EMS Exam 5 Questions

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  1. Which rescuer, relative to the patient, is typically responsible for coordinating patient movement?
    The rescuer at the patient’s head
  2. Unconscious patients who are breathing adequately should be placed in the _____________ position.

    A. unconscious
    B. supine
    C. recovery
    D. prone
    C. recovery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. It is best to use the muscles in your back rather than the muscles in your legs when lifting a patient.

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  4. Which of the following situations does not require an emergency movement of a patient?

    A. There is a danger of fire, explosion, or structural collapse.
    B. Bad weather conditions are present.
    C. The accident scene cannot be protected.
    D. Hazardous materials are present.
    B. Bad weather conditions are present.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which lift should be used for patients without spinal trauma who are lying supine on the ground?
    Direct ground lift
  6. A patient who has fallen from a tree should be moved using a:

    A. portable stretcher.
    B. wheeled ambulance stretcher.
    C. long backboard.
    D. stair chair.
    C. long backboard.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Short backboard devices are intended for use with which type of patient?

    A. patients in a sitting position
    B. patients in a prone position
    C. patients in a standing position
    D. patients in a supine position
    A. patients in a sitting position
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Once a cervical collar is placed on a trauma patient, it is no longer necessary to maintain manual stabilization of the patient’s head.

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  9. How many providers should be available to properly log roll a patient?

    A. three
    B. two
    C. four
    D. one
    C. four
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Describe the steps in preparing a blanket roll.
    • 1. Fold the blanket into a long rectangular shape.
    • 2. Insert a rolled towel and roll the blanket from each end.
    • 3. Roll the ends together.
    • 4. Place extra cravats in between the two rolled ends.
    • 5. Tie the rolled ends together with two cravats.
  11. Which of the following can be used to move a patient who is too heavy for a rescuer to lift or carry?

    A. clothes or blanket drag
    B. arm-to-arm drag 
    C. fire fighter drag
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  12. The two-person extremity:

    A. allows the two rescuers to stand facing each other.
    B. uses the patient's arms and legs.
    C. requires the use of equipment.
    D. all of the above.
    B. uses the patient's arms and legs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The two-person chair carry:

    A. should not be used on stairways.
    B. requires the use of a folding chair.
    C. allows the patient to hold on to the chair.
    D. all of the above.
    C. allows the patient to hold on to the chair.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Transfer of a patient from a bed to a stretcher:

    A. must be used with caution since it could result in poor body mechanics.
    B. should be used only when a patient is unconscious.
    C. requires three rescuers.
    D. all of the above.
    A. must be used with caution since it could result in poor body mechanics.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. A small portable device used for transporting patients in a sitting position is called a:

    A. pack-strap.
    B. scoop stretcher.
    C. reclining stretcher.
    D. stair chair.
    D. stair chair.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. A patient who is in a sitting position and has suffered possible head or spine injuries will probably need a:

    A. scoop stretcher.
    B. long backboard.
    C. stair chair.
    D. short backboard device.
    D. short backboard device.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Both hard and soft cervical collars provide sufficient support for trauma patients. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  18. A patient should be transported on a backboard:

    A. following gunshot wounds to the trunk.
    B. only when he or she is unconscious.
    C. without a cervical collar.
    D. all of the above.
    A. following gunshot wounds to the trunk.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The head and neck of a patient on a backboard:

    A. may be immobilized using foam blocks or a blanket roll.
    B. may be immobilized with a short backboard.
    C. do not need further immobilization.
    D. all of the above.
    A. may be immobilized using foam blocks or a blanket roll.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. The rules of good body mechanics include:

    A. know your limitations.
    B. maintain firm footing.
    C. use your leg muscles to lift.
    D. all of the above.
    D. all of the above.
  21. Unconscious patients who have not sustained injury should be placed in the recovery position to help keep the airway open. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  22. Log rolling requires a team of __________ rescuers.

    A. five
    B. two
    C. four
    D. six
    C. four
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Upon arrival at the scene of an accident or medical emergency:

    A. both A and B.
    B. begin treatment of patients immediately.
    C. park your vehicle as close as possible to patients who may need to be transported.
    D. consider the need for additional help.
    A. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The landing zone for a helicopter at an emergency scene:

    a. should be as flat as possible.
    b. may be determined by EMRs.
    c. needs to be free of loose debris and obstacles.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  25. You should park your emergency vehicles so they protect the scene and warn oncoming traffic. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  26. The job of the dispatcher is to:

    a. obtain information from the caller.
    b. instruct a caller on lifesaving techniques
    c. obtain a call-back number from the caller.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  27. When driving an emergency response vehicle, the use of emergency lights and audible warning devices gives you the right of way. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  28. Which of the following statements regarding loading patients into a helicopter is FALSE?

    A. It is more difficult to load a helicopter stretcher than it is to load an ambulance stretcher.
    B. Secure all loose clothing, sheets, and instruments.
    C. You may approach the helicopter at any time after it has landed as long as you approach from the front.
    d. None of the above.
    C. You may approach the helicopter at any time after it has landed as long as you approach from the front.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Place the following steps of response in the correct order.

    A. postrun activities
    B. arrival at the scene
    C. response to the scene
    D. dispatch
    E. transferring care of the patient to other EMS personnel
    D, C, B, E, A
  30. When preparing for a call, which of the following equipment should be included in your EMR life support kit?

    A.  patient examination equipment
    B.  bandaging and dressing equipment
    C.  extrication equipment
    D.  all of the above
    D.  all of the above
  31. What is the minimum information that should be gathered by dispatch?
    • The nature of the call;
    • the name, call-back number, and present location of the patient;
    • the number of patients;
    • and any special problems
  32. What should you remember about emergency warning devices during your response to the scene?

    A.  They should be used for every emergency response.
    B.  They guarantee the right of way.
    C.  They request the right of way.
    D.  None of the above
    C.  They request the right of way.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. When parking your emergency vehicle at the scene of a crash, you should:

    A. position your vehicle in a safe location.
    B. park as far from the crash as possible.
    C. position your vehicle against a crash vehicle to provide stabilization.
    D. position your vehicle to block all traffic on the road.
    A. position your vehicle in a safe location.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. When transferring care of the patient to other EMS personnel, you should:

    A.  tell them what care you have already provided.
    B.  ask them if they have any questions for you.
    C.  offer to assist them in caring for the patient.
    D.  all of the above.
    D.  all of the above.
  35. Which postrun activities must be completed before you can resume your regular duties?
    • Complete the paperwork,
    • clean your equipment,
    • replace needed supplies.
  36. Helicopters can respond quickly above traffic congestion and wilderness areas.

    A.  True
    B.  False
    A.  True
  37. The main rotor of the helicopter spins at more than ______ and may be just ______ above the ground.

    A.  200 rpm; 3′
    B.  300 rpm; 4′
    C.  300 rpm; 3′
    D.  200 rpm; 4′
    B.  300 rpm; 4′
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Most civilian helicopters need a landing zone of at least:

    A.  150′ ´ 150′.
    B.  25′ ´ 25′.
    C.  100′ ´ 100′.
    D.  50′ ´ 50′.
    C.  100′ ´ 100′.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The "throw" step of the water rescue sequence can be used:

    A. if the victim is in a swimming pool.
    B. if the victim is too far out to be reached.
    C. by rescuers who cannot swim.
    d. all of the above.
    B. if the victim is too far out to be reached.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. If no buoy is available to throw to a water rescue victim, you can use a:

    a. styrofoam cooler.
    b. spare tire.
    c. rope.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  41. In emergency situations, a patient can be removed from the water using:

    A. six people.
    B. a backboard.
    C. a chaise lounge.
    d. all of the above.
    A. six people.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. If you must go out on the ice to rescue a victim:

    A. carry a blanket with you.
    B. kneel or sit on the ice to inch your way out.
    C. secure yourself to shore with a rope around your waist.
    d. all of the above.
    C. secure yourself to shore with a rope around your waist.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Rescue situations involving confined spaces are hazardous because there may be insufficient oxygen or a poisonous gas. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  44. The four steps to water rescue are reach, throw, row, and go. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  45. Below-ground confined spaces include:

    a. manholes.
    b. old mines.
    c. wells.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  46. ALL confined spaces can support life without a self-contained breathing apparatus. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  47. Providing initial emergency care to victims in water rescue situations consists of:

    A. establishing responsiveness and supporting ABCs.
    B. calling for help.
    C. removing patients.
    D. both A and B.
    A.  establishing responsiveness and supporting ABCs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. As an EMR, your first goal in special rescue situations is to:

    A. assess the scene to ensure your safety.
    B. prevent bystanders from getting injured.
    C. rescue the patient.
    D. call for additional resources.
    A. assess the scene to ensure your safety.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. List five of the common hazards found at a motor vehicle crash scene.
    • infectious diseases,
    • traffic,
    • bystanders,
    • spilled gasoline or other hazardous
    • materials,
    • automobile batteries,
    • downed electrical lines,
    • unstable vehicles,
    • vehicle fires
  50. List, in order, the four steps you should follow when attempting water rescue.
    Reach, throw, row, go
  51. Initial treatment of a person in the water includes all of the following except:

    A. opening the airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver.
    B. supporting the back and neck and turning the patient face up.
    C. performing rescue breathing.
    D. performing chest compressions.
    D. performing chest compressions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. When should you expect a spinal cord injury in a water rescue situation?

    A. when the patient is unresponsive
    B. when the patient is responsive and complaining of numbness and tingling
    C. when the patient is responsive and complaining of neck pain
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  53. Both air embolisms and decompression sickness are caused by:

    A. air bubbles released in the body.
    B. running out of air while diving.
    C. the patient holding his or her breath while coming to the surface.
    D. diving in water that is too cold.
    A. air bubbles released in the body.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. If you must go onto ice to attempt a rescue, you should try to spread your weight over a wider area.

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  55. Besides drowning, what is the major concern associated with ice rescue situations?

    A. getting the victim’s car off the ice
    B. lacerations from broken ice
    C. slips and falls
    D. hypothermia
    D. hypothermia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Emergencies involving farm silos should be treated as which type of incident?

    A. confined space
    B. mass casualty
    C. hazardous material
    D. routine medical emergency
    A. confined space
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Once you determine an accident scene involving a bus is safe, what should your first step be?

    A. Stop all traffic on the road to avoid hampering the police investigation.
    B. Choose a victim and begin treating him or her.
    C. Try to remove as many victims from the bus as possible.
    D. Initiate the START triage system.
    D. Initiate the START triage system.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. What is another term for the area contaminated by hazardous materials?

    A. cold zone
    B. hot zone
    C. neutral zone
    D. warm zone
    B. hot zone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. What is the purpose of triage?

    A. to ensure that the most critical patients receive treatment first
    B. to convey to others how many patients require treatment and the severity of their injuries
    C. to transport patients to the appropriate facility
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  60. The first step in the START system is to:

    A. instruct patients who can walk to move to a specified area.
    B. begin tagging patients.
    C. walk among the injured patients.
    D. ask each patient if he or she can walk to a different area.
    A. instruct patients who can walk to move to a specified area.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. What is a weapon of mass destruction?
    Any agent designed to bring about mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructure
  62. A secondary explosive device refers to a device that is intended to:

    A. minimize the initial explosion.
    B. make the initial explosion more intensive.
    C. defuse the initial explosive device.
    D. explode when rescuers have arrived on the scene.
    D. explode when rescuers have arrived on the scene.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Pulmonary agents used in weapons of mass destruction tend to cause which sign or symptom?

    A. shortness of breath
    B. bleeding in the lungs
    C. vomiting
    D. blistering on the skin
    A. shortness of breath
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. What does each letter in the acronym SLUDGE represent?

    S _______________
    L _______________
    U _______________
    D _______________
    G _______________
    E _______________
    • Salivation, sweating;
    • lacrimation;
    • urination;
    • defecation, diarrhea;
    • gastric upset;
    • emesis
  65. What is the EMR’s primary responsibility when responding to a report of a nerve agent release?

    A. Remove victims from the scene.
    B. Ensure personal safety so as not to become contaminated.
    C. Determine exactly which nerve agent has been released.
    D. Administer Mark 1 kits to the incoming rescuers.
    B. Ensure personal safety so as not to become contaminated.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. What is the incubation period for biologic agents?

    A. the time it takes for the number of organisms to double
    B. the time it takes for the disease to respond to treatment
    C. the time it takes for the agent to enter a human
    D. the time it takes from exposure to showing signs and/or symptoms
    D. the time it takes from exposure to showing signs and/or symptoms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. What is a dirty bomb?
    An explosive device containing a small amount of radioactive material
  68. Hazardous materials are substances that are:

    a. toxic.
    b. flammable.
    c. explosive.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  69. The Emergency Response Guidebook, published by the US Department of Transportation:

    a. lists the most common hazardous materials.
    b. describes the emergency care of patients who have become ill or injured after being exposed to hazardous materials.
    c. should be carried in all emergency response vehicles.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  70. A mass-casualty incident is an incident involving 10 or more people. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    FALSE
  71. When triaging patients, those who are able to get up and walk to a specified area are classified as: 

    A. Priority Two.
    B. Priority Four.
    C. Priority One.
    D. Priority Three.
    D. Priority Three.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Terrorism is most accurately defined as:

    A. the preplanned and well-funded attack on a government building in order to send a specific message.
    B. a spontaneous event that occurs when a group of radicals becomes enraged at a political decision.
    C. the systematic use of violence by a group to intimidate a population or government to achieve a goal.
    D. a preplanned sequence of events specifically designed to create mass death and destruction.
    C. the systematic use of violence by a group to intimidate a population or government to achieve a goal.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as:

    A. a chemical, biologic, or radiologic agent that is intended to kill at least 100,000 human beings.
    B. a specific agent or device used to completely destroy a country's important structures.
    C. any agent designed to cause mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructure.
    D. any device that is used to create panic and intimidation on its target, but a limited number of deaths.
    C. any agent designed to cause mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Ecoterrorists would MOST likely target:

    A. the Washington Monument.
    B. a large bridge.
    C. automobile dealerships and housing developments.
    D. underground tunnels.
    C. automobile dealerships and housing developments.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. The Statue of Liberty would be a target for terrorists because of its:

    A. ease of destruction.
    B. geographic location.
    C. monetary value.
    D. symbolic value.
    D. symbolic value.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. The leading cause of death in the United States is:

    A. cancer.
    B. terrorism.
    C. heart disease.
    D. homicide.
    C. heart disease.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. An example of an incendiary device is a:

    A. simple virus.
    B. bacterium.
    C. pipe bomb.
    D. metabolic agent.
    C. pipe bomb.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. A nerve agent is a form of:

    A. metabolic warfare.
    B. nuclear warfare.
    C. biologic warfare.
    D. chemical warfare.
    D. chemical warfare.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. The acronym SLUDGE is used to describe symptoms from which type of poisoning?

    A. blister agents
    B. both A and B
    C. organophosphates
    D. nerve agents
    B.  both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
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EMS Exam 5 Questions
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ch. 18-21
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