EMS Exam 4 Questions

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Scott57
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271334
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EMS Exam 4 Questions
Updated:
2014-04-23 14:22:13
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trauma childbirth peds oldppl
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ch. 13-17
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  1. What is the greatest cause of death in trauma patients?

    A. internal bleeding
    B. shock
    C. cardiac arrest
    D. external wounds
    B. shock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Red blood cells:

    A. have a search and destroy function.
    B. carry oxygen and carbon dioxide.
    C. interact with each other to form blood clots.
    d. all of the above.
    B. carry oxygen and carbon dioxide.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Shock, or failure of the circulatory system, is caused by:
    a. pump failure.
    b. pipe failure.
    c. fluid loss.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  4. Shock as a result of capillary expansion may be caused by:

    a. spinal shock.
    b. psychogenic shock.
    c. anaphylactic shock.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  5. Anaphylactic shock:

    a. is caused by an extreme allergic reaction to a foreign substance.
    b. may cause breathing to become rapid and difficult with wheezing in the chest.
    c. may be accompanied by itching, rash, hives, or swelling of the face or tongue.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  6. General treatment for shock includes:

    A. giving the patient sips of water or other fluids.
    B. getting the patient to walk as soon as possible.
    C. maintaining the patient's ABCs and checking them every five minutes.
    d. all of the above.
    C. maintaining the patient's ABCs and checking them every five minutes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. The EMR may treat a patient who exhibits signs and symptoms of shock by:

    A. treating all causes of shock.
    B. maintaining the body temperature of the patient.
    C. always elevating the patient's legs. 
    d. all of the above.
    B. maintaining the body temperature of the patient.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Treatment of a patient with spinal shock includes:

    a. stabilization of the neck and head.
    b. maintaining the patient's ABCs and body temperature.
    c. placement of the patient on his or her back.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  9. Treatment of shock caused by external blood loss includes which of the following steps?

    A. Elevate the head.
    B. Provide glucose.
    C. Apply direct pressure on the wound.
    d. all of the above
    C. Apply direct pressure on the wound.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. A closed wound:

    a. is a bruise or contusion.
    b. is an injury of the soft tissue beneath the skin.
    c. causes discoloration and swelling.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  11. You cannot stop internal bleeding in the field. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  12. Place the methods for controlling external bleeding in the order they should be attempted: 1. tourniquet 2. elevation 3. direct pressure 4. pressure points 

    A. 2, 3, 4, 1
    B. 3, 2, 4, 1
    C. 2, 1, 4, 3
    D. 3, 2, 1, 4
    D. 3, 2, 1, 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Primary treatment of an impaled object is to:

    A. apply a bulky dressing.
    B. remove the impaled object.
    C. control bleeding.
    d. all of the above.
    C. control bleeding.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. A dressing is used to hold a bandage in place. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    FALSE
  15. When treating an eye injury, you should:

    a. use saline to flush small foreign objects from the surface of the eye.
    b. leave any object impaled in the eye in place.
    c. cover the uninjured eye as well as the injured eye.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  16. For most soft-tissue injuries, your treatment will include:

    a. controlling bleeding.
    b. covering wounds with a sterile dressing.
    c. administering high flow oxygen.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  17. Burn patients may experience:

    a. pain.
    b. swelling.
    c. infection.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  18. The mechanism of injury refers to:

    A. the type of transport needed for injuries.
    B. the means by which an injury has occurred.
    C. how to move an injured patient.
    D. whether a patient can move an injured limb.
    B. the means by which an injury has occurred.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. A mechanism of injury that could cause a musculoskeletal injury would be:

    a. direct force.
    b. indirect force.
    c. twisting force.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  20. During examination of an injured limb, the EMR's best indicator of an underlying fracture, dislocation, or sprain is:

    A. swelling.
    B. an open wound.
    C. bruising.
    D. tenderness.
    C. bruising.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. General principles of splinting limb injuries include which of the following?

    A. Splint the limb in the position it was found.
    B. Leave clothing in place.
    C. Do not splint joints unless injury is visible.
    d. all of the above
    A. Splint the limb in the position it was found.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Splints made from boards, aluminum, or plastic are called:

    A. rigid splints.
    B. traction splints.
    C. improvised splints.
    d. all of the above.
    A. rigid splints.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. A traction splint should be applied to the patient if a fracture of the thighbone or femur is suspected. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  24. Head injuries may:

    a. cause bleeding and/or swelling within the skull.
    b. cause profuse bleeding externally.
    c. cause injury to the spine.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  25. Signs and symptoms of a spinal cord injury include which of the following?

    a. tenderness over a point on the spine or neck.
    b. tingling or burning in a part of the body below the neck.
    c. laceration or bruise to the head, neck, or spine.
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  26. If spinal injury is suspected and there are breathing problems, the head tilt-chin lift technique should be used to open the airway. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  27. If a patient with injuries to the chest exhibits a reversed movement of the chest during breathing:

    a. he or she may need oxygen.
    b. place a pillow on the patient's chest.
    c. suspect flail chest.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  28. The spine has how many sections? 

    A. three
    B. seven
    C. five
    D. nine
    C. five
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. A __________ is a disruption that tears the supporting ligaments of a joint.

    A. strain
    B. fracture
    C. sprain
    D. dislocation
    D. dislocation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. When splinting an extremity, you should check distal pulse, motor, and sensation:

    a. before splinting.
    b. after splinting.
    c. as part of the ongoing assessment.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  31. The mechanism of injury is as important a consideration as the examination in determining if a patient may have sustained a spinal injury. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  32. You should never remove a motorcycle or football helmet. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  33. During the first stage of labor:

    A. the crowning of the infant's head occurs.
    B. the bloody show occurs.
    C. the mother should not be transported.
    d. all of the above.
    B. the bloody show occurs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. The infant's head is beginning to emerge. Which of the following should occur?

    A. The woman should push harder.
    B. The woman should breathe rapidly.
    C. both A and B
    D. The woman should stop pushing.
    C. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. As soon as the newborn is delivered, you should immediately continue to:

    A. have the mother continue to push.
    B. prepare for delivery of the placenta.
    C. let the grandparents see the newborn.
    D. suction the mouth and nose of the newborn.
    D. suction the mouth and nose of the newborn.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. If an infant does not breathe on its own within the first minute after birth, CPR should beginimmediately.

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  37. An infant who does not begin breathing independently within a minute of delivery is termed a stillborn. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  38. After delivery, the newborn should:

    a. breathe at a rate greater than 40 breaths per minute.
    b. begin to cry right after birth.
    c. have a pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  39. If the bag of waters does not break prior to or during delivery of the newborn, you must carefully break the bag. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  40. A prolapsed umbilical cord occurs when the cord comes out of the vagina before the infant is born. You should:

    a. lift the mother's hips up.
    b. keep the cord covered and moist.
    c. arrange for rapid transport.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  41. To determine if delivery is imminent, you should ask:

    a. if the woman has had a baby before.
    b. how frequent the contractions are.
    c. if the woman has the urge to push.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  42. To time the contraction cycles, you time from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  43. After the infant is delivered:

    A. you now have two patients.
    B. pull on the umbilical cord to deliver the placenta.
    C. focus your treatment on the newborn.
    D. do not allow the mother to handle the infant until you arrive at the hospital.
    A. you now have two patients.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Approximately 1 to 2 cups of blood are lost during normal childbirth. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  45. Which of the following is not usually a sign or symptom of shock?

    A. confusion or restlessness
    B. weakness or fainting
    C. weak, rapid pulse
    D. thirst
    E. damp, warm skin
    E. damp, warm skin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which position is best for the treatment of shock if there is no head injury?

    A. recovery position
    B. semisitting
    C. supine with the legs elevated
    D. sidelying
    C. supine with the legs elevated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Bleeding is classified as all of the following except:

    A. venous.
    B. capillary.
    C. cellular.
    D. arterial.
    C. cellular.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which statement about arterial bleeding is correct?

    A. Arterial bleeding has a steady flow.
    B. It is the least difficult to control.
    C. Clot formation takes place rapidly.
    D. It causes the blood pressure to rise.
    B. It is the least difficult to control.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. The most common and effective way to control external bleeding is by:

    A. pressure points.
    B. direct pressure.
    C. elevation.
    D. cold application.
    B. direct pressure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Place the following treatments for external bleeding in the proper order of use:

    A. application of pressure at a pressure point
    B. elevation of the body part
    C. application of direct pressure
    D. use of a tourniquet
    C, B, D, A
  51. A pressure point is a site where:

    A. a main artery lies near the surface of the body directly over the bone.
    B. excessive pressure causes the pulse rate to increase rapidly.
    C. the blood pressure can be taken by auscultation.
    D. a large vein lies within the outer layer of the skin.
    A. a main artery lies near the surface of the body directly over the bone.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. A wound caused by a sharp-edged object such as a razor blade or broken glass is called a(n):

    A. puncture.
    B. laceration.
    C. abrasion.
    D. avulsion.
    B. laceration.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. The initial dressing placed on a wound should not be removed because it:

    A. can become a biohazard.
    B. may increase the chance of infection.
    C. takes too long to remove.
    D. is a necessary part of clot formation.
    D. is a necessary part of clot formation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Care in the field for a patient with an impaled object in the leg involves all of the following except:

    A. carefully removing the object.
    B. stabilizing the object.
    C. leaving the object in place.
    D. using direct pressure.
    A. carefully removing the object.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. List the seven areas of the skeletal system.
    Head (skull, and face); spinal column; shoulder girdle; upper extremities; rib cage (thorax); pelvis; lower extremities
  56. Musculoskeletal injuries are caused by the following types of mechanisms of injury, except:

    A.  direct force.
    B.  twisting force.
    C.  low-energy force. 
    D.  indirect force.
    C.  low-energy force.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. A ____________ is a disruption that tears the supporting ligaments of the joint.

    A. sprain
    B. strain
    C. dislocation
    D. fracture
    C. dislocation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Name four signs of injury you should look for
    during an examination of a limb.
    • open wound
    • Deformity
    • swelling
    • bruising
  59. Which procedure is done at least twice whenever a splint is applied?

    A. elevation of the injured extremity
    B. manual stabilization of the injured extremity
    C. application of gentle manual traction
    D. assessment for circulation, sensation, and movement distal to the injury
    D. assessment for circulation, sensation, and movement distal to the injury
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. List three examples of rigid splints.
    • Padded board splints
    • molded plastic or aluminum splints
    • padded wire ladder splints
    • SAM splints
    • folded cardboard splints
  61. Emergency care of a patient who has a painful, deformed femur includes:

    A. having the patient attempt to walk.
    B. asking the patient to move the limb
    C. moving the patient as soon as possible.
    D. treating the patient for shock.
    D. treating the patient for shock.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Facial injuries commonly result from which
    of the following types of incidents?

    A. motor vehicle crashes in which the patient’s face hits the steering wheel or windshield
    B. assaults
    C. falls
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  63. The unconscious trauma patient should be:

    A. rolled immediately to check for back injuries.
    B. placed in the recovery position.
    C. treated as if he or she has a potential spine injury.
    D. placed in a prone position for fluid to drain.
    C. treated as if he or she has a potential spine injury.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. When treating a patient with a potential spine injury, one EMR should always:

    A. assess for range of cervical spine motion.
    B. maintain constant manual in-line immobilization until the patient is secured to the backboard.
    C. strap the patient’s head, and then his or her torso, to the long spine board.
    D. pad the neck before stabilizing the  patient.
    B. maintain constant manual in-line immobilization until the patient is secured to the backboard.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Crowning is determined by:

    A. asking the mother how many children she has had before.
    B. examining the vagina during a contraction.
    C. waiting until the contraction is over, and then looking at the vagina.
    D. asking the mother if she feels like she has to move her bowels.
    B. examining the vagina during a contraction.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Immediately after the infant has been delivered you should:

    A. begin rescue breathing.
    B. clear its nose, mouth, and throat of secretions.
    C. lower its head.
    D. try to get it to cry.
    B. clear its nose, mouth, and throat of secretions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. When suctioning a newborn:

    A. insert the syringe approximately 3" into the infant’s mouth.
    B. be careful not to reach all the way to the back of the infant’s mouth.
    C. compress the bulb syringe when it is inside the infant’s mouth.
    D. suction the nose and then the mouth.
    B. be careful not to reach all the way to the back of the infant’s mouth.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. The placenta will deliver on its own, usually
    within ___________ after delivery.

    A.  15 minutes
    B.  30 minutes
    C.  20 minutes
    D.  1 hour
    B.  30 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. You should check which pulse in a newborn infant?

    A. carotid
    B. radial
    C. brachial
    D. femoral
    C. brachial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. A newborn infant should breathe at a rate of:

    A. 10 breaths/min.
    B. more than 40 breaths/min.
    C. 30 breaths/min.
    D. 20 breaths/min.
    B. more than 40 breaths/min.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. A(n) _____________ is the delivery of an incomplete or underdeveloped fetus.

    A.  ectopic pregnancy
    B.  premature birth
    C.  miscarriage
    D.  stillborn delivery
    C.  miscarriage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Premature infants lose heat rapidly and must be kept warm.

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  73. Which of the following complications requires rapid transportation to the hospital?

    A. miscarriage
    B. prolapse of the umbilical cord
    C. stillborn delivery
    D. unbroken bag of waters
    B. prolapse of the umbilical cord
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. In an infant, the airway is __________ and __________ blocked by secretions, swelling, and foreign bodies.

    A. larger; more easily
    B. smaller; more easily
    C. larger; less easily
    D. smaller; less easily
    B. smaller; more easily
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which of the following is not a component of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT)?

    A.  the child’s overall appearance
    B.  the child’s circulation to the skin
    C.  the child’s work of breathing
    D.  the child’s medical history
    D.  the child’s medical history
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. To measure the pulse rate in a child younger than 1 year, palpate the __________ pulse.

    A.  carotid
    B.  radial
    C.  femoral
    D.  brachial
    D.  brachial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. To relieve a foreign body airway obstruction in an infant, you should use:

    A. both back slaps and chest thrusts.
    B. back slaps.
    C. chest thrusts.
    D. abdominal thrusts.
    A. both back slaps and chest thrusts.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Which of the following are signs of respiratory distress?

    A. a breathing rate of more than 30 to 40 breaths per minute in children
    B. a high-pitched sound on inspiration
    C. nasal flaring on each breath
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  79. Which of the following is not a sign of croup?

    A. noisy, whooping inhalations
    B. barking, seal-like cough
    C. willingness to lie down
    D. inability to swallow
    D. inability to swallow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Seizures in children are most commonly caused by:

    A. asthma.
    B. high fever.
    C. head injuries.
    D. drug overdose.
    B. high fever.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. A weak, rapid pulse and shallow breathing are signs of:

    A. shock.
    B. coma.
    C. seizure.
    D. asthma.
    A. shock.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. If you need to remove a child from a car after a motor vehicle collision, you should:

    A. place the child on a backboard.
    B. use a clothes drag.
    C. leave the child in the car seat if possible.
    D. wait until other EMS personnel arrive.
    C. leave the child in the car seat if possible.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. List four signs that could indicate child abuse.
    • Any four of the following:
    • multiple fractures
    • bruises in various stages of healing (especially those clustered on the torso and buttocks)
    • human bites
    • burns (particularly cigarette burns and scalds from hot water)
    • reports of bizarre accidents that do not seem to have a logical explanation
  84. You are examining an elderly man who is dressed in several layers of clothing. You should:

    A. remove his clothing only if you can move him to a warm place.
    B. remove as much of his clothing as necessary to examine him properly.
    C. do a less-than-complete examination.
    D. perform an exam through his clothing.
    B. remove as much of his clothing as necessary to examine him properly.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. A person who points to his ear and shakes his head “no” may be trying to tell you that he:

    A. is deaf.
    B. is senile.
    C. wants you to repeat what you said.
    D. does not understand English.
    A. is deaf.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Osteoporosis is a condition in which elderly patients:

    A. suffer from hearing and vision changes.
    B. suffer a decrease in bone density.
    C. become more senile.
    D. are unable to control their bowel or bladder.
    B. suffer a decrease in bone density.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. List four techniques for communicating with older patients.
    • Identify yourself look directly at the patient
    • speak slowly and distinctly
    • explain what you are going to do in clear, simple language listen to the patient
    • show the patient respect
    • do not talk about the patient in front of the patient
    • be patient.
  88. Hip fractures can often be identified by which sign?

    A. The injured leg is shorted and internally rotated.
    B. The injured leg is lengthened and externally rotated.
    C. The injured leg is shortened and externally rotated.
    D. The injured leg is lengthened and internally rotated.
    C. The injured leg is shortened and externally rotated.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Disabilities that occur with age include:

    A. hearing loss.
    B. sight impairment.
    C. slowed movements.
    D. all of the above.
    D. all of the above.
  90. What is the common infectious disease seen in elderly patients that can quickly result in death?

    A. tuberculosis
    B. whooping cough
    C. pneumonia
    D. emphysema
    C. pneumonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Common causes of altered mental status in geriatric patients include all of the following except:

    A. hypothermia.
    B. low blood glucose level.
    C. traumatic injuries.
    D. a lack of adequate oxygen to the brain.
    C. traumatic injuries.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. What is the role of the EMR in caring for patients with a chronic condition?

    A. Begin disconnecting the equipment to speed up transport to the hospital.
    B. Ensure adequate airway, breathing, and circulation.
    C. Inform the caregiver that he or she can leave.
    D. Quickly learn how to use the medical equipment utilized by the patient.
    B. Ensure adequate airway, breathing, and circulation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. What are three types of mental problems frequently seen in elderly patients?
    • Depression
    • suicidal thoughts
    • dementia or Alzheimer disease
  94. Osteoporosis is:

    A. an inability to produce bone cells.
    B. an accumulation of calcium in the joints of older people.
    C. caused by the incomplete healing of a fracture in an older person.
    D. abnormal brittleness of the bones caused by a loss of calcium.
    D. abnormal brittleness of the bones caused by a loss of calcium.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. When working with hearing-impaired patients:

    a. talk while facing the patient.
    b. ask the patient if he or she can hear you.
    c. speak slowly and clearly.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  96. Disabilities that may occur with age include:

    a. slowed movements.
    b. senility.
    c. loss of bowel and bladder control.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  97. Chronic respiratory diseases and acute respiratory distress are two major types of respiratory diseases in geriatric patients. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  98. The MOST common psychiatric condition experienced by older adults is:

    A. dementia.
    B. senility.
    C. suicide.
    D. depression.
    D. depression.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Elder abuse can take the form of:

    a. physical abuse.
    b. sexual abuse.
    c. emotional abuse.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  100. A patient who has a terminal condition may have an advanced directive. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  101. A geriatric patient is defined as a patient older than:

    A. 75 years of age.
    B. 70 years of age.
    C. 50 years of age.
    D. 65 years of age.
    D. 65 years of age.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. EMS providers usually do not respond to many calls involving geriatric patients. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    FALSE
  103. Visually impaired or blind patients have learned to use other senses. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  104. You should assume that all geriatric patients have some level of hearing loss and dementia 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  105. Alzheimer disease is a type of:

    A. depression.
    B. dementia.
    C. infection.
    D. psychosis.
    B. dementia.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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