Card Set Information
An antibody that causes a clumping of specific antigens.
Emptying the bladder without the sensation of the need to void.
Amt of urine remaining in the bladder immediately after voiding.
Catheter used for long-term continuous drainage.
A cutaneous urinary diversion (used for pts with obstructions or tumors in urinary tract).
A condition caused by direct manipulation of bowel during abdominal surgery - a temporary stoppage of peristalsis normally lasting 24-48 hrs.
The part of the ostomy that is attached to the skin.
Allows liquid fecal content from the ileum of the small intestine to be eliminated through a stoma.
Kidneys normally filter ____ L plasma, and excrete _____ L urine.
Cardiovascular system pumps and carries _____ and _____ in the body.
_______ help body conserve Na+, save CL- and H2O, and excrete K+
Thyroid gland increases ______ and ______.
A deficit in carbonic acid in ECF.
Excess in carbonic acid in ECF.
Excess of bicarb in ECF.
Deficit of bicarb in ECF.
Decreased pH, increased PCO2.
Increased pH, decreased PCO2.
Increased pH, increased HCO3.
Decreased pH, decreased HCO3.
"pulling force" of fluid by use of a protein.
Colloid osmotic pressure
Hypomagnesemia may lead to?
change in mental status
Best indication of pt's fluid status.
When is an over-the-needle catheter (type of peripheral vascular catheter IV) NOT used?
vesicant (blister agent) chemotherapy
How often should a peripheral venous IV site be rotated?
72-96 hrs for adult
can remain in place for child
Midline peripheral catheters are not used to infuse what?
How long should a particular insertion site be kept in place for a midline peripheral catheter?
Type of IV used in home for IV therapy, acute care settings, and long-term IV therapy.
PICC (peripherally inserted central catheters)
Indications for PICCs.
antibiotics for 2-6 wks
continuous narcotic infusions
Type of IV with less risk of complications (such as infection and peumothorax).
All ______ require radiographic confirmatio of position.
Type of IV mainly used in critical care and emergencies.
nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter
Type of CVAD with a high risk for complications (account for most catheter-related bloodstream infections).
nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter
________ is a potential complication when the catheter is placed in the subclavian vein.
(like with a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter)
Two types of CVADs intended for long-term use.
percutaneous central venous catheter
AB blood type
Blood type O
The desire to void usually occurs when the bladders fills to about ______ mL in an adult.
Type of incontinence that appears suddenly alnd lasts for 6 months or less.
Type of incontinence that occurs ehwn there is an involuntary loss of urine related to increase in intra-abdominal pressure (commonly occurs during coughing, sneezing, laughing, etc).
Type of incontinence that is the involuntary loss of urine that occurs soon after feeling an urgent need to void.
Type of incontinence that indicates that there is urine loss with features of two or more types of incontinence.
Type of incontinence that is the involuntary loss of urine associated with overdistention and overflow of the bladder.
Type of incontinence in which urine loss is caused by the inability to reach the toilet because of environmental barriers, physical limitations, loss of memory, or disorientation.
Scanty or greatly diminished amt of urine in a given time; 24-hr urine is less than 400 mL
24-hr UOP is less than 50 mL
complete kidney shutdown or
Proteinuria is indicative of ______.
Urine appears cloudy (pus in urine).
Normal production rate of urine in adult kidneys.
Repeated inability to control urination.
Dehydration = _____ urine specific gravity.
Increased UOP (fluid overload) = _____ specific gravity.
Color of urine with use of diuretics.
Color of urine with use of anticoagulants.
Color of urine with use of antidepressants.
green or blue-green
Color of urine with use of Levodopa.
brown or black
Normal pH of urine.
Direct visual exam of bladder, uretral orifices, and urethra.
Abuse of _____ such as ____ and _____ cause increased concerns with voiding.
aspirin & ibuprofen (NSAIDs)
Inability to void even though the kidneys are producint urine that enters thge bladder.
_____ or ______ is is ECF and composes 5% of total body fluid.
Normal HCO3 values.
What is needed to ensure proper placement for any central venous access device?
Where are nontunneled percutaneous CVADs placed?
subclavian or internal jugular
Primary controller of body's carbonic acid supply.
Breathing slowly would be advised in which situation?
a pt with respiratory alkalosis
-it will reverse carbonic acid deficit & increase CO2
Primary organ of bowel elimination.
Increase in frequency and a change in consistency of stools; passage of more than THREE loose stools per day. (infant)
Meds that produce pink to red to black stool.
Meds that produce black stool.
Meds that produce white discoloration or speckiling in stool.
Meds that produce green-gray stool.
To prevent constipation, encourage ____ g of fiber per day.
Max amt of fluid used for cleansing enema.
Usual amount of solution administered with a retention enema for an adult.
____ and _____ mixture helps expel flatus.
milk & molasses
Stoma size with an ileostomy usually stabilizes within ____ to _____ weeks.
______ lubricate stool.
_______ soften the stool.
______ promote peristalsis by irritating the intestinal mucosa or stimulating nerve endings in the intestinal wall.
_______ laxatives act by causing stool to absorb water and swell.
What is a barium enema?
a radiographic exam of lg intestine
Most common cause of chronic constipation.
habitual laxative use
Moderate sedation/analgesia is also called? What is it used for?
conscious or procedural sedation
used for short-term & minimally invasive procedures.
The pt maintains cardiorespiratory fxn and can respond to verbal commands while the IV admin of sedatives & analgesics raise pain threshold & produce altered mood with some degree of amnesia.
moderate sedation/analgesia AKA conscious or procedural sedation
Surgery that is performed within 24-48 hrs.
Urgent (kidney stone, ulcer erosion)
Anesthesia that blocks the pain stimulus at the cortex; a drug-induced depression of CNS.
Anesthesia that produces a state of analgesia, amnesia, unconsciousness with loss of reflexes & muscle tone.
Anesthesia that blocks the pain at the origin, afferent neuron or spinal cord.
Anesthesia that produces loss of painful sensation in only ONE region of body & does NOT result in unconsciousness.
Anesthesia where the pt retains CV fxns & can respond to verbal commands with IV sedation; analgesia & amnesia.
3-4 of these conditions must be met for informed consent.
2. Sufficient comprehension
3. Voluntary consent
4. Competence (assumed)
Who is responsible for securing the informed consent?
Physician. NOT nurse.
Pts with a large habitual intake of _______ require larger doses of anesthetic againts & postoperative analgesics, increasing risk for drug-related complications. (p.827)
Pts who have ____ or _____ incisions are especially prone to shallow breathing b/c of incisional pain with deeper respirations.
If a pt shows a Hgb of ______ and hct of _____, blood or blood component therapy may be given preoperatively to maintain volume and increase O2 of tissues during surgery.
less than 10 g/L
less than 33%
______ meds may react with radiologic iodinized contrast dyes & cause ARF.
Abrubt w/d of ______ may cause cardiovascular collapse.
Antibiotics in _____ group can cause respiratory paralysis when combined with certain muscle relaxants.
The most common PACU emergency.
How to assess for respiratory obstructin in PACU.
ineffective resp fxn
observe for wheezing or crowing sounds with resp effort
Interventions used in PACU to maintain patent airway and tissue oxygenation.
An incomplete expansion or collapse of alveoli with retained mucus, involving a portion of lung and resulting in poor gas exchange.
Inflammation of alveoli as a result of an infectious process or presence of foreign material.
Why is food and fluid restricted before surgery?
to ensure that the stomach contains a minimal amt of gastric secretions which reduces risk of aspiration.
What position should pt be placed in upon return from PACU.
semi- or high Fowler's or
Three components of universal protocol.
marking operative site
final verification just prior to start of procedure
Bowel sounds with intestinal obstruction.
hyperactive, high-pitched tinkling sounds
Extreme drowsiness but will respond to stimuli.
Can be aroused by extreme or repeated stimuli.
With the visually impaired, assist them with ambulation by walking where?
slightly ahead of the person
When pt returns from PACU, what position should you place them in?
semi- or high Fowler's or side-lying.
When assessing bladder volume using an ultrasound bladder scanner, place the gel midline on pt's abdomen, about ______ above the _______.
1" to 1 1/2"
Ensure that the bedpan is in proper posn and pt's buttocks are resting on the ______ of the regular bedpan or the ______ of the fracture bedpan.
Advance catheter (female) until there is a RETURN OF URINE. Then what?
Once urine drains, advance catheter another 2" to 3".
DO NOT FORCE CATHETER THRU URETHRA TO BLADDER. (rotate gently if resistance is met)
When performing intermittent closed catheter irrigation, cleanse the access port with ______.
When administering a continous closed bladder irrigation, cleanse the irrigation port on the catheter with _______ and use ______.
an alcohol swab
A pt has a fecal impaction. With an oil-retention enema, what should you instruct the pt to do?
retain the enema for at least 30 min