper abdomen for pancreatic cancer, the most radiosensitive dose limiting structure is the:
    A. kidneys
    B. spinal cord
    C. liver
    D. small bowel
    A. kidneys
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. The most radiotolerant gynecological structure is the:
    A. vulva
    B. uterine canal
    C. ovary
    D. endocervix
    D. endocervix
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. The most radiosensitive gynecological structure is the:
    A. uterine canal
    B. ovary
    C. vulva
    D. endocervix
    B. ovary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. The dose response for radiation side effects in gynecological structures is dependent on:
    A. neither a nor B
    B. age
    C. both a and B
    D. race
    B. Age
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Gynecological radiation therapy planning requires consideration of which drainage patterns to ensure appropriate field coverage?
    A. both a and B
    B. lymphatic
    C. neither a nor B
    D. Arterial and Venous
    A. both a and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. True or false: Bladder and rectal doses are more important to gynecological radiation therapy planning than kidney or ovarian doses
    True
  90. What is the average age of onset which each of the diseases below:
    ovarian cancer
    cervical cancer
    uterine cancer
    clear cell vaginal cancer
    vulvar cancer
    • ovarian cancer 60
    • cervical cancer 48
    • uterine cancer 58
    • clear cell vaginal cancer 19
    • vulvar cancer 65+
  91. The most common pathology of malignant tumors of the prostate is:
    A. Adenocarcinoma
    B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    C. Burkitt's cell carcinoma
    D. Transitional cell carcinoma
    A. Adenocarcinoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. The most common type of kidney tumor is:
    A. choriocarcinoma
    B. Transitional cell lymphoma
    C. Adenocarcinoma
    D. seminoma
    C. Adenocarcinoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. The cancer with the highest incidence rate for Males is:
    A. penis cancer
    B. Lung cancer
    C. Kidney and urethral cancer
    D. Prostate cancer
    D. Prostate cancer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. For patients with bladder cancer, the bladder should be __________ during whole bladder radiation.
    A. empty
    B. partially full
    C. full
    D. localized with contrast material
    A empty
  95. A side effect associated with the treatment of prostate cancer, in which the adult male is unable to obtain an erection, is:
    A. benign prostatic hypertrophy
    B. impotence
    C. transurethral resection of the prostate
    D. none of the above
    B. impotence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. The prostate gland is located _________ to the rectum.
    A. both A and C
    B. anterior
    C. posterior
    D. superior
    B. anterior
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. The tumor of the male reproductive and genitourinary system that requires the lowest dose to control the disease is:
    A. seminoma
    B. kidney
    C. bladder
    D. prostate
    A. seminoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. The tumor of the male reproductive and genitourinary system for which a brachytherapy implant would be most likely used to control the disease is:
    A. kidney
    B. bladder
    C. prostate
    D. testes
    C. prostate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. The most common testicular tumor pathology is:
    A. Embryonal carcinoma
    B. choriocarcinoma
    C. teratoma
    D. seminoma
    D. Seminoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. The pathologic staging system for breast cancer incorporates: I. Lymph node status II. Tumor extent III. Distant metastasis
    A. I and III
    B. I, II, and III
    C. II and III
    D. I and II
    B. Lymph node status, Tumor extent, Distant metastasis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. The most common presenting symptom of early stage breast cancer is:
    A. palpable mass
    B. pain
    C. ulceration
    D. nipple discharge
    A. palpable mass
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Which of the following is proper advice for a patient receiving radiation treatments to the breast?
    I. Do not wear restrictive clothing
    II. Avoid using commercial deodorant
    III. Avoided sun exposure to the skin of the treated area
    A. I and III
    B. II and III
    C. I, II, and III
    D. I and II
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. TD 5/5 refers to:
    A. Tumor dose of 5 Gy in five days
    B. Maximum tolerance dose
    C. Minimal tolerance dose
    C. Minimal tolerance dose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. The TD 5/5 of the spinal cord delivered through standard fractionation is:
    A. 3000cGy
    B. 1500cGy
    C. 4500cGy
    D. 6000cGy
    C. 4500cGy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Which of the following is not currently a standard technique for breast surgery?
    A. radical mastectomy
    B. tylectomy
    C. lumpectomy
    D. modified radical mastectomy
    A. radical mastectomy 

    (tylectomy = lumpectomy)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Chemotherapy for breast cancer may consist of: I. Drug therapy II. Endocrine therapy III. Immunotherapy
    A. I, II, and III
    B. I and II
    C. I and III
    D. II and III
    B. drug therapy and endocrine therapy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. In treating a breast cancer patient via tangential fields plus an electron field boost, the usual total dose to the tumor bed delivered through a standard fractionation schedule is:
    A. 5000 to 5600cGy
    B. 6000 to 6600cGy
    C. 4000 to 4600 cGy
    D. 7000 to 7600cGy
    B. 6000-6600 cGy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. The technique that may be used to adequately irradiate the internal mammary lymph nodes on a patient with left breast cancer and simultaneously deliver the least cardiac dose is:
    A. anterior photon field, 50 GY in five weeks B. anterior photon-electron fields, equally weighted, 50 GY in five weeks
    C. wide tangential fields, extending 5 cm across the midline, 50 GY in five weeks
    D. anterior electron field, 50 GY in five weeks
    B.  anterior photon-electron fields, equally weighted, 50 GY in five weeks
  109. The skin usually reacts in a pattern that is dose dependent. Which of the following would you expect to see first for radiation administered using a standard fractionation schedule?
    A. radiation pneumonitis
    B. erythema
    C. moist desquamation
    D. dry desquamation
    B. Erythema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. A tumor and that does not spread through the entire central nervous system is:
    A. ependymoma
    B. CNS germ cell tumor
    C. medulloblastoma
    D. craniopharyngioma
    D. craniopharyngioma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. The approximate survival rate for patients with stage four Wilm's tumor is:
    A 10%
    B 30%
    C 50%
    D 70%
    D. 70%
  112. The factor not related to survival in neuroblastoma cases is:
    A. stage
    B. male gender
    C. n-myc amplification
    D. age
    B. male gender
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. The retinoblastoma gene is a:
    A. active haploid
    B. inactive haploid
    C. tumor suppressor
    D. tumor promoter
    C. tumor suppressor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. The present protocol dose for occult Wilm's tumor is approximately:
    A. 2000cGy
    B. 4000cGy
    C. 6000cGy
    D. 1000cGy
    D. 1000cGy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. The tolerance of the kidney is about:
    A. 1000cGy
    B. 1500cGy
    C. 3000cGy
    D. 100cGy
    B. 1500cGy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. The most likely second malignant neoplasm after radiation for retinoblastoma is:
    A. lymphoma
    B. lung cancer
    C. leukemia
    D. osteosarcoma
    D. osteosarcoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Which of the following has the highest incidence in children?
    A. ALL
    B. Wilm's tumor
    C. neuroblastoma
    D. retinoblastoma
    A. ALL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Craniospinal irradiation is usually administered for treatment of:
    A. leukemia
    B. neuroblastoma
    C. medulloblastoma
    D. retinoblastoma
    C. medulloblastoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. The main triggering mechanism for skin cancer is:
    A. therapeutic radiation exposure
    B. chronic heat exposure
    C. exposure to ultraviolet light
    D. traumatic exposure
    C. exposure to ultraviolet light
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. The layer of the epidermis that contains cells that is most sensitive to radiation is the:
    A. stratum corneum
    B. stratum lucidum
    C. stratum basale
    D. stratum granulosum
    C. stratum basale
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. The disease that is occasionally treated by a total skin irradiation with electrons is:
    A. mycosis fungoides
    B. Kaposi's sarcoma
    C. malignant melanoma
    D. glandular adenocarcinoma
    A. mycosis fungoides
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. The layers of the skin, starting with the most superficial to the deepest, are:
    I. Subcutaneous layer II. Epidermis III. Dermis IV. Basement layer
    A. I, III, IV, II
    B. II, III, I, IV
    C. IV, I, III, II
    D. II, IV, III, I
    D. Epidermis, basement layer, dermis, subcutaneous layer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Melanocytes are found in the __________ layer of the skin stratum.
    A. Spinosum
    B. basale
    C. granulosum
    D. corneum
    B. basale
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. The treatment of choice for most melanoma skin cancers is:
    A. radiation therapy
    B. surgery
    C. chemotherapy
    D. isolated limb perfusion
    B. surgery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. The technique in which the tumor is removed and examined one layer at a time is:
    A. Moh's surgery
    B. curettage and electrodesiccation
    C. laser surgery
    D. cryosurgery
    A. Moh's surgery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. Tanning of the skin and the treated area after a course of radiation therapy is caused by:
    A. stimulation of the melanocytes
    B. inflammation of the dermis
    C. increased vascularity of the epidermis
    D. damage to the basal layer
    A. stimulation of the melanocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. With the use of shielding to protect the eye during irradiation, back scatter can be minimized by:
    A. using a larger diameter shield
    B. using a shield composed of Cerrobend
    C. coating the outer surface of the shield with a low atomic number material such as wax
    D. using a shield at least 1.27 MM in thickness
    C. coating the outer surface of the shield with a low atomic number material such as wax
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. True or false: the use of kilovoltage xrays allows the target volume to be covered with a smaller field size compared with a field that would produce similar effects near the skin through the use of the electrons.
    True

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