Cellular Biology

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Author:
Dienekes
ID:
269681
Filename:
Cellular Biology
Updated:
2014-04-13 18:29:54
Tags:
Biology
Folders:
Biology
Description:
Includes Cell Structure, Energy and Metabolism, How Cells Reproduce, Reproduction and Development, and Plant Reproduction and Development.
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  1. Where are bacteria not present?

    A. High in the atmosphere.
    B. At the bottom of the ocean.
    C. Bacteria are found in all these places.
    D. Deep underground.
    E. Human intestines.
    C. Bacteria are found in all these places.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Toxic forms of E. coli come ultimately from

    A. Vegetables
    B. Fruits
    C. Meat
    D. Soil
    E. Feces
    E. Feces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following is not found in all cells?

    A. DNA.
    B. All these are found in all cells.
    C. Nucleus.
    D. Plasma membrane.
    E. Cytoplasm.
    C. Nucleus.

    Prokaryotes (usually single celled organisms such as bacteria) do not have an organized nucleus. Their DNA is kind of floating around the cell. It's clumped up, but not inside of a nucleus.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The volume of a cell

    A. Increases with the square of the diameter
    B. Increases linearly with diameter
    C. Increases with the cube of the diameter
    D. Decreases as the diameter increases
    E. Stays the same as the diameter increases
    C. Increases with the cube of the diameter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which of the following cannot be seen with a light microscope?

    A. Chloroplast
    B. Prokaryotic cell
    C. Mitochondria
    D. Virus
    E. Eukaryotic cell
    D. Virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. A phospholipid contains

    A. Two phosphate groups, two hydrophobic tails
    B. One phosphate group, one hydrophobic tail
    C. One phosphate group, two hydrophilic tails
    D. One phosphate group, one hydrophilic tail
    E. One phosphate group, two hydrophobic tails
    E. One phosphate group, two hydrophobic tails
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Most molecules pass the cell membrane via

    A. Transport proteins
    B. Receptor proteins
    C. Adhesion proteins
    D. Recognition proteins
    E. None of these
    A. Transport proteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The term "fluid mosaic" describes the

    A. DNA
    B. Transport proteins
    C. Ribosomes
    D. Cytoplasm
    E. Plasma membrane
    E. Plasma membrane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. What is not true of prokaryotic cells?

    A. They lack internal, membrane-bound organelles.
    B. They lack a cell wall.
    C. Bacteria are an example.
    D. They lack a nucleus.
    E. Archaea are an example.
    B. They lack a cell wall.

    Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus, but rather have DNA "clumped' up.  Examples are bacteria and Archaea (microorganisms that are similar to bacteria in size and simplicity
    of structure but radically different in molecular organization) and they lack internal membrane-bound organelles.  They DO, however, have cell walls.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Which is found in all prokaryotes?

    A. Plasma membrane
    B. Pilus
    C. Capsule
    D. None of these
    E. Flagellum
    A. Plasma membrane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Biofilms do not include

    A. Fungi.
    B. All these are found in biofilms.
    C. Protists.
    D. Archaea.
    E. Bacteria.
    B. All these are found in biofilms.

    A biofilm is any group of microorganisms in which cells stick to each other on a surface. These adherent cells are frequently embedded within a self-produced matrix of extracellular polymeric substance.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the following is not true of eukaryotes?

    A. They may be multicellular.
    B. Protists are an example.
    C. They lack a nucleus.
    D. Fungi are an example.
    E. They have membrane-bound organelles.
    C. They lack a nucleus.

    A eukaryote is any organism whose cells contain a nucleus and other structures enclosed within membranes.

    Many unicellular organisms are eukaryotes, such as protozoa. All multicellular organisms are eukaryotes, including animals, plants and fungi.

    Protists are a large and diverse group of eukaryotic microorganisms, which belong to the kingdom Protista.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which of these are not part of the endomembrane system?

    A. Endoplasmic reticula
    B. Vacuoles
    C. Golgi bodies
    D. Mitochondria
    E. Lysosomes
    D. Mitochondria

    The endomembrane system is composed of the different membranes that are suspended in the cytoplasm within a eukaryotic cell. Importantly, the endomembrane system does not include the membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts.

    The mitochondrion (plural, mitochondria) is a eukaryotic organelle that specializes in making ATP by aerobic respiration.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following is not a structural molecule of the cytoskeleton?

    A. Microtubules.
    B. Motor proteins.
    C. Microfilaments.
    D. Intermediate filaments.
    E. All these are structural components of the cytoskeleton.
    B. Motor proteins.

    Between the nucleus and plasma membrane of all eukaryotic cells is a system of interconnected protein filaments collectively called the cytoskeleton. Elements of the cytoskeleton reinforce, organize, and move cell structures, and often the whole cell. Some of these elements are always present. Others form only at certain times.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Movement of materials from cell to cell is facilitated by

    A. Plasmodesmata
    B. Plasmodesmata and gap junctions
    C. Gap junctions
    D. Adhering junctions
    E. Tight junctions
    B. Plasmodesmata and gap junctions

    Plasmodesmata are microscopic channels which traverse the cell
    walls of plant cells and some algal cells, enabling transport and
    communication between them.

    Gap junctions are channels that connect the cytoplasm of adjoining
    animal cells, thus permitting water, ions, and small molecules to pass
    directly from the cytoplasm of one cell to another.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which are not examples of an extracellular matrix component?

    A. Chitins.
    B. Waxes.
    C. All these can be in the extracellular matrix.
    D. Proteins.
    E. Polysaccharides.
    C. All these can be in the extracellular matrix.

    The extracellular matrix (ECM) is the extracellular part of multicellular structure (e.g., organisms, tissues, biofilms) that typically provides structural and biochemical support to the surrounding cells.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following is not true of living organisms?

    A. They are made of cells.
    B. They use DNA as their hereditary material.
    C. They can change over successive generations.
    D. They exclusively possess organic molecules.
    E. They engage in metabolism.
    D. They exclusively possess organic molecules.

    Living organisms possess many inorganic molecules, water being the most abundant.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. For something to be considered alive, how many of the six properties of living things must it have?

    A. Six
    B. One
    C. Five
    D. Four
    E. Three
    A. Six

    Living things are made of cells.
    Living things obtain and use energy.
    Living things grow and develop.
    Living things reproduce.
    Living things respond to their environment.
    Living things adapt to their environment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Raw beef trimmings, sprayed with ammonia and ground to a paste, are never found in

    A. Hot dogs.
    B. This product is found in all of these.
    C. Hamburger patties.
    D. Sausages.
    E. Lunch meats.
    B. This product is found in all of these.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. E. coli can be killed by

    A. Washing food
    B. Storing food
    C. Cooking food
    D. None of these
    E. Cutting food
    C. Cooking food
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Despite the diversity of cell type and function, all cells have these three things in common:

    A. cytoplasm, DNA, and a plasma membrane
    B. a plasma membrane, DNA, and a nuclear envelope
    C. a cell wall, cytoplasm, and DNA
    D. cytoplasm, DNA, and organelles with membranes
    A. cytoplasm, DNA, and a plasma membrane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Every cell is descended from another cell. This idea is part of _____.

    A. the theory of heredity
    B. cell biology
    C. cell theory
    D. evolution
    C. cell theory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. The surface-to-volume ratio ____.

    A. does not apply to prokaryotic cells
    B. is part of the cell theory
    C. is part of the cell theory AND constrains cell size
    D. constrains cell size
    D. constrains cell size
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Some protists start out life with no nucleus.

    False
    True
    False
  25. Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells ____.

    A. have no nucleus
    B. have RNA but not DNA
    C. have no plasma membrane AND have no nucleus
    D. have no plasma membrane
    A. have no nucleus

    Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles, such as the nucleus, while prokaryotic cells do not. Differences in cellular structure of prokaryotes and eukaryotes include the presence of mitochondria and chloroplasts, the cell wall, and the structure of chromosomal DNA.

    Prokaryotes were the only form of life on Earth for millions of years until more complicated eukaryotic cells came into being through the process of evolution.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Cell membranes consist mainly of ___ and ____.

    A. phospholipids; proteins
    B. lipids; carbohydrates
    C. lipids; carbohydrates
    D. phospholipids; ECM
    A. phospholipids; proteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Most membrane functions are carried out by ____.

    A. hormones
    B. proteins
    C. phospholipids
    D. nucleic acids
    B. proteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following statements is correct?

    A. Some animal cells are prokaryotic.
    B. Ribosomes are only found in bacteria and archaea.
    C. Only eukaryotic cells have mitochondria.
    D. The plasma membrane is the outermost boundary of all cells.
    C. Only eukaryotic cells have mitochondria.

    Mitochondrion are membrane-bound organelles found in most eukaryotic cells (the cells that make up plants, animals, fungi, and many other forms of life). These structures are sometimes described as "cellular power plants" because they generate most of the cell's supply of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. In a lipid bilayer, the ____ of all the lipid molecules are sandwiched between all of the ____.

    A. hydrophilic heads; hydrophilic tails
    B. hydrophilic tails; hydrophobic heads
    C. hydrophobic heads; hydrophilic tails
    D. hydrophobic tails; hydrophilic heads
    D. hydrophobic tails; hydrophilic heads

    The lipid bilayer is a thin polar membrane made of two layers of lipid molecules. These membranes are flat sheets that form a continuous barrier around cells.  The hydrophobic tails are internal to the bilayer, with the hydrophilic heads facing outward in both directions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. The main function of the endomembrane system is ____.

    A. secreting extracellular matrix onto the cell surface
    B. producing ATP by aerobic respiration
    C. building and modifying proteins and lipids
    D. isolating DNA from toxic substances
    C. building and modifying proteins and lipids

    The endomembrane system:
    * Creates/synthesize proteins (nucleus and endoplasmic reticulum)
    * Sends out molecules to different parts of the cell (Golgi Apparatus and vesicles)
    * Renews organelles of cells by decomposition, materials are sent out to remake the organelle (Lysosomes)
    * Decomposition of "food" retrieved from phagocytosis. (Lysosome)
    * Storage units (Vacuoles)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Enzymes contained in ____ break down worn-out organelles, bacteria, and other particles.

    A. mitochondria
    B. endoplasmic reticulum
    C. peroxisomes
    D. lysosomes
    D. lysosomes

    Lysosomes contain powerful digestive enzymes that digest excess or worn-out organelles, food particles and engulfed bacteria or viruses.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Put the following structures in order according to the pathway of a secreted protein:

    a. endoplasmic reticulum
    b. Golgi bodies
    c. plasma membrane
    d. post-Golgi vesicles
    • endoplasmic reticulumb
    • Golgi bodiesc
    • post-Golgi vesicles
    • plasma membraned
  33. No animal cell has a ____.

    A. cell wall
    B. plasma membrane
    C. lysosome
    D. flagellum
    A. cell wall

    Animals don't have cell walls. If we did, we would be much more rigid and we would probably lose our ability to move around.

    Plants have cell walls. Fungi have cell walls made of chitin. Many single celled organisms have cell walls made of peptidoglycan.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. ____ connect the cytoplasm of plant cells.

    A. Adhesion proteins
    B. Adhering junctions
    C. Tight junctions
    D. Plasmodesmata
    D. Plasmodesmata

    Plasmodesmata are microscopic channels which traverse the cell walls of plant cells and some algal cells, enabling transport and
    communication between them.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Mitosis and cytoplasmic division function in ____.

    A. asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes
    B. gamete formation in bacteria and archaea
    C. sexual reproduction in plants and animals
    D. asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes AND growth and tissue repair in multicelled species
    E. growth and tissue repair in multicelled species
    D. asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes AND growth and tissue repair in multicelled species
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. A cell with two of each type of chromosome has a(n) chromosome number.

    A. tetraploid
    B. haploid
    C. diploid
    D. abnormal
    C. diploid

    A diploid containing two complete sets of chromosomes, one from each parent.

    A haploid has a single set of unpaired chromosomes.

    A tetraploid contains four homologous sets of chromosomes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. How many chromatids does a duplicated chromosome have?

    A. one
    B. four
    C. three
    D. two
    D. two

    A chromatid is each of the two threadlike strands into which a chromosome divides longitudinally during cell division. Each contains a double helix of DNA.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. ____ maintains the chromosome number; ____ halves it.

    a. mitosis; meiosis
    b. meiosis; mitosis
    a. mitosis; meiosis

    Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two daughter cells each having the same number and kind of chromosomes as the parent nucleus, typical of ordinary tissue growth.

    Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in four daughter cells each with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell, as in the production of gametes and plant spores.
  39. Except for a pairing of sex chromosomes, homologous chromosomes ____.

    A. are the same length
    B. are the same shape
    C. all of these
    D. carry the same genes
    C. all of these

    A homologous chromosome is a set of one maternal chromosome and one paternal chromosome that pair up with each other inside a cell during meiosis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Interphase is the part of the cell cycle when ____.

    A. mitosis proceeds
    B. a cell forms its spindle apparatus
    C. a cell ceases to function
    D. a cell grows and duplicates its DNA
    D. a cell grows and duplicates its DNA

    Interphase is the phase of the cell cycle in which the cell spends the majority of its time and performs the majority of its purposes
    including preparation for cell division.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. After mitosis, the chromosome number of the two new cells is ____ the parent cell's.

    A. the same as
    B. rearranged compared to
    C. one-half of
    D. doubled compared to
    A. the same as
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Only ___ is not a stage of mitosis.

    A. anaphase
    B. interphase
    C. metaphase
    D. prophase
    B. interphase

    Before a dividing cell enters mitosis, it undergoes a period of growth called interphase.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. The main evolutionary advantage of sexual over asexual reproduction is that it produces .

    A. more offspring per individual
    B. more variation among offspring
    C. healthier offspring
    B. more variation among offspring
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Alternative forms of the same gene are ____.

    A. alleles
    B. homologous
    C. gametes
    D. oncogenes
    A. alleles

    An allele, or allel, is one of a number of alternative forms of the same gene or same genetic locus. It is the alternative form of a gene for a character producing different effects.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Meiosis functions in ____.

    A. growth and tissue repair in multicelled species
    B. gamete formation in bacteria and archaea
    C. sexual reproduction in plants and animals
    D. asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes AND growth and tissue repair in multicelled species
    E. asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes
    C. sexual reproduction in plants and animals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Crossing over mixes up ____.

    A. alleles
    B. zygotes
    C. gametes
    D. chromosomes
    A. alleles

    "Crossing over" is the process that occurs during meiosis wherein two chromosomes pair up and exchange segments of their genetic material.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Sexual reproduction in animals requires ____.

    A. meiosis
    B. formation
    C. spore
    D. meiosis AND fertilization
    E. fertilization
    D. meiosis AND fertilization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Stage of mitosis: sister chromatids move apart

    A. Prophase
    B. Anaphase
    C. Metaphase
    D. Telophase
    B. Anaphase

    Sister chromatids are generated when a single chromosome is replicated into two copies of itself, these copies being called sister chromatids.

    In anaphase, the paired chromosomes (sister chromatids) separate and begin moving to opposite ends (poles) of the cell. Spindle fibers not connected to chromatids lengthen and elongate the cell. At the end of anaphase, each pole contains a complete compilation of chromosomes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Stage of mitosis: chromosomes start to condense

    A. Telophase
    B. Anaphase
    C. Metaphase
    D. Prophase
    D. Prophase

    In prophase, the chromatin condenses into discrete chromosomes. The nuclear envelope breaks down and spindles form at opposite "poles" of the cell. Many consider prophase (versus interphase) to be the first true step of the mitotic process.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Stage of mitosis: all chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cell.

    A. Telophase
    B. Prophase
    C. Metaphase
    D. Anaphase
    C. Metaphase

    In metaphase, the spindle fully develops and the chromosomes align at the metaphase plate (a plane that is equally distant from the two spindle poles).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Stage of mitosis: new nuclei form

    A. Prophase
    B. Telophase
    C. Metaphase
    D. Anaphase
    B. Telophase

    In telophase, the chromosomes are cordoned off into distinct new nuclei in the emerging daughter cells.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. First cell of new individual

    A. Spindle
    B. Gamete
    C. Centriole pair
    D. Contractile ring
    E. Cancer
    F. Tumor
    G. Cell plate
    H. Cleavage furrow
    I. Zygote
    I. Zygote
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Haploid

    A. Gamete
    B. Spindle
    C. Cleavage furrow
    D. Centriole pair
    E. Tumor
    F. Zygote
    G. Cell plate
    H. Contractile ring
    I. Cancer
    A. Gamete

    A haploid is a cell having a single set of unpaired chromosomes.

    A gamete is a cell that fuses with another cell during fertilization (conception) in organisms that reproduce sexually.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Produces the spindle

    A. Tumor
    B. Contractile ring
    C. Centriole pair
    D. Gamete
    E. Zygote
    F. Spindle
    G. Cell plate
    H. Cancer
    I. Cleavage furrow
    C. Centriole pair

    Centrosomes are associated with the nuclear membrane during prophase of the cell cycle. In mitosis the nuclear membrane breaks down and the centrosome nucleated microtubules (parts of the cytoskeleton) can interact with the chromosomes to build the mitotic spindle.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Migrating, metastatic cells

    A. Centriole pair
    B. Gamete
    C. Zygote
    D. Cell plate
    E. Cancer
    F. Cleavage furrow
    G. Contractile ring
    H. Spindle
    I. Tumor
    E. Cancer

    Metastasis, or metastatic disease, is the spread of a cancer from one organ or part to another non-adjacent organ or part.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Made of microfilaments

    A. Cancer
    B. Centriole pair
    C. Spindle
    D. Contractile ring
    E. Cleavage furrow
    F. Tumor
    G. Zygote
    H. Cell plate
    I. Gamete
    D. Contractile ring

    The equatorial ring of microfilaments that diminishes in diameter probably both by contraction and disassembly as cytokinesis proceeds.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Indentation

    A. Spindle
    B. Zygote
    C. Cancer
    D. Cell plate
    E. Centriole pair
    F. Cleavage furrow
    G. Gamete
    H. Contractile ring
    I. Tumor
    F. Cleavage furrow

    The cleavage furrow is the indentation of the cell's surface that begins the progression of cleavage, by which animal and some algal cells undergo cytokinesis, the final splitting of the membrane, in the process cell division.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Lump of abnormal cells

    A. Tumor
    B. Zygote
    C. Contractile ring
    D. Centriole pair
    E. Cell plate
    F. Gamete
    G. Cleavage furrow
    H. Cancer
    I. Spindle
    A. Tumor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Made of microtubules

    A. Spindle
    B. Cell plate
    C. Gamete
    D. Cleavage furrow
    E. Cancer
    F. Zygote
    G. Contractile ring
    H. Tumor
    I. Centriole pair
    A. Spindle

    A Spindle is a collection of minute fibers composed of microtubules, which are prominent during cell division, as mitotic spindle or mitotic apparatus''.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Divides plant cells

    A. Tumor
    B. Cancer
    C. Spindle
    D. Gamete
    E. Cell plate
    F. Centriole pair
    G. Contractile ring
    H. Cleavage furrow
    I. Zygote
    E. Cell plate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which of the following is not true of HeLa cells?

    A. They are used only in the lab where they were first isolated.
    B. They are immortal.
    C. They divide rapidly.
    D. They can grow viruses.
    E. They are cancerous.
    A. They are used only in the lab where they were first isolated.

    HeLa cell, a cancerous cell belonging to a strain continuously cultured since its isolation in 1951 from a patient suffering from cervical carcinoma. The designation HeLa is derived from the name of the patient, Henrietta Lacks. HeLa cells were the first human cell line to be established and have been widely used in laboratory studies, especially in research on viruses, cancer, and human genetics.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. HeLa cells were first isolated and cultured in

    A. 1951
    B. 1850
    C. 1945
    D. 1927
    E. 1910
    A. 1951
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. For which of the following processes is meiosis the mechanism?

    A. Repair of damaged tissues
    B. Increase in body size
    C. Sexual reproduction
    D. Replacement of dead cells
    E. Asexual reproduction
    C. Sexual reproduction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which group of organisms does not perform meiosis?

    A. Bacteria
    B. Animals
    C. Protists
    D. Plants
    E. Fungi
    A. Bacteria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. In the cell cycle, DNA is replicated during

    A. S
    B. Prophase
    C. Telophase
    D. G2
    E. G1
    A. S

    G1, S (Synthesis) and G2 are subphases of Interphase.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. A cell is found with its chromosomes not replicated. What stage could it be in?

    A. Interphase
    B. G2
    C. Metaphase
    D. G1
    E. Prophase
    D. G1

    G1, S (Synthesis) and G2 are subphases of Interphase.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Which of the following is not part of mitosis?

    A. Prophase
    B. Telophase
    C. Anaphase
    D. Metaphase
    E. Cytoplasmic division
    E. Cytoplasmic division

    In the process called cytokinesis, the cytoplasm divides and two identical daughter cells are formed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. The separation of sister chromatids occurs in

    A. Anaphase
    B. Prophase
    C. G1
    D. Metaphase
    E. Telophase
    A. Anaphase

    In anaphase, the paired chromosomes (sister chromatids) separate and begin moving to opposite ends (poles) of the cell. Spindle fibers not connected to chromatids lengthen and elongate the cell. At  the end of anaphase, each pole contains a complete compilation of
    chromosomes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. What structural component of plant cells prohibits a cleavage furrow?

    A. Plasma membrane
    B. Chloroplast
    C. Cell wall
    D. Mitochondrion
    E. Cytoplasm
    C. Cell wall

    The cleavage furrow is the indentation of the cell's surface that begins the progression of cleavage, by which animal and some algal cells undergo cytokinesis, the final splitting of the membrane, in the process cell division.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Which of the following terms is not significant in describing animal cell division?

    A. Cleavage furrow
    B. Vesicles from the Golgi body
    C. Contractile ring
    D. Pinching
    E. Microfilaments
    B. Vesicles from the Golgi body

    The Golgi complex gathers simple molecules and combines them to make molecules that are more complex. It then takes those big molecules, packages them in vesicles, and either stores them for later use or sends them out of the cell.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Which of the following is not true of an oncogene?

    A. All these are true of oncogenes.
    B. An oncogene first forms a neoplasm.
    C. Oncogene mutations can be passed on in families.
    D. Some tumor types run in families.
    E. It helps transform a normal cell into a tumor cell.
    A. All these are true of oncogenes.

    An oncogene is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer. In tumor cells, they are often mutated or expressed at high levels.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of malignant cells?

    A. Grow abnormally.
    B. Have a shrunken cytoskeleton.
    C. Produce ATP primarily by fermentation.
    D. Have a normal chromosome number.
    E. Exhibit metastasis.
    D. Have a normal chromosome number.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Approximately what percentage of deaths in developed countries is due to cancer?

    A. 15%
    B. 10%
    C. 1%
    D. 5%
    E. 50%
    A. 15%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. In sexual reproduction, what percentage of an individual's genes is passed to their offspring?

    A. 65%
    B. 100%
    C. 80%
    D. 50%
    E. 90%
    D. 50%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. In humans, how many alleles can exist for a given gene?

    A. 2
    B. 100s
    C. 4
    D. 10s
    E. 1
    B. 100s
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Compared to asexual reproduction, sexual reproduction produces offspring that are

    A. More like the parents
    B. None of these
    C. Of greater variety
    D. Worse
    E. Better
    C. Of greater variety
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Which of the following is not true of meiosis?

    A. It increases the chromosome number of the resulting cells.
    B. It can produce four cells.
    C. Exchange of chromosome parts may occur.
    D. It produces haploid cells.
    E. It is used in sexual reproduction.
    A. It increases the chromosome number of the resulting cells.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. In meiosis, exchange of chromosomal parts occurs in

    A. Prophase II.
    B. Anaphase II.
    C. Anaphase I.
    D. Prophase I.
    E. This exchange does not occur.
    D. Prophase I.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Which of the following is not true of taxol?

    A. All these are true of taxol.
    B. It interferes with mitosis.
    C. It can be used to treat cancer.
    D. It prevents microtubules from disassembling.
    E. It was made from HeLa cells.
    E. It was made from HeLa cells.

    Taxol is a compound, originally obtained from the bark of the Pacific yew tree, that has been found to inhibit the growth of certain cancers.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. When cells were taken from Henrietta Lacks

    A. Cell isolation was not performed on purpose.
    B. Consent was not obtained to take them.
    C. It was not known they were cancerous.
    D. All of these.
    E. There was no plan to culture them.
    B. Consent was not obtained to take them.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. A specialized subunit within a cell that has a
    specific function, and it is usually separately enclosed within its own
    lipid bilayer.
    An organelle
  82. The first human born via in vitro fertilization was in

    A. 1988
    B. 1978
    C. 2003
    D. 1953
    E. 1979
    B. 1978
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. How many children have been born via in vitro fertilization?

    A. 100
    B. Over 3,000,000
    C. 1,000,000
    D. 20,000
    E. 300,000
    B. Over 3,000,000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Parthenogenesis is an example of

    A. External fertilization
    B. Fragmentation
    C. Internal fertilization
    D. Sexual reproduction
    E. Asexual reproduction
    E. Asexual reproduction

    Parthenogenesis is a form of asexual reproduction in which growth and development of embryos occur without fertilization.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Mesoderm is

    A. A portion of the blastula
    B. The product of sperm fertilizing egg
    C. The primary tissue layer that forms the epidermis
    D. The primary tissue layer that forms the gut lining
    E. The primary tissue layer that forms the muscle
    E. The primary tissue layer that forms the muscle

    In all bilaterian animals, the mesoderm is one of the three primary germ layers in the very early embryo.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Which is not true of testes?

    a. They are gonads.
    b. The dwell within the scrotum.
    c. They form sperm.
    d. They are primary sex organs.
    e. They function best when slightly above body temperature.
    e. They function best when slightly above body temperature.
  87. Which of the following is not haploid?

    A. Secondary spermatocyte.
    B. Primary spermatocyte.
    C. Immature sperm.
    D. Mature sperm.
    E. All these are haploid.
    B. Primary spermatocyte.

    Haploid is the term used when a cell has only one set of chromosomes.

    Primary spermatocytes are diploid (2N) cells containing 46 chromosomes and after Meiosis I division two secondary spermatocytes are formed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Which of the following does not occur in the follicular phase?

    A. A rise in follicle-stimulating hormone
    B. Menstrual flow
    C. Corpus luteum activity
    D. Follicle maturation
    E. Thickening of the uterine lining
    C. Corpus luteum activity

    The corpus luteum develops from an ovarian follicle during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle or estrous cycle, following the release of a secondary oocyte from the follicle during ovulation.

    The follicular phase is the phase of the estrous cycle, (or, in humans and great apes, the menstrual cycle) during which follicles in the ovary mature.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Which of the following is not a common predictor of erectile dysfunction?

    A. Getting older.
    B. Being a teenager.
    C. Circulatory problems.
    D. All these are predictors of erectile dysfunction.
    E. Smoking.
    B. Being a teenager.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Which of the following is a typical number of sperm to enter the vagina upon ejaculation?

    A. 200,000
    B. 2,000,000
    C. 20,000
    D. 20,000,000
    E. 200,000,000
    E. 200,000,000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. What percentage of couples in the United States is infertile?

    A. 20%
    B. 1%
    C. 50%
    D. 35%
    E. 10%
    E. 10%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a virus?

    A. Trichomoniasis
    B. Chlamydia
    C. Genital herpes
    D. Gonorrhea
    E. Syphilis
    C. Genital herpes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Fertilization typically occurs in the

    A. Vagina
    B. Vestibule
    C. Ovary
    D. Oviduct
    E. Uterus
    D. Oviduct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Which structure is the outermost?

    A. Amniotic cavity
    B. Yolk sac
    C. Chorionic cavity
    D. Chorion
    E. Chorionic villi
    E. Chorionic villi
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. In humans, how long after fertilization is optimal for birth?

    A. 21 weeks
    B. 28 weeks
    C. 38 weeks
    D. 45 weeks
    E. 36 weeks
    C. 38 weeks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Which hormone drives labor?

    A. Progesterone
    B. Insulin
    C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
    D. Oxytocin
    E. Estrogen
    D. Oxytocin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Breast milk does not contain

    A. Vitamins
    B. Digestive enzymes
    C. Proteins
    D. Hormones
    E. Carbohydrates
    D. Hormones
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Through a 2009 IVF procedure, Nadya Suleman had how many babies at once?

    A. 8
    B. 5
    C. 3
    D. 1
    E. 2
    A. 8
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. All of the following are more likely with a multiple pregnancy, except

    A. Premature birth.
    B. Stillbirth.
    C. Low birth weight.
    D. Miscarriage.
    E. All these are more likely.
    E. All these are more likely.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Colony collapse disorder (CCD) has been dramatically reducing populations of ____.

    A. Frogs
    B. Human settlements
    C. Bats
    D. Wasps
    E. Honeybees
    E. Honeybees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. What percentage of global crops depends on bees for pollination?

    A. 10%
    B. 90%
    C. 5%
    D. 50%
    E. 25%
    D. 50%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Which of the following is NOT true of the carpel?

    A. It houses the ovule.
    B. It includes the stigma.
    C. It is the female part of the flower.
    D. It includes the ovary.
    E. It has pollen sacs.
    E. It has pollen sacs.

    The carpel is the female reproductive organ of flowering plants, consisting of an
    ovary, style (sometimes absent), and stigma. The carpels are separate or
    fused to form a single pistil
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Which of the following is missing from a complete flower?

    A. Sepals.
    B. Carpels.
    C. Petals.
    D. None of these are missing.
    E. Stamens.
    D. None of these are missing.

    A sepal is a part of the flower of angiosperms (flowering plants).

    Carpels are one of the individual female reproductive organs in a flower. A carpel is composed of an ovary, a style, and a stigma, although some flowers have carpels without a distinct style.

    The stamen (plural stamina or stamens is the pollen-producing reproductive organ of a flower.

    A petal is each of the segments of the corolla of a flower, which are modified leaves and are typically colored.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. When we eat a seed, the embryo contains most of the

    A. Protein and carbohydrates
    B. Protein and vitamins
    C. Carbohydrates and minerals
    D. Protein and minerals
    E. Carbohydrates and vitamins
    B. Protein and vitamins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. A colorful, fleshy fruit is most likely to be dispersed by

    A. Sticking to the feathers of birds
    B. Floating
    C. Floating on water
    D. Sticking to the fur of animals
    E. Being eaten by animals
    E. Being eaten by animals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. The coleoptile protects the

    A. Embryonic shoot tips of monocots
    B. Embryonic shoot tips of eudicots
    C. Embryonic root tips of eudicots
    D. All embryonic shoot and root tips
    E. Embryonic root tips of monocots
    A. Embryonic shoot tips of monocots

    Coleoptile is the pointed protective sheath covering the emerging shoot in monocotyledons such as grasses.

    The Eudicots, Eudicotidae or Eudicotyledons are a monophyletic clade of flowering plants that had been called tricolpates or non-magnoliid dicots by previous authors.

    Monocots are one of two major groups of flowering plants (or angiosperms) that are traditionally recognized, the other being dicotyledons, or dicots.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. What sort of dormancy breaking is exhibited by the seeds of equatorial plants?

    A. Cold exposure
    B. Exposure to longer day length
    C. Exposure to shorter day length
    D. No dormancy
    E. Heat exposure
    D. No dormancy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Which of the following is required for germination in all seeds?

    A. Exposure to light
    B. Exposure to cold
    C. Water
    D. Passage through an animal digestive system
    E. Exposure to fire
    C. Water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Which of the following is not true of grafting?

    A. It involves splicing a stem onto a root.
    B. It just requires sticking a broken stem in the soil.
    C. It is a form of asexual reproduction.
    D. It is used to reproduce apples.
    E. It was used to save French vineyards in the 1800s.
    B. It just requires sticking a broken stem in the soil.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. The good feature of triploid plants is that they

    A. Make seedless fruit
    B. Grow with less water
    C. Grow bigger
    D. Cannot reproduce asexually
    E. Are sterile
    A. Make seedless fruit

    Triploid plants are whose three sets of chromosomes prevent meiosis from taking place and thus the plants cannot produce fertile gametes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. Which plant hormone is naturally a gas?

    A. Abscisic acid
    B. Cytokinin
    C. Ethylene
    D. Auxin
    E. Gibberellin
    C. Ethylene
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. Exposure to a specific hormone results in a plant that is very tall and spindly. The hormone is likely

    A. Gibberellin
    B. Cytokinin
    C. Abscisic acid
    D. Ethylene
    E. Auxin
    A. Gibberellin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Which of the following is not true of auxin?

    A. It is made in shoot apical meristems.
    B. It is found in all plant tissues.
    C. It has a unique pattern of movement across short distances.
    D. It is evenly distributed throughout plants.
    E. It influences the levels of other plant hormones.
    D. It is evenly distributed throughout plants.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Phototropism is caused by

    A. Auxin moving to the light side of the plant
    B. Increased gibberellins on the light side of the plant
    C. Auxin moving to the dark side of the plant
    D. Light degrading the auxin on the light side of the plant
    E. Increased gibberellins on the dark side of the plant
    C. Auxin moving to the dark side of the plant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Statoliths aid in the detection of

    A. Touch
    B. Heat
    C. Water
    D. Light
    E. Gravity
    E. Gravity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Which of the following statements is not true?

    A. Cryptochromes absorb blue light.
    B. Phytochromes absorb red light.
    C. Phytochrome is deactivated by exposure to 730 nm light.
    D. Cryptochromes and phytochromes are the only circadian pigments.
    E. Phytochrome is active during red light exposure.
    D. Cryptochromes and phytochromes are the only circadian pigments.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Vernalization means that plants will only flower if they are exposed to

    A. Prolonged periods of cold
    B. Periods of short days
    C. Periods of short nights
    D. Periods of long nights
    E. Periods of long days
    A. Prolonged periods of cold
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Scientists suspect that colony collapse disorder is caused by which natural factor?

    A. All these contribute.
    B. A parasitic fungus.
    C. Invertebrate iridescent virus.
    D. Environmental stresses.
    E. Israeli acute paralytic virus.
    A. All these contribute.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. What human factor may be partly responsible for CCD?

    A. Habitat depletion
    B. Herbicides
    C. Pesticides
    D. Ozone depletion
    E. Lack of food
    C. Pesticides

    Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD) is a phenomenon in which worker bees from a beehive or European honey bee colony abruptly disappear.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. The arrival of pollen grains on a receptive stigma is called ____.
    pollination
  121. A pollinator may receive ____ when it visits a flower of a coevolved plant (choose all that apply).

    a. pollen
    b. nectar
    c. pesticides
    d. fruit
    • a. pollen
    • b. nectar
    • c. pesticides
  122. The ____ of a flower contains one or more ovaries in which eggs develop, fertilization occurs, and seeds mature.
    carpel
  123. In plants, the structures that produce male gametophytes are called ____; those that produce female gametophytes are called ____.

    A. megaspores; microspores
    B. pollen grains; flowers
    C. anthers; stigma
    D. stamens; carpels
    D. stamens; carpels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. Seeds are mature ____; fruits are mature ____.

    A. ovaries; ovules
    B. ovules; ovaries
    C. stamens; ovaries
    D. ovules; stamens
    B. ovules; ovaries
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Cotyledons develop as part of ____.

    A. embryo sporophytes
    B. carpels
    C. accessory fruits
    D. flowers
    A. embryo sporophytes

    A cotyledon is a significant part of the embryo within the seed of a plant.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. In some species, exposure to ____ is a trigger for seed germination.

    A. smoke
    B. cold
    C. light
    D. all can be triggers
    D. all can be triggers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. The three main parts of a mature eudicot seed are the ____.

    A. embryo, endosperm, and seed
    B. coat megaspores, microspores, and ovule
    C. pollen grain, egg, and seed coat
    D. embryo, cotyledons, and seed coat
    D. embryo, cotyledons, and seed coat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. A new plant forms from a stem that broke off of the parent plant and fell to the ground. This is an example of ____.

    A. asexual reproduction
    B. nodal cloning
    C. tissue culture propagation
    D. exocytosis
    A. asexual reproduction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. Banana plants produce seedless fruit because they are ____.

    A. monocots
    B. propagated by grafting
    C. treated with colchicine
    D. triploid
    D. triploid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. Plant hormones ____.

    A. all of these
    B. are active in developing plant embryos
    C. often have multiple, overlapping effects
    D. are active in adult plants
    A. all of these
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. In some plants, flowering is a response.

    A. gravitropic
    B. phototropic
    C. thigmotropic
    D. photoperiodic
    D. photoperiodic

    Photoperiodism is the physiological reaction of organisms to the length of day or night.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. Which of the following statements is false?
    A. Cytokinin promotes cell division in shoot tips.
    B. Abscisic acid promotes water loss and dormancy.
    C. Auxin and gibberellin promote stem elongation.
    D. Ethylene promotes fruit ripening and abscission.
    B. Abscisic acid promotes water loss and dormancy.

    ABA was originally believed to be involved in abscission.  This is now known to be the case only in a small number of plants.

    ABA-mediated signalling also plays an important part in plant responses
    to environmental stress and plant pathogens.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. Blue light
    Phototropism
  134. Gravity
    Gravitropism
  135. Mechanical stimulation
    Thigmotropism
  136. Night length
    Photoperiodism
  137. A long period of cold
    Vernalization
  138. The last of your apples is getting really mushy.
    Ethylene
  139. Lateral buds are sprouting.
    Cytokinin
  140. The potted plant in your room is leaning toward the window.
    Auxin
  141. Your cabbage plants bolt (they form elongated flowering stalks).
    Gibberellin
  142. The seeds of your roommate's marijuana plant do not germinate no matter what he does to them.
    Abscisic acid

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