MD530 General Quiz

Card Set Information

MD530 General Quiz
2014-03-27 02:37:01

General Quiz for training.
Show Answers:

  1. 1. The Auto Reignition System power is supplied through the ENG OUT circuit breaker and the system is armed by _______________.
    M/R Transmission oil pressure
  2. 2. The Auto Reignition System light will remain on until manually reset after N1 and Nr increase back above the values __% N1 and ___ Nr.
    55, 453
  3. 3. The Rolls Royce Model 250C-C30 gas turbine engine produces up to ____ shp at 100% N2 for takeoff (5 min), and _____ maximum continuous shp at 100% RPM.
    447, 350
  4. 4. The one way lock prevents aft rotor system feedback forces from moving the cyclic control aft.
  5. 5. The _________ is a spring arrangement in parallel with the collective control path to provide a mechanical force to counteract the strap pack’s resistance to twist.
    Collective Bungee
  6. 6. VNE during autorotation is ____kts.
  7. 7. Cargo deck capacity is ____ lbs not to exceed ____ lbs per square foot.
  8. 8. Maximum engine torque limit for takeoff is _____psi for _¬_ minutes.
  9. 9. The maximum continuous TOT is ___ degrees C.
  10. 10. The Gas Producer (N1) transient speed is 106% for ___ seconds.
  11. 11. The maximum allowable output shaft (N2) speed exceeds helicopter allowable speed at ____%.
  12. 12. What are the Engine Oil Pressure limits?
    • 50 psi to 30 psi with the following minimums:
    • 115 psi at 94 percent N1 and above.
    • 90 psi above 79 percent N1.
    • 50 psi below 79 percent N1.
  13. 13. Define “Land Immediately”.
    Execute a power-on approach and landing without delay.
  14. 14. The minimum rate of descent with power off will be attained at __KIAS and ___Nr.
  15. 15. What are the indications of a Complete Power Loss?
    • Red "Engine Out" warning
    • Left Yaw
    • Drop in Engine speed
    • Drop in Rotor speed
    • change in noise level
  16. Respond to a One Way Lock Failure.
    • 1. Reduce Speed to 100 KIAS or less
    • 2. Limit cyclic movement to those movements required to safely fly the helicopter, abnormal or extreme movements are not necessary
  17. Respond to a Tail Rotor Transmission Chip Detector Light.
    Land as soon as possible
  18. 18. The most important single consideration is _______.
    Control of the aircraft
  19. 19. Respond to Fuel Control or Power Turbine Governor Failure (under speed)
    • 1. Lower collective to maintain Rotor RPM
    • 2. If power is insufficient for level flight or power-on decent, make an autorotational landing. 
  20. Where is the Center of Pressure of an airfoil?
    The point along the chordline through which all aerodynamic forces are considered to act.
  21. Which of the following is the formula for lift?
  22. 22. Rotational relative wind ......
    a. Is created by the rotation of the rotor blades.
    b. is parallel to the tip path plane and strikes the leading edge of the blade at 90 degrees in the plane of rotation.
    c. will constantly change in direction during rotation.
    d. will be maximum at the blade tip and uniformly decreases to zero at the center of the hub.
    e. All of the above.
    All of the above.
  23. 23. The rotor system will compensate for dissymmetry of lift automatically, without pilot input, through _______________
    Blade flapping
  24. 24. In autorotation, what is the region of the blade called between approximately 25 and 70 percent radius?
    Driving Region
  25. 25. What is hovering at altitudes greater than 1 rotor diameters called?
    OGE hover
  26. On the diagram below, vector #1 represents:
  27. On the diagram below vector #2 represents:
    Total aerodynamic force
  28. On the diagram below, vector #3 represent :
    Induced Flow
  29. On the diagram below, vector #4 represents:
  30. What condition is not a contributing factor to Settling With Power (Vortex Ring State)?
    A. A vertical or near-vertical descent rate of at least 300 fpm.
    B. 20 to 100% engine power applied with insufficient power to recover.
    C. Greater that a 24 knot headwind.
    D. Slow airspeed. Less than ETL.
    C. Greater that a 24 knot headwind.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. 31. What forms and publications required for flight in SANG AVN aircraft?
    • 1. Log Book Binder
    • 2. ISAQ's
    • 3. 2408-12
    • 4. 2408-13
    • 5. 2408-14
    • 6. 2408-18
    • 7. PMS-1
    • 8. 365-4
    • 9. Hit Check/Power Assur. Log
    • 10. Operators Manual and checklist w/changes
    • 11. Navigational Charts and Pubs Required
    • 12. Crash Map
  32. 32. If _______ days have elapsed since the last flight as pilot or pilot-in-command in the aircraft mission, type design, and series to be flown, the aviator will administered a PFE.
    60 Days
  33. 33. At takeoff, the aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate airport (if required) and have a planned fuel reserve of:
    a. _____ VFR
    b. _____ IFR
    • a. 20 Minutes VFR
    • b. 30 Minutes IFR
  34. For instrument flight, aviators may reduce destination and alternate Category A visibility minimums by ____ but no less than ____ (meters).
    50%, 400m
  35. 35. An aviator flying the aircraft on takeoff who has logged at least 50 hours of actual weather time per SANG AVN Form 759 as PC, IP, SP, P, ME, IE, or PI has no takeoff mins. The aviator flying the aircraft who has not logged at least 50 hours as previously stated has what takeoff minimums?
    100ft, 400m
  36. 36. An instrument approach may be initiated regardless of ceiling and visibility.
  37. The helicopter will not be flown below the published MDA or DH on an instrument approach unless the following exists:
    • 1. The approach threshold of the runway, or the approach lights or other markings, identifiable with the approach end of the runway or landing area, must be clearly visible to the pilot.
    • 2. The aircraft must be in a position from which a safe approach to the runway or landing area can be made.
  38. The SANG helicopter VFR Weather Minimums for Class G airspace are:
    600m, clear of clouds
  39. 39. Aviators operating SVFR in a control zone during the day must have a clearance and meet the following weather requirements:
    300’ ceiling, 1500m vis
  40. 40. An aviator will not be regular blood donor. Pilots who have given at least 200cc of blood cannot fly for at least ____ hrs.
  41. 41. The MD530F is a Class 1 Aircraft for Weight and Balance.
    False. Per AR 95-1 Para. 7-3 B. or SAR 95-1 Para. 8-3 B. Class 2 aircraft are those whose weight or center-of-gravity limits can readily be exceeded by loading arrangemnets normally used in tactical operations or those aircraft designed primarily for transporting troops and other passengers. Therefore, a high degree of loading control is needed. Also, all aircraft whose weight and balance class is not stated in the operator's manual will be considered Class 2.
  42. It is the co-pilots responsibility to ensure that the aircraft will remain within center of gravity throughout the duration of the mission, that the weight and balance forms are accurate and the sufficient completed forms are aboard the aircraft.
  43. 43. Spatial disorientation is an individual’s inability to determine his _________, _________, and __________ relative to the surface of the earth.
    Position, attitude, and motion
  44. 44. The three main sensory systems important for maintaining equilibrium and balance are _________, _________, and __________.
    Visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive
  45. 45. The most common form of spatial disorientation is the ______________.
  46. 46. To manage (prevent) spatial disorientation, aviators should _____________.
    Trust their instruments.
  47. What is the definition of stress?
    The nonspecific response of the body to any demand placed upon it
  48. Name the three types of fatigue.
    Acute, chronic and Motivational Exhaustion/Burnout
  49. When the pilot on the controls demonstrates difficulty in aircraft control or deviates from normal or expected actions the other Pilot should:
    Offer assistance
  50. The Effective Crew: Crews are composed of assertive crew members who consistently engage in situational leadership. Each crew member knows he/she is a productive member of the team and is willing to help fellow crew members without request. The entire crew participates as a team in the planning execution and after action review phases of the mission. When should this condition exist?