HEALS_ Treatment Planning & Dosimetry(Meghan's +Katy edits)

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jaxkaty5437
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271394
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HEALS_ Treatment Planning & Dosimetry(Meghan's +Katy edits)
Updated:
2014-04-21 19:52:05
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Radiation Therapy
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RTT review
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HEALS_ Treatment Planning & Dosimetry(Meghan's +Katy edits)
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  1. Which of the following areas should be included when irradiating a tumor of the nasopharynx?
    I. nasopharynx proper
    II. retropharyngeal nodes
    III. base of the skull
    • All of the above
  2. During a treatment calling for a tangential beam with a steep grazing incidence, the surface dose build-up is _________ (equal/not equal) to the entrance dose.
    Equal
  3. All of the following areas require the treatment of the surrounding lymphatics, EXCEPT for the T1 - T2 tumors involving the:
    A. Breast
    B. Larynx
    C. Cervix
    D. Prostate
    B. Larynx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The amount of geometric penumbra is NOT effected by the:
    A. source to skin distance (SSD)
    B. source to collimator distance (SCD)
    C. field size
    D. source size
    C. Field size
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The rational behind using lower than 100% isodose curve for irradiation of the chest wall using an electron beam is:
    1. increased skin sparing
    2. lower lung exposure
    3. reduced bolus use
    2. Lower lung exposure
  6. Ultrasound provides useful information for patient contours of the following structures, EXCEPT:
    A. Breast
    B. Chest wall
    C. Retroperitoneum 
    D. Lung tissue
    D. Lung tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. A wedge pair technique may effectively treat to a tumor depth of:
    0-7 cm
  8. When a wedge pair technique is used, an acceptable value for a high dose region (hot spot) would be _____%.
    10%
  9. "Negative" shield blocks are more commonly used for treating tumors of the:
    A. lung
    B. abdomen
    C. lung
    D. head & neck
    D. head & neck
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. During a 4 mV treatment, a sloping skin surface is corrected by a ________ shift toward the skin surface of the isodose curve.
    2/3
  11. The ICRU considers the minimum accuracy of the delivered dose to be ____% of the prescribed dose.
    5%
  12. The caudal margin of the target volume in patients with endometrial cancer is:
    A. mid-obturator foramen
    B. anterior superior iliac spine
    C. brim of the true pelvis
    D. widest point of the bony pelvis
    A. mid-obturator foramen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. During rotation therapies with an arc angle of 100°, the point of maximum dose is normally located displaced ________ (toward/away from) the irradiated sector.
    Toward
  14. Tumors that are limited to the upper cervical esophagus are best treated with:
    A. AP/PA opposed port
    B. 360° rotation
    C. a single field treatment 
    D. Three field technique with posterior obliques
    D. Three field technique with posterior obliques
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. A half value layer thickness for a 10 MeV photon energy is about ______ mm Pb.
    13 mm Pb
  16. What is the formula used to find Dmax from percentage depth dose?
  17. The 6 field Stanford technique is most often applied to:
    A. cutaneous lymphoma
    B. lymphocytic leukemia
    C. multiple myeloma
    D. melanomas
    A. cutaneous lymphoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. During XRT of a pituitary tumor with the patient supine, the anterior field should enter:
    A. at the coronal surface
    B. at the nasion
    C. above & behind the eyes
    D. below & behind the eyes
    C. above & behind the eyes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The target volume for carcinoma of the prostate may include the following regional lymph nodes:
    I. Obturator
    II. External iliac
    III. Internal iliac
    All of the above
  20. A treatment designed to be given at 120 cm SSD is mistakenly given at 100 cm SSD. What is the error in dose delivered? 
    A. 20% underdose
    B. 20% overdose
    C. 44% underdose
    D. 44% overdose
    D. 44% overdose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. In treatment of the mediastinum, following a right lung pneumonectomy, the oblique field should enter on the _________ (right/left) side.
    Right side
  22. The principle concern in localizations of breast lesions is the:
    A. position of axillary nodes
    B. location of the nipple
    C. position of underlying lung
    D. determination of chest contour
    C. position of underlying lung
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Radiotherapy is most often indicated for carcinoma of the __________ portion of the esophagus.
    A. lower
    B. middle
    C. upper
    C. upper
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. During a radiotherapy of the uterus using a 4 field box technique, which field includes the entire urinary bladder?
    1. anterior  2. posterior  3. lateral
    a. 1 & 2
    b. 1 & 3
    c. 2 & 3
    d. 1, 2 & 3
    • c. 2 & 3
    • Posterior & lateral
  25. During XRT of the esophagus, rotational and arc therapy is usually NOT possible because of the:
    1. heart movement 2. spinal curvature 3. position of the esophagus
    a. 1 & 2
    b. 1 & 3
    c. 2 & 3
    d. 1, 2 & 3
    • c. 2 & 3
    • curvature of the spine and position of the esophagus
  26. The AP/PA "stop sign" field is most often used in the treatment of:
    Prostate ca
  27. In order to include the hypogastric nodes in a lateral field of the pelvis, the posterior margin should transect the:
    A. ischial tuberosity
    B. urethra
    C. urinary bladder
    D. rectum
    D. rectum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. The TAR at Dmax is:
    1. always less than or equal to 0
    2. the backscatter factor
    3. dependent on field size
    A. 2 & 3
    B. 1 & 3
    C. 1 & 2
    D. 1, 2 & 3
    D. all of the above
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. An increase in field size will increase dose in the ______ region.
    Build-up
  30. The Maynoerd F factor for a given energy is dependent upon material's:
    A. ground state
    B. atomic number
    C. chemical bonding
    D. physical state 
    B. atomic number
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. The energy range for photon beams above 2 MeV should be measured by:
    A. dosimetric films
    B. half value layers
    C. end error tables
    D. isodose data
    D. isodose data
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The amount of backscattering that occurs in a given treatment volume will increase as the: 
    1. field size increases 2. beam quality increases 3. Dmax increases
    A. 1 only
    B. 3 only
    C. 2 only
    D. 1, 2, & 3
    A. field size increases
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. The amount of backscatter at the depth of the depth maximum becomes negligibly small at beam energies above:
    A. 20 mV
    B. 500 kV
    C.  8 mV
    D. 4 mV
    C. 8 mV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. The scatter-air ratio (SAR) may be used in the determination of the scattered dose produced in:
    1. square fields 2. irregular fields 3. circular fields
    A. 1 & 3
    B. 1, 2 & 3
    C. 2 & 3
    D. 1 & 2
    B. all of the above
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. An isodose curve can be employed to obtain measurements of the depth dose percentage as a function of the transverse distance from the:
    A. tumor location
    B. horizontal axis
    C. treatment surface
    D. central axis
    D. central axis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. When verifying an isodose chart using a water phantom, the acceptable amount of deviation is considered to be ______ or less in depth up to 20 cm.
    A. 4%
    B. 7%
    C. 10%
    D. 2%
    D. 2%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Calculate the Dmax dose for a patient receiving 300 cGy/day for a single AP port to a depth of 8 cm. The PDD is 69.3%
    432 cGy

  38. The backscatter factor (BSF) depends on:
    1. SSD 2. Beam quality 3. Field size
    A. 1 & 2
    B. 2 & 3
    C. 1, 2 & 3
    D. 1 & 3
    B. Beam quality and Field size
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The Clarkson method is useful in the determination of the scatter produced in __________ fields.
    Irregular fields
  40. The ratio of dose at a given point in a medium to the dose at the same point in free space is called the:
    A. percentage depth dose
    B. tissue-air ratio
    C. tissue-maximum ratio
    D. scatter-air ratio
    B. tissue-air ratio (TAR)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Central axis depth dose distribution depends on beam energy, so the depth of a given isodose curve ________ (increases/decreases) with beam energy.
    Increases
  42. A bulge on the lateral region of the isodose curve at depth is most often associated with:
    A. high energy photon beams
    B. tightly collimated beams
    C. low energy beams
    D. high energy particle beams
    C. low energy beams
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. The sharpness of a shielding block gradient is dependent upon:
    1. beam energy 2. block material 3. block divergence
    A. 1 & 3
    B. 1, 2 & 3
    C. 1 & 2
    D. 2 & 3
    A. Beam energy & Block divergence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. The reduction of block transmission penumbra can be accomplished by:
    A. employing divergent blocks
    B. decreasing source to block distance
    C. increasing block thickness
    D. decreasing block thickness
    A. employing divergent blocks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. In general, when shielding blocks are employed, the acceptable amount of primary beam transmission is approximately:
    A. 5%
    B. 1%
    C. 15%
    D. 0.1%
    A. 5%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. During a wedge pair technique, hot spots are most commonly located near the:
    A. middle of the wedge
    B. thin edge of the wedge
    C. thick edge of the wedge
    B. thin edge of the wedge
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Which of the following devices is employed to help obtain proper alignment of a treatment beam?
    A. doggie bowl
    B. front/back pointer
    C. spirit level
    B. front/back pointer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The material most suitable for the reduction of electron contamination in megavoltage units is:
    A. lucite
    B. aluminum
    C. tin
    D. copper
    C. tin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. The minimum thickness for blocks for a Cobalt 60 machine is:
    A. 3 cm lead
    B. 5 cm copper
    C. 5 cm lead
    D. 3 cm aluminum
    C. 5 cm lead
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which of the following block designs permits the longest SSD?
    A. straight blocks
    B. divergent block
    C. interlocking blocks
    B. divergent blocks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. In order to produce the least amount of electron contamination from a shadow tray, the material should have a atomic number of about:
    A. 50
    B. 6
    C. 12
    D. 24
    A. 50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. In order to achieve a 5% or smaller block transmission, it must have a thickness of about:
    A. 2.0 HVL
    B. 1.5 HVL
    C. 2.5 HVL
    D. 5.0 HVL
    D. 5.0 HVL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. The required thickness for a cerrobend block for a narrow photon beam in the 2-22 mV range is about:
    A. 5 cm
    B. 7.5 cm
    C. 1.5 cm
    D. 3 cm
    B. 7.5 cm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. The main advantage of using Lipowitz metal over lead for blocks is that it:
    A. is softer than lead
    B. has a lower melting point
    C. is lighter than lead
    D. requires less thickness than lead
    B. Has a lower melting point
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The tissue most likely to receive the highest dose at a bone tissue interface is bone mineral surrounded by __________.
    Soft tissue

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