SEN601 - Final Exam StudyCards

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caldreaming
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267440
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SEN601 - Final Exam StudyCards
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2014-03-28 11:58:07
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UML unified modeling language
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SEN601 - Software Engineering Principles
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  1. With WebApps content is everything, a poorly defined user interface will be quickly overlooked by frequent users.

    A) True  
    B) False
    B) False
  2. Content objects are not normally chunked into Web pages until the implementation activities begin.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  3. Web navigational design involves creating a semantic navigational unit for each goal associated with each defined user role.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  4. UML does not have any representation schemas that are useful in building WebApp design models.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  5. When a system fails to deliver required functions it is because the customer changes requirements? 

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  6. Quality control encompasses a set of software engineering actions that help to ensure that each work product meets its quality goals.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  7. Review metrics can be used to assess the efficacy of each review activity.

    A) True  
    B) False
    A) True
  8. Defect density can be estimated for any software engineering work product.

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  9. In any type of technical review, the focus of the review is on the product and not the producer.

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  10. People who perform software quality assurance must look at the software from the customer's perspective.

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  11. In software quality assurance work there is no difference between software verification and software validation.

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  12. Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process?

    A) conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing, and specify requirements in a quantifiable manner 
    B) use independent test teams 
    C) wait till code is written prior to writing the test plan 
    D) specify requirements in a quantifiable manner 
    E) conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing 
    F) specify requirements in a quantifiable manner, and use independent test teams
    A) conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing, and specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. When testing object-oriented software it is important to test each class operation separately as part of the unit testing process.

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  14. Software validation is achieved through a series of tests performed by the user once the software is deployed in his or her work environment.

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  15. Performance testing is only important for real-time or embedded systems.

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  16. Program flow graphs are identical to program flowcharts.

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  17. Black-box testing attempts to find errors in which of the following categories

    A) incorrect or missing functions 
    B) interface errors 
    C) performance errors 
    D) none of the above 
    E) incorrect or missing functions, interface errors, and performance errors
    E) incorrect or missing functions, interface errors, and performance errors
  18. Orthogonal array testing enables the test designer to maximize the coverage of the test cases devised for relatively small input domains.

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  19. Test derived from behavioral class models should be based on the; 

    A) use-case diagram
    B) state transition diagram 
    C) data flow diagram 
    D) object-relation diagram 
    B) state transition diagram
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Real-time applications add a new and potentially difficult element to the testing mix;

    A) time
    B) performance 
    C) reliability 
    D) security 
    A) time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. It is not possible to test object-oriented software without including error discovery techniques applied to the system OOA and OOD models.

    A) True  
    B) False
    A) True
  22. Test case design for OO software is driven by the algorithmic detail of the individual operations.

    A) True  
    B) False
    A) True
  23. Fault-based testing is best reserved for; 

    A) conventional software testing
    B) operations and classes that are critical or suspect  
    C) white-box testing of operator algorithms
    D) use-case validation  
    B) operations and classes that are critical or suspect
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. WebApps require special testing methodologies because WebApp errors have several unique characteristics.

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  25. When testing WebApp interface semantics, each use-case is used as input for the design of a testing sequence. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  26. The purpose of WebApp navigation syntactic testing is to ensure the correct appearance of each navigation mechanism. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  27. Use of formal program correctness proofs as part of the cleanroom process eliminates the need do any testing for software defects. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  28. By using only structured programming constructs as you create a procedural design, you make the work of proving design correctness much easier.

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  29. Certification of an increment is complete once it has passed the formal verification process.

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  30. Which of the following is not considered one of the four important elements that should exist when a configuration management system is developed? 

    A) human elements 
    B) process elements 
    C) validation elements
    D) component elements 
    C) validation elements
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Many data repository requirements are the same as those for a typical database application.

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  32. A basic configuration object is a __________ created by a software engineer during some phase of the software development process.

    A) hardware driver 
    B) program data structure 
    C) unit of information 
    D) all of the above
    C) unit of information
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. WebApp configuration objects can be managed in much the same way as conventional software configuration objects except for: 

    A) user items
    B) graphic items 
    C) content items 
    D) functional items 
    C) content items
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. The specification metrics proposed by Davis address which two characteristics of the software requirements? 

    A) performance and completeness  
    B) functionality and performance  
    C) specificity and functionality
    D) specificity and completeness  
    D) specificity and completeness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The IEEE software maturity index (SMI) is used to provide a measure of the;

    A) maintainability of a software product based on its availability  
    B) reliability of a software product following regression testing 
    C) relative age of a software product being considered for retirement  
    D) stability of a software product as it is modified during maintenance
    D) stability of a software product as it is modified during maintenance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which of the following is not considered a stakeholder in the software process? 

    A) sales people
    B) end-users 
    C) customers 
    D) project managers 
    A) sales people
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to; 

    A) give team members less control over process and technical decisions. 
    B) give team members more control over process and technical decisions. 
    C) hide bad news from the project team members until things improve. 
    D) reward programmers based on their productivity.
    B) give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Which of these are valid reasons for measuring software processes, products, and resources? 

    A) to characterize them 
    B) to characterize them, to evaluate them and to improve them 
    C) to evaluate them 
    D) to evaluate them, to price them and to improve them
    E) to price them 
    F) to improve them 
    B) to characterize them, to evaluate them and to improve them
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Use-Case oriented metrics are computed directly from UML diagrams they are often used as normalization measures. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  40. Small software organizations are not likely to see any economic return from establishing software metrics program. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  41. Which of the following are recognized process flow types?

    A) Linear process flow
    B) Iterative process flow
    C) Concurrent process flow
    D) Spiral process flow
    E) both Concurrent and Linear process flows
    E) both Concurrent and Linear process flows
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Software processes can be constructed out of pre-existing software patterns to best meet the needs of a software project.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  43. Which of these are standards for assessing software processes?

    A) ISO 9001
    B) SPICE
    C) ISO 9000
    D) both SPICE and ISO9001
    E) SEI
    D) both SPICE and ISO9001
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. The waterfall model of software development is;

    A) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
    B) A good approach when a working program is required quickly.
    C )The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
    D) An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more.
    A) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
  45. The incremental model of software development is;

    A) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
    B) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
    C) A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.
    D) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
    A) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Evolutionary software process models;

    A) Are iterative in nature
    B) Can easily accommodate product requirements changes
    C) Do not generally produce throwaway systems
    D) All of the above
    D) All of the above
  47. The prototyping model of software development is;

    A) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
    B) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
    C) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
    D) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
    A) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The spiral model of software development;

    A) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration
    B) Ends with the delivery of the software product
    C) Is more chaotic than the incremental model
    D) All of the above
    A) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. The concurrent development model is;

    A) Only used for development of parallel or distributed systems.
    B) Used whenever a large number of change requests are anticipated.
    C) Another name for concurrent engineering.
    D) Defines events that trigger engineering activity state transitions.
    E) both Another name for concurrent engineering and Defines events that trigger engineering activity state transitions
    E) both Another name for concurrent engineering and Defines events that trigger engineering activity state transitions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. The component-based development model is;

    A) Only appropriate for computer hardware design.
    B) Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics.
    C) Dependent on object technologies for support.
    D) Not able to support the development of reusable components.
    C) Dependent on object technologies for support.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods to;

    A) Define the specification for computer-based systems
    B) Develop defect free computer-based systems
    C) Verify the correctness of computer-based systems
    D) All of the above
    D) All of the above
  52. Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process model for software development?

    A) Validation phase
    B) Elaboration phase
    C) Construction phase
    D) Inception phase
    A) Validation phase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Which of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software Process?

    A) Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling
    B) Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work products
    C) Emphasizes personal measurement of work product
    D) Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager
    D) Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Which of these are objectives of Team Software Process?

    A) Allow better time management by highly trained professionals
    B) Show managers how to reduce costs and sustain quality
    C) Accelerate software process improvement
    D) Build self-directed software teams
    E) both Allow better time management by highly trained professionals and Build self directed software teams
    E) both Allow better time management by highly trained professionals and Build self directed software teams
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Process technology tools allow software organizations to compress schedules by skipping unimportant activities.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  56. It is generally accepted that one cannot have weak software processes and create high quality end products.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  57. What are the three golden rules for interface design?

    A) Place the user in control, Reduce the users memory load and Make the interface consistent
    B) Place the user in control, Be Agile and Produce a product
    C) Good software design should exhibit firmness, commodity and delight
    D) Place the user in control, Make the interface consistent and Delight the customer
    A) Place the user in control, Reduce the users memory load and Make the interface consistent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. What are the seven activities for requirements engineering?
  59. Like any other fields of engineering, software is manufactured in the classical sense. 

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  60. Although the industry is moving toward component-based construction, most software continues to be custom built. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  61. Software deteriorates rather than wears out because;

    A) Defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often 
    B) Software spare parts become harder to order
    C) Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments 
    D) Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions 
    D) Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Give an example of an embedded software.
  63. Software must be adapted to meet the needs of new computing environments or technology.

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  64. Wireless networks is an example of ___________________  computing.

    A) web application
    B) grid computing
    C) ubiquitous
    D) network
    C) ubiquitous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. No one can predict the load of a WebApp.

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  66. XSEDE is built on _____________  computing.

    A) ubiquitous
    B) web application
    C) grid computing
    D) network
    C) grid computing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. A WebApp is network intensive because it must serve the needs of a diverse community of clients. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  68. Which one is not a part of software engineering?

    A) Processes 
    B) Methods 
    C) Manufacturing
    D) Tools 
    C) Manufacturing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Monolithic software (i.e., a large program composed of a single module) can be easily grasped by a software engineer.  

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  70. Software must be extended to make it ____________________  with other more modern systems or databases.

    A) ubiquitous
    B) adaptable
    C) compatible
    D) interoperable
    D) interoperable
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. An undeniable part of the appeal of a WebApp is its look and feel. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  72. A concerted effort should be made to understand the problem before a software solution is developed. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  73. In almost all instances, you should break the design into optimal number of modules to reduce the cost required to build the software. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  74. A large number of users may access the WebApp at one time. So, you must consider for ________________.

    A) compatibility
    B) file sharing
    C) concurrency
    D) load balancing
    C) concurrency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Unlike conventional application software that evolves over a series of planned, chronologically-spaced releases, Web applications evolve continuously. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  76. The design must be a readable, understandable guide for those who generate code and for those who test and subsequently support the software. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  77. Identifying the stakeholders is an important step in requirements analysis. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  78. Good software design should exhibit firmness, _____________, and delight.

    A) commodity
    B) compatibility
    C) concurrency
    D) load balancing
    A) commodity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Software engineering is the establishment and use of sound engineering principles in order to obtain economically software that is reliable and works efficiently on real machines. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  80. Among the 3Ps (People, Process and practice), people is the most important component in Software Engineering. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  81. Software engineering umbrella activities are only applied during the initial phases of software development projects. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  82. Risk management is one of the umbrella activities. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  83. The design should be assessed for quality as it is being created, not after the fact. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  84. ____________ is one of the guiding principles for software developmental processes.
    Be Agile
  85. "Software engineering principles" have a three-year half-life. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  86. In software engineering work, two classes of models are known: Analysis models and the Design models. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  87. Software project tracking and control is one of the umbrella activities.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  88. The primary goal of the software team is to build software, not create models. Student

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  89. Requirements engineering consists of Inception, Elicitation, Elaboration and ________________  .
    Negotiation
  90. The design of a software engineering should provide a complete picture of the software, addressing the data, functional, and behavioral domains from an implementation perspective. 

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  91. A design should contain distinct representations of data, architecture, interfaces, and components.
    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  92. The design should be traceable to the analysis model. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  93. A Design involves writing codes for the software. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  94. The essence of software engineering practice might be described as understand the problem, plan a solution, carry out the plan, and examine the result for accuracy. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  95. User interface design models considers four models: User model, Design model, Mental model (system perception) and the ________________________  model.
    implementation
  96. What is the "right" number of modules for a specific software design?

    A) 10 
    B) 5 
    C) 8 
    D) Depends on the total cost. So, there must be a trade-off.
    D) Depends on the total cost. So, there must be a trade-off.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Hiding the information on the codes leads to encapsulation—an attribute of high quality design of a software.

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  98. In Object Oriented design, all responsibilities of a superclass is immediately inherited by all subclasses. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  99. Object Oriented design of a software provides Polymorphism—a characteristic that greatly reduces the effort required to extend the design. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  100. _________________   analysis defines how a work process is completed when several people (and roles) are involved.
    workflow
  101. A vast library of reusable human interface objects has been developed for WebApps. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  102. Interface design remains at the top of the web engineering design pyramid. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  103. Effective interfaces do not concern the user with the inner workings of the system. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  104. Architecture design is conducted in parallel with interface design, aesthetic design and content design. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  105. The design model has four major elements;

    A) implementation, firmness, commodity and delight
    B) data, architecture, components and infrastructure
    C) implementation, data, firmness and commodity
    D) data, commodity, components and infrastructure
    B) data, architecture, components and infrastructure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. A vast library of reusable human interface objects has been developed for WebApps. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  107. The waterfall model of software development is:

    A) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams. 
    B) A good approach when a working program is required quickly. 
    C) An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more.
    D) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined. 
    D) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Polymorphic characteristic of object oriented design greatly reduces the cost of software development. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  109. The quality of software is determined by the extent of satisfaction by the stakeholders. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    A) True
  110. Construction (writing codes) is the first step for any software development processes. 

    A) True 
    B) False
    B) False
  111. What is refactoring?
    Refactoring is the process of changing a software system in such a way that it does not alter the external behavior of the code [design] yet improves its internal structure.
  112. Which of the following characteristics should not be used to assess the quality of a WebApp?

    A) maintainability
    B) usability
    C) reliability
    D) aesthetics
    D) aesthetics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Which of the following are design goals for every WebApp?

    A) Simplicity
    B) Consistency
    C) Navigability
    D) Visual appeal
    E) All of the above
    E) All of the above
  114. Which of the following not part of the design pyramid for WebE design?

    A) Architectural design
    B) Content design
    C) Business case design
    D) Navigation design
    C) Business case design
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. With WebApps content is everything, a poorly defined user interface will be quickly overlooked by frequent users.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  116. Which of these are WebApp interaction mechanisms?

    A) Graphic icons
    B) Graphic images
    C) Navigation menus
    D) All of the above
    D) All of the above
  117. Screen layout design has several widely accepted standards based on human factors research.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  118. Graphic design considers every aspect of the look an feel of a WebApp.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  119. Content design is conducted by;

    A) Copywriters and graphic designers
    B) both copywriters and graphic designers as well as web engineers
    C) Web engineers
    D) none of the above
    B) both copywriters and graphic designers as well as web engineers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. Content objects have both information attributes defined during analysis and implementation specific attributes specified during design.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  121. Content objects are not normally chunked into Web pages until the implementation activities begin.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  122. Content architecture and WebApp architecture are pretty much the same thing for many WebApps?

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  123. Which of the following is not one of the content architectural structures used by web engineers?

    A) linear
    B) parallel
    C) hierarchical
    D) grid
    B) parallel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. MVC is a three layer architecture that contains a;

    A) model, view, and controller
    B) model, view, and content objects
    C) machine, view, content objects
    D) machine, view, controller
    A) model, view, and controller
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Web navigational design involves creating a semantic navigational unit for each goal associated with each defined user role.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  126. To allow the user to feel in control of a WebApp, it is a good idea to mix both horizontal and vertical navigation mechanisms on the same page.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  127. Component level design for WebApps is very similar to component level design for other software delivery environments.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  128. Which of these is not one of the design activities associated with object-oriented hypermedia design?

    A) abstract interface design
    B) content design
    C) navigational design
    D) conceptual design
    B) content design
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. UML does not have any representation schemas that are useful in building WebApp design models.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  130. The purpose of software reviews is to uncover errors and defects in work products so they can be removed before moving on to the next phase of development.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  131. In general the earlier a software defect is discovered and corrected the less costly to the overall project budget.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  132. Defect amplification models can be used to illustrate the costs associated with using software from its initial deployment to its retirement.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  133. Review metrics can be used to assess the efficacy of each review activity.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  134. Defect density can be estimated for any software engineering work product.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  135. Agile software developers are aware that software reviews always take time without saving any.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  136. The level of review formality is determined by which of the following?

    A) size of project budget
    B) structure of review
    C) amount of preparation
    D) amount of preparation, reviewer follow-up and structure of review
    E) reviewer follow-up
    D) amount of preparation, reviewer follow-up and structure of review
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. An informal review may consist of which of the following?

    A) both a casual meeting and a desk check
    B) desk check
    C) inspection
    D) casual meeting
    E) pair programming
    A) both a casual meeting and a desk check
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. Which of the following are objectives for formal technical reviews?

    A) allow senior staff members to correct errors
    B) uncover errors in software work products
    C) determining who introduced an error into a program
    D) assess programmer productivity
    B) uncover errors in software work products
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. At the end of a formal technical review all attendees can decide to;

    A) accept the work product without modification
    B) modify the work product and continue the review
    C) both accept the work product without modification or reject the product due to severe errors
    D) reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies
    E) reject the product due to severe errors
    C) accept the work product without modification or reject the product due to severe errors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. A review summary report answers which three questions?

    A) what defects were found, what caused defects, who was responsible
    B) terminate project, replace producer, request a time extension
    C) what was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings
    D) none of the above
    C) what was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. In any type of technical review, the focus of the review is on the product and not the producer.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  142. Sample driven reviews only make sense for very small software development projects.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  143. In software quality assurance work there is no difference between software verification and software validation.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  144. The best reason for using Independent software test teams is that;

    A) strangers will test the software mercilessly
    B) testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins
    C) the conflicts of interest between developers and testers is reduced
    D) software developers do not need to do any testing
    C) the conflicts of interest between developers and testers is reduced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software testing is organized?

    A) integration, system, validation and unit testing
    B) validation, integration, system and unit testing
    C) unit, validation, system and integration testing
    D) unit, integration, validation, and system testing
    E) system, integration, unit, and validation testing
    D) unit, integration, validation, and system testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. By collecting software metrics and making use of existing software reliability models it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines for determining when software testing is done.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  147. Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process?

    A) conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing
    B) use independent test teams
    C) specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
    D) wait till code is written prior to writing the test plan
    E) both conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing and specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
    E) both conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing and specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. Which of the following need to be assessed during unit testing?

    A) both error handling and execution paths
    B) execution paths
    C) error handling
    D) algorithmic performance
    E) code stability
    A) both error handling and execution paths
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. Units and stubs are not needed for unit testing because the modules are tested independently of one another.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  150. Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that;

    A) no drivers need to be written
    B) no stubs need to be written
    C) major decision points are tested early
    D) low level modules never need testing
    E) both major decision points are tested early and no drivers need to be written
    E) both major decision points are tested early and no drivers need to be written
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. Bottom-up integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that;

    A) no drivers need to be written
    B) regression testing is not required
    C) major decision points are tested early
    D) no stubs need to be written
    D) no stubs need to be written
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. Regression testing should be a normal part of integration testing because as a new module is added to the system new;

    A) control logic is invoked
    B) data flow paths are established
    C) drivers require testing
    D) all of the above
    E) both control logic is invoked and data flow paths are established
    E) both control logic is invoked and data flow paths are established
  153. Smoke testing might best be described as;

    A) testing that hides implementation errors
    B) rolling integration testing
    C) bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software
    D) unit testing for small programs
    B) rolling integration testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. When testing object-oriented software it is important to test each class operation separately as part of the unit testing process.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  155. The OO testing integration strategy involves testing;

    A) operator programs derived from use-case scenarios
    B) single operations as they are added to the evolving class implementation
    C) groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way
    D) none of the above
    C) groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. Since many WebApps evolve continuously, the testing process must be ongoing as well.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  157. The focus of validation testing is to uncover places that a user will be able to observe failure of the software to conform to its requirements.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  158. Software validation is achieved through a series of tests performed by the user once the software is deployed in his or her work environment.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  159. Configuration reviews are not needed if regression testing has been rigorously applied during software integration.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  160. Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the;

    A) test team
    B) developer
    C) end users
    D) systems engineers
    C) end users
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail in a variety of ways and verifies that software is able to continue execution without interruption.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  162. Security testing attempts to verify that protection mechanisms built into a system protect it from improper penetration.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  163. Stress testing examines the pressures placed on the user during system use in extreme environments.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  164. Performance testing is only important for real-time or embedded systems.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  165. Debugging is not testing, but always occurs as a consequence of testing.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  166. Which of the following is an approach to debugging?

    A) backtracking
    B) backtracking, brute force, and cause elimination
    C) brute force
    D) code restructuring
    E) cause elimination
    B) backtracking, brute force, and cause elimination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of quality used to assess a WebApp?

    A) Usability
    B) Content
    C) Maintainability
    D) Navigability
    C) Maintainability
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. WebApps require special testing methodologies because WebApp errors have several unique characteristics.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  169. Since WebApps evolve continuously, the testing process is an on-going activity, conducted by the Web support staff using regression tests.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  170. Test planning is not used in WebApp testing.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  171. As the WebApp architecture is constructed which types of testing are used as integration tests?

    A) both Component testing and Navigation testing
    B) Usability testing
    C) Navigation testing
    D) Content testing
    E) Component testing
    A) both Component testing and Navigation testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of WebApp content testing?

    A) Uncover syntactic errors
    B) Identify linking errors
    C) Uncover semantic errors
    D) Find organizational or structure errors
    B) Identify linking errors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. Database testing is very rarely a part of WebApp content testing.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  174. The overall strategy for interface testing is to uncover errors;

    A) related to specific interface mechanisms
    B) in overall usability
    C) both in navigation semantics and related to specific interface mechanisms
    D) in navigation semantics
    C) both in navigation semantics and related to specific interface mechanisms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. Which of the following is not a WebApp interface mechanism?

    A) Links
    B) Cookies
    C) Forms
    D) Browser
    C) Forms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. When testing WebApp interface semantics, each use-case is used as input for the design of a testing sequence.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  177. Usability tests should be designed and executed by intended users for a given WebApp.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  178. WebApp compatibility testing is conducted to be sure that the user model for usage scenario matched the user category assigned to a given user.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  179. Which test case design technique(s) are appropriate for WebApp component-level testing?

    A) Boundary value analysis
    B) Equivalence partitioning
    C) Path testing
    D) All of the above
    D) All of the above
  180. The purpose of WebApp navigation syntactic testing is to ensure the correct appearance of each navigation mechanism.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  181. Both Web engineers and non-technical users conduct navigation semantics testing for WebApps.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  182. Which of following is not one of the elements that need to be considered when constructing WebApp server-side configuration tests?

    A) Browser compatibility
    B) Database software integration
    C) System security measures
    D) Operating system compatibility
    A) Browser compatibility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. To design client-side configuration tests each user category is assessed to reduce the number of configuration variables to a manageable number.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  184. Which of the following is not a testable WebApp security element?

    A) Penetration
    B) Authentication
    C) Encryption
    D) Firewalls
    A) Penetration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. WebApp performance tests are designed to;

    A) test network connectivity
    B) simulate real-world loading situations
    C) asses WebApp usability
    D) evaluate page loading times
    B) simulate real-world loading situations
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. Load testing involves determining the input of which 3 variables?

    A) N, D, P
    B) N, T, P
    C) T, D, P
    D) N, T, D
    D) N, T, D
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. WebApp stress testing is a continuation load testing.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  188. Effective software project management focuses on;

    A) people, product, performance, process
    B) people, process, payoff, product
    C) people, performance, payoff, product
    D) people, product, process, project
    D) people, product, process, project
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. Organizations that achieve high levels of maturity in people management have a higher likelihood of implementing effective software engineering processes.

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  190. The first step in project planning is to;

    A) determine the budget.
    B) select a team organizational model.
    C) determine the project constraints.
    D) establish the objectives and scope.
    D) establish the objectives and scope.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. Process framework activities are populated with;

    A) milestones
    B) work products
    C) QA points
    D) all of the above
    D) all of the above
  192. Project management is less important for modern software development since most projects are successful and completed on time.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  193. Which of the following is not considered a stakeholder in the software process?

    A) sales people
    B) project managers
    C) customers
    D) end-users
    A) sales people
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. The best person to hire as a project team leader is the most competent software engineering practitioner available.

    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  195. The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely complex problems is the;

    A) closed paradigm
    B) open paradigm
    C) synchronous paradigm
    D) random paradigm
    B) open paradigm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. Which factors should be considered in choosing the organizational structure for a software team?

    A) degree of communication desired
    B) predicted size of the resulting program
    C) size of the project budget
    D) rigidity of the delivery date
    E) degree of communication desired, predicted size of the resulting program, and rigidity of the delivery date
    E) degree of communication desired, predicted size of the resulting program, and rigidity of the delivery date
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to;

    A) hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
    B) give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
    C) give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
    D) reward programmers based on their productivity.
    C) give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. Small agile teams have no place in modern software development.

    A) True
    B) False
    Books says TRUE but I believe the correct answer is FALSE.  I e-mailed the professor about this.
  199. Which of these software characteristics is not a factor contributing to project coordination difficulties?

    A) performance
    B) interoperability
    C) scale
    D) uncertainty
    A) performance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?

    A) context, function, communication requirements
    B) information objectives, function, performance
    C) context, lines of code, function
    D) communications requirements, performance, information objectives
    B) information objectives, function, performance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. The major areas of problem decomposition during the project scoping activity are the;

    A) software process model
    B) process used to deliver functionality
    C) functionality to be delivered
    D) both functionality to be delivered and process used to deliver functionality
    E) customer workflow
    D) both functionality to be delivered and process used to deliver functionality
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. Product and process decomposition occurs simultaneously as the project plan evolves.  

    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  203. When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process decomposition?

    A) any time the software is mission critical
    B) when the project is extremely small in size
    C) never the activities are invariant
    D) rapid prototyping does not require their use
    C) never the activities are invariant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk of software failure?

    A) both start on the right foot and track progress
    B) start on the right foot
    C) track progress
    D) request a large budget
    E) double the project team size
    A) both start on the right foot and track progress
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. The W5HH principle contains which of the following questions?

    A) Why is the system being developed?, Where are they organizationally located? and How much of each resource is required?
    B) How much of each resource is required?
    C) Where are they organizationally located?
    D) Why is the system being developed?
    E) What will be done by whom?
    A) Why is the system being developed?, Where are they organizationally located? and How much of each resource is required?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project management?

    A) defect tracking against quality targets
    B) formal risk management
    C) defect tracking against quality targets, empirical cost estimation, and formal risk management
    D) empirical cost estimation
    E) assessing product usability
    C) defect tracking against quality targets, empirical cost estimation, and formal risk management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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