Genetics

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Author:
Dienekes
ID:
270720
Filename:
Genetics
Updated:
2014-04-19 16:58:06
Tags:
Genetics
Folders:
Biology
Description:
DNA is a very stable, passive molecule made of long strands of nucleotides, and the order of those nucleotides contains genetic information. The DNA sequence serves as a template for transcribing RNA with a complementary sequence and the RNA copy can then be translated by ribosomes that produce amino acid chains dictated by the RNA sequence. What proteins a cell produces, and thus what functions a cell engages in, depends largely on which of the many genes in the cell’s DNA are transcribed and translated.
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  1. Chromosome number ____.

    A. refers to a particular chromosome pair in a cell
    B. is the number of autosomes in cells of a given type
    C. is an identifiable feature of a species
    C. is an identifiable feature of a species
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Human body cells are diploid, which means ___.

    A. they are complete
    B. they have two sets of chromosomes
    C. their DNA is in a double helix
    D. they have autosomes
    B. they have two sets of chromosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The ___ is genetic information.

    A. chromosome number
    B. double helix
    C. sequence of DNA
    D. karyotype
    C. sequence of DNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. One species' DNA differs from others in its ___.

    A. sugar–phosphate backbone
    B. all of these
    C. nucleotides
    D. DNA sequence
    D. DNA sequence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. When DNA replication begins, .

    A. the two DNA strands unwind from each other
    B. the two DNA strands condense for base transfers
    C. old strands move to find new strands
    A. the two DNA strands unwind from each other
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. DNA replication requires ___.

    A. template DNA
    B. nucleotides
    C. all of these
    D. primers
    C. all of these
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. All mutations ___.

    A. lead to evolution
    B. are caused by radiation
    C. change the DNA sequence
    D. cause cancer
    C. change the DNA sequence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Exposure to ___ can lead to mutations.

    A. cigarette smoke
    B. all of these
    C. x-rays
    D. UV light
    B. all of these
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. ___ is an example of reproductive cloning.

    A. SCNT and artificial embryo splitting
    B. Multiple offspring from the same pregnancy
    C. all of these
    D. Artificial embryo splitting
    E. Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)
    A. SCNT and artificial embryo splitting

    In genetics and developmental biology, somatic-cell nuclear transfer is a laboratory technique for creating a clone embryo with a
    donor somatic nucleus.

    Artificial embryo splitting or embryo twinning, a
    technique that creates monozygotic twins from a single embryo, is not considered in the same fashion as other methods of cloning. During that procedure, an donor embryo is split in two distinct embryos, that can then be transferred via embryo transfer.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Monomer of DNA
    Nucleotide

    Nucleotides are organic molecules that serve as the monomers, or subunits, of nucleic acids like DNA and RNA.
  11. Copy of an organism
    Clone
  12. Chromosome that does not determine sex in humans
    Autosome

    An autosome is a chromosome that is not an allosome (i.e., not a sex chromosome).

    Autosomes appear in pairs whose members have the same form but differ from other pairs in a diploid cell, whereas members of an allosome pair may differ from one another and thereby determine sex.
  13. Replication enzyme
    DNA polymerase

    A DNA polymerase is a cellular or viral enzyme that synthesizes DNA molecules from their nucleotide building blocks, distinguished from RNA polymerase and other polymerases.
  14. Can cause cancer
    Mutation
  15. One old, one new
    Semiconservative replication describes the mechanism by which DNA is replicated in all known cells. This mechanism of replication was one of three models originally proposed for DNA replication:

    Semiconservative replication would produce two copies that each contained one of the original strands and one new strand.

    Conservative replication would leave the two original template DNA strands together in a double helix and would produce a copy composed of two new strands containing all of the new DNA base pairs.

    Dispersive replication would produce two copies of the DNA, both containing distinct regions of DNA composed of either both original strands or both new strands.
  16. What percentage of cloned implanted embryos will result in a live birth?

    A. 50%
    B. Less than 2%
    C. 25%
    D. 100%
    E. 10%
    B. Less than 2%

    Typically, less than 2 percent of the implanted embryos result in a live
    birth. Of the clones that survive, many have serious health problems.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following is not a goal of cloning?

    A. Saving extinct animals.
    B. Generation of replacement tissues.
    C. Commercial cloning of valuable livestock.
    D. Generation of replacement organs.
    E. All these are goals of cloning.
    E. All these are goals of cloning.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. A chromosome consists of

    A. DNA and proteins
    B. DNA, proteins, and lipids
    C. Protein
    D. DNA
    E. Lipids
    A. DNA and proteins

    Stretched out end to end, the DNA in a single human cell would be about 2 meters (6.5 feet) long. How can that much DNA pack into a nucleus that is less than 10 micrometers in diameter? Such tight packing is possible because proteins associate with the DNA and help keep it organized.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Human body cells have

    A. 10 chromosomes
    B. 46 chromosomes
    C. 1 chromosome
    D. 23 chromosomes
    E. A variable number of chromosomes
    B. 46 chromosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Chromosomes in a karyotype are arranged by

    A. All of these
    B. Centromere position
    C. Size
    D. Shape
    E. Length
    A. All of these
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. In which of the following organisms would a karyotype not be valuable for revealing the sex of the individual?

    A. Butterflies
    B. Turtles
    C. Birds
    D. Fruit flies
    E. Mammals
    B. Turtles

    A karyotype is the number and appearance of chromosomes in the
    nucleus of a eukaryotic cell. The term is also used for the complete set
    of chromosomes in a species, or an individual organism.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which of the following is not a nucleotide in DNA?

    A. Adenine
    B. Cytosine
    C. Quinine
    D. Thymine
    E. Guanine
    C. Quinine

    Quinine is a natural white crystalline alkaloid having antipyretic (fever-reducing), antimalarial, analgesic (painkilling), and anti-inflammatory properties and a bitter taste.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Which of the following people discovered the helical structure of DNA?

    A. Francis Crick
    B. Rosalind Franklin
    C. James Watson
    D. Maurice Wilkins
    E. Erwin Chargaff
    B. Rosalind Franklin

    Rosalind Franklin was a British biophysicist and X-ray crystallographer who made critical contributions to the understanding of
    the fine molecular structures of DNA, RNA, viruses, coal, and graphite.

    Erwin Chargaff discovered two rules on the
    basis of which we were able to figure out that the DNA had a double helical structure. The first rule was that the DNA.

    Francis Harry Compton Crick, OM, FRS was an English molecular biologist, biophysicist, and neuroscientist, most noted for being a
    co-discoverer of the structure of the DNA molecule in 1953 with James
    Watson.

    Maurice Wilkins CBE FRS was an English physicist and molecular biologist, and Nobel Laureate whose research contributed to the scientific understanding of phosphorescence, isotope separation, optical microscopy and X-ray diffraction, and to the development of radar.

    James Dewey Watson, is an American molecular biologist, geneticist and zoologist, best known as a co-discoverer of
    the structure of DNA in 1953 with Francis Crick.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The DNA double helix was revealed to the world in

    A. 1967
    B. 1857
    C. 1972
    D. 1953
    E. 1927
    D. 1953
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. A strand of DNA is AACCTTGG. Its complementary strand would be

    A. GTCA
    B. TTGGAACC
    C. It cannot be determined.
    D. AACCTTGG
    E. ACTG
    B. TTGGAACC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. In eukaryotes, DNA replication occurs in the

    A. Ribosomes
    B. Nucleus
    C. Cytoplasm
    D. Plasma membrane
    E. Mitochondria
    B. Nucleus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. DNA replication is described as

    A. Non-conservative
    B. Anti-conservative
    C. Conservative
    D. Random
    E. Semi-conservative
    E. Semi-conservative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. How fast can bacteria replicate DNA?

    A. 50 nucleotides per second
    B. 1000 nucleotides per second
    C. 10 nucleotides per second
    D. 100 nucleotides per second
    E. 1 nucleotide per second
    B. 1000 nucleotides per second
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Which wavelength of light can induce a covalent dimer between neighboring thymine and cytosine in DNA?

    A. 310 nm
    B. 350 nm
    C. 400 nm
    D. 280 nm
    E. 700 nm
    B. 350 nm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. The enzyme that produces a complementary strand of DNA is called

    A. DNA helicase
    B. DNA ligase
    C. DNA copyase
    D. DNA replicase
    E. DNA polymerase
    E. DNA polymerase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following is not true of reproductive cloning?

    A. It occurs naturally.
    B. It can be done in the lab.
    C. All these are true.
    D. It occurs only in sporulation.
    E. It produces twins.
    D. It occurs only in sporulation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Somatic cell nuclear transfer can produce clones from an animal that is

    A. Castrated
    B. None of these
    C. Dead
    D. Reproductive
    E. All of these
    E. All of these
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) uses DNA from a(an)

    A. Egg
    B. Gamete
    C. Sperm
    D. Adult cell
    E. Zygote
    D. Adult cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Clones never

    A. Have heart problems.
    B. Are overweight.
    C. Lack an anus.
    D. All these commonly afflict clones.
    E. Die prematurely.
    D. All these commonly afflict clones.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which of the following have not been cloned?

    A. Wolves
    B. Goats
    C. Monkeys
    D. Camels
    E. Humans
    E. Humans
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. DNA replication enzyme; uses a DNA template to assemble a complementary strand of DNA.
    DNA polymerase
  37. One of two attached members of a duplicated eukaryotic chromosome.
    Sister chromatids
  38. Technology that produces genetically identical individuals.
    Reproductive cloning
  39. Having two of each type of chromosome characteristic of the species (2n).
    Diploid
  40. Of a duplicated eukaryotic chromosome, constricted region where sister chromatids attach to each other.
    Centromere
  41. Member of a pair of chromosomes that differs between males and females.
    Sex chromosomes
  42. Any chromosome other than a sex chromosome.
    Autosomes
  43. Short, single strand of DNA or RNA that base-pairs with a targeted DNA sequence.
    Primer
  44. Type of protein that structurally organizes eukaryotic chromosomes.
    Histones
  45. The order of nucleotides in a strand of DNA.
    DNA sequence
  46. Process by which cells become specialized during development; occurs as different
    cells in an embryo begin to use different subsets of their DNA.
    Differentiation
  47. Genetically identical copy of an organism.
    Clones
  48. A structure that consists of DNA and associated proteins; carries part or all of a cell's genetic information.
    Chromosomes
  49. Permanent change in DNA sequence.
    Mutation
  50. Energy-requiring process by which a cell duplicates its DNA before it divides.
    DNA replication
  51. The sum of all chromosomes in a cell of a given species.
    Chromosome number
  52. Describes the process of DNA replication, which produces two copies of a DNA molecule: one strand of each copy is new, and the other is a strand of the
    original DNA.
    Semiconservative replication
  53. Reproductive cloning method in which the DNA from a body cell is transferred into an unfertilized egg.
    Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)
  54. Image of an individual's complement of chromosomes arranged by size, length, shape, and centromere location.
    Karyotype
  55. A chromosome contains many genes that are transcribed into different ___.

    A. proteins
    B. proteins and polypeptides
    C. RNAs
    D. polypeptides
    C. RNAs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. RNAs form by ___; proteins form by ___.

    A. transcription; translation
    B. replication; transcription
    C. translation; transcription
    D. replication; translation
    A. transcription; translation

    Transcription is the first step of gene expression, in which a particular segment of DNA is copied into RNA by the enzyme RNA polymerase.

    Translation is the process in which cellular ribosomes create proteins. It is part of the process of gene expression.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The main function of a DNA molecule is to ___.

    A. store heritable information
    B. carry DNA's genetic message for translation
    C. carry amino acids to ribosomes
    D. form peptide bonds between amino acids
    A. store heritable information
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. The main function of an mRNA molecule is to ___.

    store heritable information
    carry DNA's genetic message for translation
    form peptide bonds between amino
    acids carry amino acids to ribosomes
    carry DNA's genetic message for translation
  59. Where does transcription take place in a eukaryotic cell?

    A. cytoplasm
    B. ribosome and cytoplasm
    C. nucleus
    D. ribosome
    C. nucleus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Translation takes place in the ___ of all cells.

    A. plasma membrane
    B. nucleus and cytoplasm
    C. cytoplasm
    D. nucleus
    C. cytoplasm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Up to how many amino acids can be encoded by a gene that consists of 45 nucleotides plus a stop codon?
    15
  62. Most codons specify a(n) ___.

    A. amino acid
    B. mRNA
    C. protein
    D. polypeptide
    A. amino acid

    The genetic code is traditionally represented as a RNA codon table due to the biochemical nature of the protein translation
    process. However, with the rise of computational biology and genomics,
    proteins have become increasingly studied at a genomic level. As a result, the practice of representing the genetic code as a DNA codon table has become more popular.

    A series of codons in part of a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule. Each codon consists of three nucleotides, usually representing a single amino acid.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. ___ are mutations.

    A. Base-pair,  substitutions, Insertions and Deletions
    B. all of these
    C. Insertions
    D. Base-pair substitutions
    E. Transposable elements
    F. Deletions
    A. Base-pair,  substitutions, Insertions and Deletions

    A transposable element is a DNA sequence that can change its position within the genome, sometimes creating or reversing mutations and altering the cell's genome size.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Homeotic gene products ___.

    a. map out the overall body plan in embryos
    b. control the formation of specific body parts
    b. control the formation of specific body parts

    Homeotic genes cause the development of specific structures in plants and animals.
  65. A gene that is knocked out is ___.

    A. expressed
    B. inactivated
    C. either deleted or expressed
    D. deleted
    C. either deleted or expressed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Which of the following includes all of the others?

    A. PAX6
    B. master genes
    C. homeotic genes
    D. SRY gene
    B. master genes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. A cell with a Barr body is ___.

    A. prokaryotic
    B. from a female mammal
    C. a sex cell
    D. infected by Barr virus
    B. from a female mammal

    A Barr body is the inactive X chromosome in a female somatic cell, rendered inactive in a process called lyonization, in those species in
    which sex is determined by the presence of the Y or W chromosome rather than the diploidy of the X or Z.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. True or false? Some gene expression patterns are heritable.
    True.
  69. May cause epigenetic effects
    Methylation
  70. Linear order of nucleotides
    DNA sequence
  71. Assembles amino acids
    Ribosome
  72. Translated to protein
    mRNA
  73. Set of 64 codons
    Genetic code
  74. Cells become specialized
    Differentiation
  75. Gets around
    Transposable element
  76. Put the following processes in order of their occurrence during expression of a eukaryotic gene:

    mRNA processing
    translation
    transcription
    RNA leaves nucleus
    • Translation
    • RNA leaves nucleus
    • mRNA processing
    • Transcription
  77. An experiment in which a gene is deliberately inactivated in a living organism.
    Knockout
  78. Mutation in which one or more nucleotides become inserted into DNA.
    Insertion
  79. Nucleotide sequence that remains in an RNA after post-transcriptional modification.
    Exons
  80. Inactivated X chromosome in a cell of a female mammal. The other X chromosome is active.
    Barr body
  81. Enzyme that carries out transcription.
    RNA polymerase
  82. Nucleotide sequence that intervenes between exons and is excised during post-transcriptional modification.
    Introns
  83. In DNA, a sequence to which RNA polymerase binds.
    Promoter
  84. Protein that influences transcription by binding to DNA.
    Transcription factors
  85. DNA sequence that encodes an RNA or protein product.
    Gene
  86. Type of RNA that has a protein-building message.
    Messenger RNA (mRNA)
  87. Mutation in which one or more nucleotides are lost.
    Deletion
  88. Refers to DNA modifications such as methylation that do not involve a change in DNA sequence.
    Epigenetic
  89. Set of three nucleotides in a tRNA; base-pairs with mRNA codon.
    Anticodon
  90. Mutation in which a single base pair changes.
    Base-pair substitution
  91. Complete set of sixty-four mRNA codons.
    Genetic code
  92. Type of RNA that becomes part of ribosomes.
    Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
  93. Type of RNA that delivers amino acids to a ribosome during translation.
    Transfer RNA (tRNA)
  94. Process by which enzymes assemble an RNA using the nucleotide sequence of a gene as a template.
    Transcription
  95. Process by which the information in a gene guides assembly of an RNA or protein product.
    Gene expression
  96. Process by which a polypeptide chain is assembled from amino acids in the order specified by an mRNA.
    Translation
  97. Gene encoding a product that affects the expression of many other genes.
    Master genes
  98. In mRNA, a nucleotide triplet that codes for an amino acid or stop signal during translation.
    Codon
  99. Ricin is not

    A. Counteracted by any antidote
    B. Toxic to beetles
    C. Toxic to birds
    D. Found in castor-oil seeds
    E. Toxic to humans
    A. Counteracted by any antidote

    Ricin is a highly toxic, naturally occurring lectin produced in the seeds of the castor oil plant Ricinus communis. A dose the size of a few grains of table salt can kill an adult human.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Ricin is toxic to cells because it

    A. Denatures enzymes
    B. Ruptures the cell membrane
    C. Damages ribosomes
    D. Mutates the DNA
    E. Ruptures lysosomes
    C. Damages ribosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. The RNA destined to be translated into amino acids, a protein, is

    A. mRNA
    B. tRNA
    C. rRNA
    D. zRNA
    E. qRNA
    A. mRNA

    mRNA - Messenger RNA is a large family of RNA molecules that convey genetic information from DNA to the ribosome, where they specify the amino acid sequence of the protein products of gene expression.


    tRNA - A Transfer RNA is an adaptor molecule composed of RNA, typically 73 to 94 nucleotides in length, that serves as the physical link between the nucleotide sequence of nucleic acids and the amino acid sequence of proteins.

    rRNA - ribosomal ribonucleic acid is the RNA component of the ribosome, and is essential for protein synthesis in all living organisms.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Which sequence is correct?

    A. Protein → DNA → RNA
    B. DNA → protein → RNA
    C. DNA → RNA → protein
    D. Protein → RNA → DNA
    E. RNA → DNA → protein
    C. DNA → RNA → protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Which of the following is found in RNA but not DNA?

    A. Guanine
    B. Uracil
    C. Adenine
    D. Cytosine
    E. Thymine
    B. Uracil

    Uracil is one of the four nucleobases in the nucleic acid of RNA that are represented by the letters A, G, C and U. The others are adenine, cytosine, and guanine. In RNA, uracil binds to adenine via two hydrogen bonds.

    Thymine is one of the four nucleobases in the nucleic acid of DNA that are represented by the letters G–C–A–T. The others are adenine, guanine, and cytosine. Thymine is also known as 5-methyluracil, a pyrimidine nucleobase.

    Cytosine is one of the four main bases found in DNA and RNA, along with adenine, guanine, and thymine.

    Guanine is one of the four main nucleobases found in the nucleic acids DNA and RNA, the others being adenine, cytosine, and thymine. In DNA, guanine is paired with cytosine.

    Adenine is a nucleobase (a purine derivative) with a variety of roles in biochemistry including cellular respiration, in the form of both the energy-rich adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and the cofactors nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD), and protein synthesis, as a chemical component of DNA and RNA. The shape of adenine is complementary to either thymine in DNA or uracil in RNA.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. RNA polymerase would produce what complement based on the DNA sequence AATTCCGG?

    A. AAUUCCGG
    B. TTAAGGCC
    C. AATTCCGG
    D. None of these
    E. UUAAGGCC
    E. UUAAGGCC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Which of the following is present in the newly transcribed RNA but not in the finished RNA?

    A. Protein
    B. Introns
    C. DNA
    D. Exons
    E. Poly-A tail
    B. Introns

    An intron is any nucleotide sequence within a gene that is removed by RNA splicing while the final mature RNA product of a gene is being generated.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Which of the following mRNA codon is for leucine?

    A. CUG
    B. CUA
    C. CUC
    D. CUU
    E. All of these
    E. All of these
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Which of the following would stop translation?

    A. UUU
    B. UGU
    C. AGU
    D. UCA
    E. UGA
    E. UGA

    In the genetic code, a stop codon (or termination codon) is a nucleotide triplet within messenger RNA that signals a termination of translation. Proteins are based on polypeptides, which are unique sequences of amino acids. Most codons in messenger RNA (from DNA) correspond to the addition of an amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain, which may ultimately become a protein.  Stop codons signal the termination of this process by binding release factors, which cause the ribosomal subunits to disassociate, releasing the amino acid chain.

    Translation ends when a stop codon is reached. In the standard genetic code, there are several stop codons:

    in RNA:
    UAG ("amber")
    UAA ("ochre")
    UGA ("opal")

    in DNA:
    TAG ("amber")
    TAA ("ochre")
    TGA ("opal" or "umber")
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Mitochondria and chloroplasts use a slightly modified version of the genetic code that most closely resembles

    A. Bacteria
    B. Plants
    C. None of these
    D. Animals
    E. Fungi
    A. Bacteria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. The most accurate term used to describe the joining of two amino acids in a polypeptide chain is

    A. Hydrogen bond
    B. Ionic bond
    C. None of these
    D. Peptide bond
    E. Covalent bond
    D. Peptide bond

    A peptide bond (amide bond) is a covalent chemical bond formed between two molecules when the carboxyl group of one molecule reacts with the amino group of the other molecule, causing the release of a molecule of water (H2O), hence the process is a dehydration synthesis reaction (also known as a condensation reaction), and usually occurs between amino acids.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. What is the first step in translation?

    A. The first two amino acids are connected.
    B. mRNA exits the nucleus.
    C. mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit.
    D. Initiator tRNA binds to mRNA.
    E. mRNA is made.
    C. mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. How many codons are within the ribosomal complex at any one time?

    A. 1
    B. 4
    C. 2
    D. 0
    E. 3
    C. 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. Which of the following mutations would have the least impact on a protein?

    A. All will equally impact the protein.
    B. Base-pair substitution.
    C. Deletion.
    D. Both insertions and deletions have the least impact.
    E. Insertion.
    B. Base-pair substitution.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Which of the following is not true of human hemoglobin?

    A. All these are true.
    B. Defects in hemoglobin may result in anemia.
    C. It consists of four polypeptide chains.
    D. It is able to bind oxygen.
    E. It contains iron atoms.
    A. All these are true.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which of the followings statements pertaining to sickle-cell anemia is not true?

    A. It impacts the beta globin peptide.
    B. It is most common in people of African ancestry.
    C. It is the result of a frameshift.
    D. It causes the hemoglobin molecules to clump.
    E. It can alter red blood cell shape.
    C. It is the result of a frameshift.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Which of the following does not impact gene expression?

    A. Preventing enzyme delivery.
    B. Stopping transcription.
    C. All these may impact gene expression.
    D. Inhibiting enzyme activity.
    E. Stopping translation.
    C. All these may impact gene expression.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Which of the following statements about epigenetics is not true?

    A. Impacts may be sex specific.
    B. Direct methylation of nucleotides may be a factor.
    C. Changes may be acquired during an individual's lifetime.
    D. Histone affinity for DNA may be a factor.
    E. They are the result of a change in nucleotide sequence.
    B. Direct methylation of nucleotides may be a factor.

    Epigenetics is the study of heritable changes in gene activity that are not caused by changes in the DNA sequence; it also can be used to describe the study of stable, long-term alterations in the transcriptional potential of a cell that are not necessarily heritable.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Which of the following is not a source of ribosome inactivating proteins (RIPs)?

    A. Castor-oil seeds.
    B. All these have ribosome-inactivating proteins.
    C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
    D. Shigella dysenteriae.
    E. Escherichia coli.
    C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. How rapidly can ricin inactivate ribosomes?

    A. One ricin can inactive one ribosome.
    B. One ricin can inactivate 10 ribosomes per minute.
    C. One ricin can inactivate 1000 ribosomes per minute.
    D. One ricin can inactivate 100 ribosomes per minute.
    E. One ricin can inactive one ribosome per minute.
    C. One ricin can inactivate 1000 ribosomes per minute.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. In a eukaryotic cell cycle, the interval between mitotic divisions when a cell grows, roughly doubles the number of its cytoplasmic components, and replicates its DNA.
    Interphase
  120. A neoplasm that forms a lump.
    Tumor
  121. Process in which homologous chromosomes exchange corresponding segments during meiosis.
    Crossing over
  122. Nuclear division process that halves the chromosome number. Basis of sexual reproduction.
    Meiosis
  123. The process in which cancer cells spread from one part of the body to another.
    Metastasis
  124. Having one of each type of chromosome characteristic of the species.
    Haploid
  125. Stage of mitosis during which chromosomes condense and become attached to a newly forming spindle.
    Prophase
  126. In a dividing animal cell, the indentation where cytoplasmic division will occur.
    Cleavage furrow
  127. Stage of mitosis at which all chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cell.
    Metaphase
  128. Reproductive mode by which offspring arise from a single parent only.
    Asexual reproduction
  129. Gene that helps transform a normal cell into a tumor cell.
    Oncogene
  130. Reproductive mode by which offspring arise from two parents and inherit genes from both.
    Sexual reproduction
  131. Stage of mitosis during which chromosomes arrive at opposite ends of the cell and decondense, and two new nuclei form.
    Telophase
  132. Disease that occurs when a malignant neoplasm physically and functionally disrupts body tissues.
    Cancer
  133. Male gamete.
    Sperm
  134. First cell of a new individual; forms by the fusion of two haploid gametes.
    Zygote
  135. Paired chromosomes with the same length, shape, and set of genes.
    Homologous chromosomes
  136. Forms of a gene with slightly different DNA sequences; may encode slightly different versions of the gene's product.
    Alleles
  137. Apparatus that moves chromosomes during nuclear division; consists of dynamically assembled and disassembled microtubules.
    Spindle
  138. An accumulation of abnormally dividing cells.
    Neoplasm
  139. Stage of mitosis during which sister chromatids separate and move toward opposite sides of the cell.
    Anaphase
  140. A series of events from the time a cell forms until its cytoplasm divides.
    Cell cycle
  141. Mature, haploid reproductive cell.
    Gametes
  142. Female gamete.
    Eggs
  143. Nuclear
    division mechanism that maintains the chromosome number. Basis of body
    growth, tissue repair and replacement in multicelled eukaryotes; also
    asexual reproduction in some plants, animals, fungi, and protists.
    Mitosis
  144. Stages of the cell cycle which include the time that the cell is in the process of dividing
    Mitosis
  145. Stages of the cell cycle which include the time that the cell is not actively dividing
    Interphase
  146. The G1 stage of Interphase is ___.

    A. the interval when the cell prepares to divide
    B. the time in which the cell copies its DNA
    C. when most of the cellular metabolic business occurs
    C. when most of the cellular metabolic business occurs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. The S stage of Interphase is ___.

    A. the interval when the cell prepares to divide
    B. the time in which the cell copies its DNA
    C. when most of the cellular metabolic business occurs
    B. the time in which the cell copies its DNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. The G2 stage of Interphase is ___.

    A. the interval when the cell prepares to divide
    B. the time in which the cell copies its DNA
    C. when most of the cellular metabolic business occurs
    A. the interval when the cell prepares to divide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. The G2 stage of Interphase is ___.

    A. the time after DNA replication and before the cell divides
    B. the time of DNA replication
    C. when the cell only has one set of chromosomes
    A. the time after DNA replication and before the cell divides
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. The G1 stage of Interphase is ___.

    A. when the cell only has one set of chromosomes
    B. the time after DNA replication and before the cell divides
    C. the time of DNA replication
    A. when the cell only has one set of chromosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. The S stage of Interphase is ___.

    A. the time of DNA replication
    B. when the cell only has one set of chromosomes
    C. the time after DNA replication and before the cell divides
    A. the time of DNA replication
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. The S stage of Interphase is ___.

    A. when the cell copies its DNA in order to have two full sets of chromosomes
    B. the interval of cell growth before DNA replication
    C. when the cell has two complete sets of chromosomes and is preparing to divide
    A. when the cell copies its DNA in order to have two full sets of chromosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. The G1 stage of Interphase is ___.

    A. the interval of cell growth before DNA replication
    B. when the cell copies its DNA in order to have two full sets of chromosomes
    C. when the cell has two complete sets of chromosomes and is preparing to divide
    A. the interval of cell growth before DNA replication
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. The G2 stage of Interphase is ___.

    A. when the cell has two complete sets of chromosomes and is preparing to divide
    B. the interval of cell growth before DNA replication
    C. when the cell copies its DNA in order to have two full sets of chromosomes
    A. when the cell has two complete sets of chromosomes and is preparing to divide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. In humans there are ___ total individual chromosomes, but there are ___ pairs of homologous chromosomes.
    46; 23

    Homologous: having the same relation, relative position, or structure, in particular.

    Chromosomes that are the same size and shape are the homologous pairs.
  156. A fruit fly has 8 total chromosomes.  Therefore, they have ___ homologous chromosomes pairs and, when a cell has duplicated its DNA and mitosis begins, has ___ sister chromatids.
    4; 16
  157. Mnumonic device to help remember the order of the stages of mitosis
    "Puppies Pee on the MAT" (Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase)
  158. Which of the following factors might cause checkpoint genes to interrupt cell division?

    A. All of these can be factors
    B. There are not enough nutrients to support cell division.
    C. The cell's DAN has been damaged somehow.
    D. The cell's DNA was replicated incorrectly.
    A. All of these can be factors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. An abnormal mass of tissue arising from an abnormal proliferation of cells.
    Neoplasm
  160. A doctor who specializes in the study and treatment of cancer
    Oncologist
  161. Symbol for diploid cells
    2n
  162. Symbol for haploid cells
    n
  163. Crossing over is an event that occurs during ___.

    A. prophase I of meosis
    B. the prophases of both mitosis and meiosis
    C. prophase of mitosis
    A. prophase I of meosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. Mitosis and cytoplasmic division function in ___.

    A. both asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes and growth and tissue repair in multicelled species
    B. asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes
    C. gamete formation in bacteria and archaea
    D. sexual reproduction in plants and animals
    E. growth and tissue repair in multicelled species
    A. both asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes and growth and tissue repair in multicelled species
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. A cell with two of each type of chromosome has a(n) chromosome number.

    A. abnormal
    B. diploid
    C. haploid
    D. tetraploid
    B. diploid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. How many chromatids does a duplicated chromosome have?

    A. one
    B. three
    C. four
    D. two
    D. two
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. Except for a pairing of sex chromosomes, homologous chromosomes ___.

    A. carry the same genes
    B. all of these
    C. are the same shape
    D. are the same length
    B. all of these
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. Interphase is the part of the cell cycle when ___.

    A. a cell forms its spindle apparatus
    B. mitosis proceeds
    C. a cell grows and duplicates its DNA
    D. a cell ceases to function
    C. a cell grows and duplicates its DNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. After mitosis, the chromosome number of the two new cells is ___ the parent cell's.

    A. doubled compared to
    B. the same as
    C. one-half of
    D. rearranged compared to
    B. the same as
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. Only is not a stage of mitosis.

    A. interphase
    B. anaphase
    C. metaphase
    D. prophase
    A. interphase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. The main evolutionary advantage of sexual over asexual reproduction is that it produces ___.

    A. more variation among offspring
    B. healthier offspring
    C. more offspring per individual
    A. more variation among offspring
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. Alternative forms of the same gene are ___.

    A. oncogenes
    B. gametes
    C. alleles
    D. homologous
    C. alleles

    A gamete is a cell that fuses with another cell during fertilization (conception) in organisms that reproduce sexually.

    Homologous is having the same relation, relative position, or structure, in particular.

    Oncogenes are genes that, in certain circumstances, can transform a cell into a tumor cell.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. Meiosis functions in ___.

    A. both asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes and growth and tissue repair in multicelled species
    B. sexual reproduction in plants and animals
    C. gamete formation in bacteria and archaea
    D. asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes
    E. growth and tissue repair in multicelled species
    B. sexual reproduction in plants and animals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. Crossing over mixes up ___.

    A. alleles
    B. chromosomes
    C. zygotes
    D. gametes
    A. alleles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. Sexual reproduction in animals requires ___.

    A. fertilization
    B. meiosis
    C. spore formation
    D. meiosis and fertilization
    D. meiosis and fertilization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. Chart showing the pattern of inheritance of a trait in a family.
    Pedigrees
  177. A chromosome abnormality in which there are too many or too few copies of a particular chromosome.
    Aneuploidy
  178. Having three or more of each type of chromosome characteristic of the species.
    Polyploid
  179. An individual's observable traits.
    Phenotype
  180. Cross between two individuals identically heterozygous for one gene; for example Aa × Aa.
    Monohybrid cross
  181. The particular set of alleles that is carried by an individual's chromosomes.
    Genotype
  182. Refers to an allele with an effect that is masked by a dominant allele in heterozygous individuals.
    Recessive
  183. Refers to a gene whose product influences multiple traits.
    Pleiotropic
  184. Effect in which two alleles are both fully expressed in heterozygous individuals and neither is dominant over the other.
    Codominance
  185. Diagram used to predict the genetic and phenotypic outcome of a cross.
    Punnett square
  186. Bell-shaped
    curve; typically results from graphing frequency versus distribution for a trait that varies continuously in a population.
    Bell curve
  187. Having identical alleles of a gene.
    Homozygous
  188. Polygenic inheritance, in which a trait is influenced by the products of multiple genes.
    Epistasis
  189. Cross between two individuals identically heterozygous for two genes; for example AaBb × AaBb.
    Dihybrid cross
  190. Refers to an allele that masks the effect of a recessive allele in heterozygous individuals.
    Dominant
  191. Effect in which one allele is not fully dominant over another, so the heterozygous phenotype is between the two homozygous phenotypes.
    Incomplete dominance
  192. Having two different alleles of a gene.
    Heterozygous
  193. Failure of chromosomes to separate properly during nuclear division.
    Nondisjunction
  194. A range of small differences in a shared trait.
    Continuous variation
  195. CFTR is a gene that encodes a protein responsible for transporting ________ out of cells.

    A. Sodium
    B. Hydrogen
    C. Potassium
    D. Calcium
    E. Chloride
    E. Chloride
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. Cystic fibrosis is caused by

    A. A bacterium
    B. A gene mutation
    C. An unknown cause
    D. A virus
    E. High cholesterol
    B. A gene mutation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. If an organism has two alleles at a specific gene, and only the one for tall height is expressed, which of the following statements is false?

    A. The phenotype is being expressed.
    B. The organism is heterozygous.
    C. All these are true.
    D. The tall allele is recessive.
    E. The genotype is established.
    D. The tall allele is recessive.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. Using modern terms, Mendel was not responsible for discovering

    A. DNA
    B. Alleles
    C. Genes
    D. Dominance
    E. Heterozygosity
    A. DNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. Two heterozygous parents are crossed. What percentage of their offspring will express the recessive trait? (Hint: Use a Punnett square.)

    A. 75%
    B. 0%
    C. 25%
    D. 100%
    E. 50%
    C. 25%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. In a dihybrid cross, an individual that is homozygous dominant for both alleles is crossed with an individual that is homozygous recessive for both alleles. What percentage of their offspring will express the recessive traits? (Hint: Use a Punnett square.)

    A. 50%
    B. 75%
    C. 0%
    D. 100%
    E. 25%
    C. 0%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. A red parent and white parent are crossed, and the offspring are pink. This is an example of

    A. Incomplete dominance
    B. Codominance
    C. Pleiotropy
    D. Epistasis
    E. None of these
    A. Incomplete dominance

    Incomplete dominance is a form of intermediate inheritance in which one allele for a specific trait is not completely dominant over the other allele.

    Epistasis is when the effect of one gene depends on the presence of one or more 'modifier genes' (genetic background).

    Pleiotropy occurs when one gene influences multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits, an example being phenylketonuria, which is a human disease that affects multiple systems but is caused by one gene defect.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. Human blood types reveal

    A. Incomplete dominance
    B. Dominance
    C. Epistasis
    D. Codominance
    E. Dominance and codominance
    E. Dominance and codominance

    Epistasis is when the effect of one gene depends on the presence of one or more 'modifier genes' (genetic background).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. Which of the following is not true of changes in DNA methylation?

    A. They are heritable.
    B. They may be permanent.
    C. They can be induced by environment.
    D. They represent a change in nucleotide sequence.
    E. They can alter phenotype.
    D. They represent a change in nucleotide sequence.

    DNA methylation is a biochemical process whereby a methyl group is added to the cytosine or adenine DNA nucleotides.

    A methyl group is an alkyl derived from methane, containing one carbon atom bonded to three hydrogen atoms — CH3.

    A phenotype is the composite of an organism's observable characteristics or traits, such as its morphology, development, biochemical or physiological properties, phenology, behavior, and products of behavior.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. Which of the following is most likely to result in continuous variation in phenotypic expression?

    A. None of these
    B. Multiple genes, each with only one allele for a given trait
    C. Multiple genes, each with multiple alleles for a given trait
    D. A single gene with multiple alleles for a given trait
    E. A single gene with only one allele for a given trait
    C. Multiple genes, each with multiple alleles for a given trait
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. In a pedigree, a solid circle would indicate a

    A. Male who is not affected
    B. Male who is affected
    C. Female who is not affected
    D. Marriage
    E. Female who is affected
    E. Female who is affected
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. Which of the following is a single-gene disorder?

    A. None of these
    B. Heart disease
    C. Diabetes
    D. Cancer
    E. Asthma
    A. None of these
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. A particular disorder is found to express more commonly in males than females. This suggests the disease is

    A. X-linked recessive
    B. None of these
    C. X-linked dominant
    D. Autosomal recessive
    E. Autosomal dominant
    A. X-linked recessive

    X-linked recessive inheritance is a mode of inheritance in which a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome causes the phenotype to be expressed in males and in females who are homozygous for the gene mutation.

    Autosomal recessive: A genetic condition that appears only in individuals who have received two copies of an autosomal gene, one copy from each parent.

    Autosomal dominant: a gene on one of the non-sex chromosomes that is always expressed, even if only one copy is present.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. In which of the following could a "carrier" not exist?

    A. Autosomal dominant and recessive
    B. Autosomal dominant
    C. Autosomal recessive
    D. X-linked recessive
    E. All of these
    B. Autosomal dominant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. A human is born not having two of a particular chromosome in a set. Which of these terms could not potentially describe this condition?

    A. Nondisjunction
    B. Trisomy
    C. Aneuploidy
    D. Polyploidy
    E. Monosomy
    D. Polyploidy

    Monosomy: the condition of having a diploid chromosome complement in which one (usually the X) chromosome lacks its homologous partner.

    Trisomy: a condition in which an extra copy of a chromosome is present in the cell nuclei, causing developmental abnormalities.

    Nondisjunction: the failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate normally during nuclear division, usually resulting in an abnormal distribution of chromosomes in the daughter nuclei.

    Polyploidy: the heritable condition of possessing more than two complete sets of chromosomes.

    Aneuploidy: a condition in which the chromosome number is not an exact multiple of the number characteristic of a particular species. An extra or missing chromosome is a common cause of genetic disorders including human birth defects.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  210. Which of the following is an autosomal aneuploidy?

    A. Down syndrome
    B. Klinefelter's syndrome
    C. Turner syndrome
    D. XXY syndrome
    E. XXX syndrome
    A. Down syndrome

    An autosome is a chromosome that is not an allosome (i.e., not a sex chromosome).

    Turner syndrome is a genetic condition in which a female does not have the usual pair of two X chromosomes.

    Trisomy 21 (formerly known as Down syndrome) is caused by an extra chromosome 21.

    Klinefelter syndrome (KS) (also known as XXY syndrome) is caused by the presence of two X and one Y chromosomes (47,XXY).

    Triple X syndrome, also called trisomy X or 47,XXX, is characterized by the presence of an additional X chromosome in each of a female's cells.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. Which of the following can only be done with in vitro fertilization?

    A. Preimplantation diagnosis
    B. Preconception genetic screening
    C. Prenatal genetic screening
    D. Amniocentesis
    E. Chorionic villi sampling (CVS)
    A. Preimplantation diagnosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. Which of the following is both most invasive and most dangerous?

    A. Preconception genetic screening
    B. Fetoscopy
    C. Amniocentesis
    D. Chorionic villi sampling (CVS)
    E. Prenatal genetic screening
    B. Fetoscopy

    CVS is a test made in early pregnancy to detect congenital abnormalities in the fetus. A tiny tissue sample is taken from the villi of the chorion, which forms the fetal part of the placenta.

    Preconception and prenatal genetic screening: Blood tests offered to pregnant women to screen whether they are at increased risk of carrying a baby with certain conditions, such as Down Syndrome or an open neural tube defect. This screening is optional.

    Fetoscopyis an endoscopic procedure during pregnancy to allow access to the fetus, the amniotic cavity, the umbilical cord, and the fetal side of the placenta. A small (3–4 mm) incision is made in the abdomen, and an endoscope is inserted through the abdominal wall and uterus into the amniotic cavity.

    Amniocentesis is the sampling of amniotic fluid using a hollow needle inserted into the uterus, to screen for developmental abnormalities in a fetus.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  213. Individuals who are heterozygous for the cystic fibrosis (CF) gene defect are more resistant to

    A. Heart disease
    B. Typhoid fever
    C. AIDS
    D. Cancer
    E. Cholera
    B. Typhoid fever
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. How old is the cystic fibrosis allele?

    A. 2000 years
    B. 10,000 years
    C. 5000 years
    D. 1000 years
    E. Over 50,000 years
    E. Over 50,000 years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. ___ is a complex gene interaction, wherein multiple genes affect a single phenotypic trait.

    A. Epistasis
    B. Pleiotropy
    C. Codominance
    A. Epistasis

    Pleiotropy is the production by a single gene of two or more apparently unrelated effects.

    Epistasis is the interaction of genes that are not alleles, in particular the suppression of the effect of one such gene by another.

    Codominanceis a relationship between two versions of a gene. Individuals receive one version of a gene, called an allele, from each parent. If the alleles are different, the dominant allele usually will be expressed, while the effect of the other allele, called recessive, is masked.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. Assuming all alleles have
    a clear dominant/recessive relationship, a dihybrid cross leads to a
    phenotypic ratio in offspring that is typically close to ___.

    a. 3:1
    b. 1:2:1
    c. 1:1:1:1
    d. 9:3:3:1
    d. 9:3:3:1
  217. The probability of a crossover occurring between two genes on the same chromosome ___.

    A. decreases with the distance between the
    B. is unrelated to the distance between them
    C. increases with the distance between them
    C. increases with the distance between them
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. ___ alleles are both fully and equally expressed.

    A. Both dominant and codominant
    B. Dominant
    C. Pleiotropic
    D. Codominant
    D. Codominant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  219. A bell curve indicates ___ in a trait.

    A. continuous variation
    B. crossing over
    C. aneuploidy
    D. pleiotropy
    A. continuous variation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  220. Constructing a pedigree is particularly useful when studying inheritance patterns in organisms that ___.

    A. have a fast life cycle
    B. produce many offspring per generation
    C. produce few offspring per generation
    D. have a very large chromosome number
    C. produce few offspring per generation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. A female child inherits one X chromosome from her mother and one from her father. What sex chromosome does a male child inherit from each of his parents?
    X from mom, Y from dad
  222. Nondisjunction at meiosis can result in ___.

    A. pleiotropy
    B. duplications
    C. crossing over
    D. aneuploidy
    D. aneuploidy

    Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosome pairs or sister chromatids to separate properly during cell division.

    Aneuploidy is a condition in which the chromosome number is not an exact multiple of the number characteristic of a particular species.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. True or false? All traits are inherited in a predictable way.
    False
  224. If one parent is heterozygous for a dominant autosomal allele and the other parent does
    not carry the allele, a child of theirs has a chance of being heterozygous.

    A. 25 percent
    B. 50 percent
    C. no chance; it will die
    D. 75 percent
    B. 50 percent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  225. Klinefelter syndrome (XXY) is most easily diagnosed by ___.

    A. pedigree analysis
    B. karyotyping
    C. aneuploidy
    c. phenotypic treatment
    B. karyotyping

    Karyotyping is a test to examine chromosomes in a sample of cells, which can help identify genetic problems as the cause of a disorder or disease.

    Aneuploidy is a condition in which the chromosome number is not an exact multiple of the number characteristic of a particular species.

    Phenotype is how the condition is expressed. Basically the symptoms of the gene mutation. Therefore, phenotypic treatments would be preventing a disorder from being expressed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. AaBb × AaBb

    A. Monohybrid cross
    B. Heterozygous condition
    C. Homozygous condition
    D. Dhybrid cross
    D. Dhybrid cross

    In contrast to a monohybrid cross, a dihybrid cross is a cross between F1 offspring (first-generation offspring) of two individuals that differ in two traits of particular interest.

    For example, BB × bb. B = brown. b = blue. BB = Dark brown. Bb = Brown (not blue). bb = Blue.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  227. Aa × Aa

    A. Dhybrid cross
    B. Homozygous condition
    C. Heterozygous condition
    D. Monohybrid cross
    D. Monohybrid cross

    A monohybrid cross is a genetic cross between homozygous individuals but with different alleles for a single gene locus of interest.

    In genetics, a locus is the specific location of a gene or DNA sequence or position on a chromosome.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  228. bb

    A. Dhybrid cross
    B. Heterozygous condition
    C. Homozygous condition
    D. Monohybrid cross
    C. Homozygous condition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  229. Aa

    A. Dhybrid cross
    B. Monohybrid cross
    C. Heterozygous condition
    D. Homozygous condition
    C. Heterozygous condition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  230. Extra sets of chromosomes

    A. Polyploid
    B. Gametes end up with the wrong chromosome number
    C. Symptoms of a genetic disorder
    D. Varies continuously
    E. An individual's alleles
    F. One extra chromosome
    G. Two genes affect the same trait
    A. Polyploid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  231. Syndrome

    A. One extra chromosome
    B. An individual's alleles
    C. Two genes affect the same trait
    D. Polyploid
    E. Gametes end up with the wrong chromosome number
    F. Varies continuously
    G. Symptoms of a genetic disorder
    G. Symptoms of a genetic disorder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  232. Aneuploidy

    A. Two genes affect the same trait
    B. Varies continuously
    C. An individual's alleles
    D. One extra chromosome
    E. Symptoms of a genetic disorder
    F. Polyploid
    G. Gametes end up with the wrong chromosome number
    D. One extra chromosome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. Nondisjunction during meiosis

    A. Two genes affect the same trait
    B. An individual's alleles
    C. Polyploid
    D. Symptoms of a genetic disorder
    E. Varies continuously
    F. One extra chromosome
    G. Gametes end up with the wrong chromosome number
    G. Gametes end up with the wrong chromosome number
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. Epistasis

    A. Two genes affect the same trait
    B. Polyploid
    C. Symptoms of a genetic disorder
    D. One extra chromosome
    E. Varies continuously
    F. Gametes end up with the wrong chromosome number
    G. An individual's alleles
    A. Two genes affect the same trait
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. Genotype

    A. Gametes end up with the wrong chromosome number
    B. One extra chromosome
    C. Polyploid
    D. Symptoms of a genetic disorder
    E. An individual's alleles
    F. Two genes affect the same trait
    G. Varies continuously
    E. An individual's alleles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  236. Human eye color

    A. One extra chromosome
    B. Varies continuously
    C. Polyploid
    D. Symptoms of a genetic disorder
    E. Gametes end up with the wrong chromosome number
    F. Two genes affect the same trait
    G. An individual's alleles
    B. Varies continuously
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. Polyploid

    A. Nondisjunction during meiosis
    B. Syndrome
    C. Genotype
    D. Epistasis
    E. Extra sets of chromosomes
    F. Human eye color
    G. Aneuploidy
    E. Extra sets of chromosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  238. Symptoms of a genetic disorder

    A. Genotype
    B. Aneuploidy
    C. Human eye color
    D. Extra sets of chromosomes
    E. Epistasis
    F. Nondisjunction during meiosis
    G. Syndrome
    G. Syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  239. One extra chromosome

    A. Syndrome
    B. Epistasis
    C. Human eye color
    D. Nondisjunction during meiosis
    E. Extra sets of chromosomes
    F. Aneuploidy
    G. Genotype
    F. Aneuploidy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  240. Gametes end up with the wrong chromosome number

    A. Human eye color
    B. Extra sets of chromosomes
    C. Aneuploidy
    D. Genotype
    E. Epistasis
    F. Syndrome
    G. Nondisjunction during meiosis
    G. Nondisjunction during meiosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  241. Two genes affect the same trait

    A. Syndrome
    B. Human eye color
    C. Epistasis
    D. Nondisjunction during meiosis
    E. Extra sets of chromosomes
    F. Genotype
    G. Aneuploidy
    C. Epistasis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  242. An individual's alleles

    A. Genotype
    B. Epistasis
    C. Syndrome
    D. Nondisjunction during meiosis
    E. Extra sets of chromosomes
    F. Human eye color
    G. Aneuploidy
    A. Genotype
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  243. Varies continuously

    A. Syndrome
    B. Aneuploidy
    C. Extra sets of chromosomes
    D. Human eye color
    E. Epistasis
    F. Genotype
    G. Nondisjunction during meiosis
    D. Human eye color
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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