Lillyvette

Card Set Information

Author:
Lillyvette
ID:
2708
Filename:
Lillyvette
Updated:
2009-12-10 00:23:58
Tags:
Samford Micro Final 2009
Folders:

Description:
Micro Final
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user Lillyvette on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. Which of the following is found in gram negative bacteria but not gram positive bacteria?

    1. outer membrane
    2. ribosomes
    3. teichoic acid
    4. membrane sterols
    outer membrane
  2. Pleomorphic bacteria are best described as:
    variable shaped bacteria
  3. Endospores:

    1. can remain alive for decades
    2. can be formed by gram-positives only
    3. can survive boiling water
    4. all of the above
    All of the above
  4. Bacillus and Clostridium can have two forms; an endospore and a
    vegetative form
  5. Which term best describes spherical bacteria present in pairs?
    Diplococci
  6. Runs and tumbles are associated with bacterial
    chemotaxis
  7. Phototrophic bacteria carry out a form of photosynthesis.
    True
  8. Most bacteria move by flagella, but some move by cilia.
    False
  9. Gram-negative bacteria have many (>20) layers of peptidoglycan, while gram-positive bacteria only have a few (<5) layers.
    False
  10. The motile feeding stage of protozoa is called
    gametocyte
  11. Staphylococci are clusters of cells.
    True
  12. Sporozoan (apicomplexa) protozoa move by
    being carried (e.g., by blood)
  13. Which of the following maintains the chromosomes number of eukaryotic cells?

    1. snapping division
    2. binary fission
    3. mitosis
    4. meiosis
    5. both 2 and 3
    mitosis
  14. Which of the following does not have a cell wall?

    1. fungi
    2. algae
    3. protozoa
    4. all have cell walls
    Protozoa
  15. Reproduces primarily by budding:
    Yeasts
  16. A fungal filament is called:
    Hypha
  17. Most fungi are called:

    They get their food via:
    Saprobes

    Extracellular digestion
  18. A vector spreads a pathogen from one host to another.
    True
  19. Helminths (worms) are studied in microbiology because the adult worms are microscopic.
    False
  20. Which of the following statments describe algae?

    1. They are eukaryotes
    2. They may be either microscopic or macroscopic
    3. They are classified according to their photosynthetic pigment
    4. All of the above statements are correct
    5. 1 and 2 are correct statements
    All of the above statements are correct.
  21. The general steps in a viral multiplication cycle are:

    1. attachment, entry, synthesis, assembly, and release
    2. uncoating, penetration, replication, assembly, and budding
    3. membrane fusion, duplication, uncoating, assembly, lysis
    4. endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation, and exocytosis
    attachment, entry, synthesis, assembly, and release
  22. Living cells are required for culturing viruses because:

    1. viruses are technically non-living
    2. viruses require host cell genetic machinery to replicate
    3. viruses are obligate intracellular parasites
    4. all of the above
    all of the above
  23. IN GENERAL, RNA viruses multiply in the cell __________ , and DNA viruses multiply in the cell ________________.
    cytoplasm, nucleus
  24. Binds enveloped viruses to host cells
    spikes
  25. Can consist of a protein coat and DNA
    Nucleocapsid
  26. Formed from host cell membrane
    Envelope
  27. Binds unenveloped viruses to hosts
    Capsid
  28. Which can be used as mRNA?
    Plus strand RNA
  29. A naked, small, infectious RNA molecule is called
    a retrovirus
  30. A provirus exists when DNA from a virus is inserted in the host chromosome.
    True
  31. Though they are small, viruses are still considered cells
    False
  32. Proto-oncogenes are normal genes associated with cell division
    True
  33. Iodine is considered
    a surfactant
  34. The cellular targets of physical and chemical agents fall into general categories including those that damage
    the cell membrane
  35. Can be used for fluid or air
    filtration
  36. Includes ultraviolet light
    non-ionizing radiation
  37. Freeze drying
    lyophilization
  38. Includes the batch and flash methods for liquids
    pasteurization
  39. Includes gamma rays
    ionizing radiation
  40. A term that indicates an antibacterial agent primarily inhibits growth without substantial killing
    bacteriostatic
  41. The destruction of most microorganisms on non-living tissue is called:
    disinfection
  42. Warmer temperatures generally interfere with the effectiveness of a disinfectant
    True
  43. Ionizing radiation dislodges electrons from molecules, strengthening DNA.
    False
  44. Moist heat is more effective than dry heat at killing microorganisms.
    True
  45. Why are bacterial antibiotics that affect protein synthesis usually effective?
    The ribosomes of prokaryotes and eukaryotes are different.
  46. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
    cephalosporins
  47. Inhibit DNA or RNA synthesis
    nucleotide analogs
  48. Inhibit metabolic pathways
    sulfa drugs
  49. inhibit protein synthesis
    aminoglycosides
  50. disrupt cell membranes
    polymyxins
  51. Few drugs are selectively toxic against viruses against
    it is difficult to interfere with viral processes without also harming host processes
  52. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for antiviral drugs?

    1. inhibits uncoating
    2. inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
    3. inhibits membrane synthesis
    4. inhibits release of virus
    Inhibits membrane synthesis
  53. The disk diffusion susceptibility test (Kirby-Bauer test) measures the _________ of an antibacterial drug.
    effectiveness
  54. The MIC is the _______ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe.
    smallest concentration
  55. What is effective against fungal membranes?
    Amphotericin B
  56. Selective toxicity means a drug is effective against _________, but not against ________.
    pathogens; host.
  57. Which of the following statements is true concerning the selection of an antimicrobial agent?

    1. An ideal antimicrobial agent is stable during storage.
    2. An ideal antimicrobial agent is fast acting.
    3. Ideal microbial agents do not exist.
    4. All of the above
    All of the above.
  58. Penicillin is effective against bacterial cell wall synthesis.
    True
  59. A drug that prevents growth of bacteria but does not kill non-dividing bacteria would be classified as bacteriostatic.
    True
  60. Infections acquired while in a health care facility.
    Nonsocomial
  61. Capsules help bacteria by inhibiting
    phagocytosis
  62. When cases are concentrated in one area at a relatively stable rate, then the disease
    endemic
  63. Endotoxins are found in:
    Gram negative bacteria only
  64. A virulence factor is one which:

    1. allows a microbe to invade and establish itself on the host.
    2. allows a host to evade infection.
    3. normal flora use against invading microorganisms
    4. invading organisms use against normal flora
    allows a microbe to invade and establish itself on the host.
  65. Koch's postulates determines
    if a microbe causes disease.
  66. Consider the following case. An animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector.
    The mosquito
  67. Opportunistic pathogens are LEAST likely to affect which of the following groups:

    1. AIDS patients
    2. drug addicts
    3. college students
    4. transplant recipients
    College students
  68. Bacterial fimbriae contribute to infection by aiding the bacteria in:
    adherence
  69. Endogenous infections are caused by:
    parasitic flora that have been ingested into the gut
  70. Resident microbiota is absent from the:
    Lungs
  71. Microbial infection damages hosts by:
    toxins, exoenzymes, induction of immune response
  72. In a(n) _________ infection, a person can have a period of no illness before reactivation.
    Latent
  73. Etiology is the study of the cause of disease.
    True
  74. The number of TOTAL cases of a disease in a given area during a given period of time is called the prevalence of a disease.
    True
  75. Normal microbiota consists mostly of bacteria and viruses.
    False
  76. An isotope has a different number of _______ but the same ________ .
    neutrons; atomic mass
  77. Amino acids are linked in proteins by ______________ bonds.
    covalent
  78. A volume of space in which an electron is likely to be found is called a:
    orbital
  79. The sugar found in RNA is a:
    pentose
  80. Can form branched chains:
    Carbohydrates
  81. A phospolipid contains:
    Two fatty acids and a phospate bound to glycerol
  82. An amphipathic molecule is defined as a molecule that:
    both attracts and repels water
  83. ATP is classified as a:
    nucleic acid
  84. When NaCl is dissolved in water, sodium loses an electron and chlorine gains one. Which of the following is true?

    1. A covalent bond is formed between sodium and the oxygen of water.
    2. Ionic bonds form causing NaCl to re-form in the solution
    3. An oxidation-reduction reaction occurs causing the formation of ATP
    4. Sodium becomes a cation, and chlorine becomes an anion.
    Sodium becomes a cation, and chlorine becomes an anion.
  85. In proteins, helices and pleated sheets are associated with:
    secondary structure
  86. A solution with a pH of 2 ____ than a solution with a pH of 8.
    has more H+
  87. The process that forms polymers from individual subunits is called hydrolysis.
    False
  88. Cholesterol is classified as a type of lipid called a steroid.
    True
  89. The three-dimensional shape of a protein refers to its primary structure.
    False
  90. Bacteria grow in _______ by the process of _________.
    number; binary fission
  91. Oxygen is toxic to:
    obligate anaerobes
  92. What is an organic compound such as an amino acid, nitrogenous base, or vitamin that cannot be synthesized by an organism and must be provided as a nutrient?
    growth factor
  93. A pump protein is most frequently associated with
    active transport
  94. Penicillin affects the synthesis of gram-positive cell walls. Bacteria would be most sensitive to penicillin during the ______ phase of the growth curve.
    Log
  95. The condition that occurs when organisms live in an obligatory but mutually beneficial relationship is called
    mutualism
  96. A candle jar consist of a candle placed in a jar and then allowed to go out. The candle used up most of the oxygen and emits carbon dioxide. Candle jars would thus be used to grow:
    Capnophiles
  97. Barophiles live in areas of
    High pressure
  98. Defined as the ingestion of whole cells or large solid matter?
    Phagocytosis
  99. Turbidity is measured with a:
    Spectrophotometer
  100. A glove box is used to grow:
    Obligate anaerobes
  101. Green algae would be considered to be:
    Photoautotrophs
  102. A bacterial cell in a hypotonic environment will:
    swell slightly but not burst
  103. NADH
    Reduced
  104. In osmosis:
    water moves from high water concentration to low water concentration
  105. An allosteric inhibitor binds to the active site of an enzyme
    False
  106. The Krebs cycle produces ___ ATP by substrate level phosphorylation for each pyruvic acid
    1
  107. An atom that donates electrons during a reaction undergoes
    Oxidation
  108. A direct product or products of glycolysis is/are:
    ATP and Pyruvic Acid
  109. An enzyme has an element of iron in its center Iron is thus classifed as a
    cofactor
  110. The complete metabolism of glucose by aerobic respiration results in ____ ATP by oxidative phosphorylation
    34
  111. Where does the Krebs cycle occur in prokaryotes?
    the cytoplasm
  112. Where does glycolysis occur in eukaryotes?
    the cytoplasm
  113. Another term for biosynthesis.
    Anabolism
  114. As electrons move through the electron transport chain _________ are removed from the cell.
    Protons (H+)
  115. An enzyme
    is affected by pH and temperature
  116. In fermentation, the terminal electron acceptor is
    an organic compound
  117. The substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme
    True
  118. The Krebs cycle takes place in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells
    True
  119. When lipids are broken down, completely separate pathways from aerobic respiration are used.
    False
  120. The reverse process of glycolysis is called gluconeogenesis.
    True
  121. Involves plasmids
    Conjugation
  122. Contains a P site
    ribosomes
  123. Requires bacteriophages
    transductions
  124. Has an anticodon
    tRNA
  125. DNA taken up from the environment
    transformation
  126. In which directions do DNA and RNA polymerase work?
    Both RNA polymerase and DNA polymerase work in the 5' to 3' direction
  127. Called "jumping genes"
    Transposons
  128. Radiolabeled cytosine (cytosine with radioactive hydrogen) given to a cell would be incorporated into:
    both DNA and RNA
  129. As a general rule, the template strand on DNA will always begin with:
    TAC
  130. Translations produces:
    polypeptides
  131. Where are prokaryotic chromosomes located?
    In the cytoplasm
  132. AUC is one of the stop codons
    False
  133. Replication in the bacteria only occurs just before the bacterial cell divides
    True
  134. Frameshift mutations can be caused by insertions but not by deletions.
    False
  135. A base mutation is a spontaneous mutation that causes a frame shift.
    False
  136. Requires gel electrophoresis
    Southern blotting
  137. Cuts DNA molecules at specific locations
    restriction endonuclease
  138. Determines the order of DNA nucleotides in a genome
    DNA sequencing
  139. Produces a large number of identical DNA molecules
    Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
  140. Uses RNA template to transcribe molecule of cDNA
    Reverse transcriptase
  141. A genomic library is associated with
    recombinant DNA and gene cloning
  142. Two sources of DNA can be compared by labeling once source with radioactive phosphate, separting the strands by heating, and then cooling the sample. If the two sources intermix, it is called:
    Hybridization
  143. Recombinant DNA in bacteria can produce:
    • a. drugs
    • b. human proteins
    • c. tansgenic plants
  144. The incorporation of a fluorescent DNA probe with a target DNA molecule is called FISH
    True
  145. A transgenic plant is one that has DNA from another species added to it.
    True
  146. Antisense RNA binds to mRNA allowing an increase in the rate of translation.
    False
  147. Restriction enzymes inhibit the movement of DNA
    False

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview