2T271N 01 1206 Edit Code 04

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DGL2014
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274340
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2T271N 01 1206 Edit Code 04
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2014-08-23 00:14:48
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2T271 01 1206 Edit Code 04
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  1. When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?
    A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
    B. Check your email and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule.
    C. Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in.
    D. Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed.
    A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?
    A. Verify all personnel have all required safety equipment and documentation to perform their duties.
    B. Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short manned.
    C. Give a safety briefing, stressing anything that may apply to the day's activities.
    D. Take roll, verify all appointments, and identify the daily or weekly goals.
    B. Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short manned.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?
    A. Considering their safety and security.
    B. Assigning them to the same duties every day.
    C. Knowing your people and the work center's current and future needs.
    D. Communicating your expectations to the work crews.
    B. Assigning them to the same duties every day.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Within how many days from the last day of the month must the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?
    A. 10.
    B. 20.
    C. 30.
    D. 45.
    B. 20.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. It is important for you and your subordinates to accurately complete the workload documents for your work center, such as the AMC Form 56, Rehandled Workload, because
    A. capturing aircraft delays is critical to streamlining work center processes, which has a direct impact on which type of shift you work.
    B. they are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.
    C. the work center superintendent reviews them daily and asks questions about the missions, which has a direct impact on your performance report.
    D. they are inspected during unit compliance and operational readiness inspections, which has a direct impact on your pass or failure.
    B. they are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. If your unit moved 20,000 pounds of cargo in July, what number would you enter in the appropriate block of the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
    A. 20K.
    B. 2.
    C. 20,000.
    D. 10.
    D. 10.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which type of manpower authorizations do you use for preparing the work center data on the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, and from which document do you take the data?
    A. Unfunded; UPMR.
    B. Funded; Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
    C. Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
    D. Unfunded; UMD.
    C. Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. If it takes your work center personnel over 30 minutes to drive to the C130 parking area for each K-loader load, which section would you enter this information on the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
    A. You would not enter this information on the report.
    B. Section IV, Aircraft Handled by Type.
    C. Section XII, Remarks.
    D. Section III, General Information.
    C. Section XII, Remarks.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. When commanders receive results from self-inspections, they will use those results to 
    A. assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies.
    B. assess mission readiness for use on enlisted performance reports.
    C. stratify key personnel within each unit for whom to submit annual and quarterly awards packages.
    D. stratify key personnel within each unit to professionally develop lower-ranking individuals.
    A. assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. If a commander directs a self-inspection, when may he or she do so?
    A. Every six months.
    B. At any time.
    C. Every quarter.
    D. Annually.
    B. At any time.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. If a unit does not receive an inspection during an active Special Interest Item (SII) period, after direction from Headquarters AMC, the unit will
    A. notify the Wing Commander of the oversight and request an inspection through the MAJCOM.
    B. notify the MAJCOM commander of the oversight and reschedule the inspection for a later date.
    C. conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation.
    D. conduct a self-inspection on all programs and return the results through the numbered AF.
    C. conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. How often will you accomplish self-inspection checklists if assigned to an active duty and ANG unit, respectively?
    A. Every six months/annually.
    B. Every quarter/annually.
    C. Annually, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
    D. Every six months, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
    C. Annually, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which is not a level of war?
    A. Tactical only.
    B. Offensive.
    C. Strategic.
    D. Operational.
    B. Offensive.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?
    A. Strategic, operational, and tactical.
    B. Strategic, offensive, and tactical.
    C. Tactical only.
    D. Tactical and strategic only.
    A. Strategic, operational, and tactical.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?
    A. Operational contract support.
    B. Health Service Support.
    C. Deployment and distribution.
    D. Supply.
    C. Deployment and distribution.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the continental US (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?
    A. Civil Support.
    B. Theater.
    C. Strategic.
    D. Tactical.
    C. Strategic.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. How far in advance are long-range cargo requirements submitted to AMC?
    A. 11 months before the fiscal year being reported.
    B. 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.
    C. 11 months before the calendar year being reported.
    D. 23 months before the calendar year being reported.
    B. 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?
    A. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
    B. Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
    C. Operational Plan (OPLAN).
    D. Operation order (OPORD).
    C. Operational Plan (OPLAN).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Which type of plan's extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?
    A. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
    B. Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).
    C. Operational Plan (OPLAN).
    D. Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
    A. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. What is the objective of concept planning?
    A. Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.
    B. Identify specific units that will provide the needed capability for the operation.
    C. Provide strategic guidance that can be used to direct and maintain force data for both major command and base-level purposes.
    D. Calculate detailed support requirements and prepare Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).
    A. Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it's necessary for an operation?
    A. Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
    B. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
    C. Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).
    D. Operation order (OPORD).
    B. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?
    A. Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks.
    B. Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift requirements are submitted to HQ AMC.
    C. Headquarters AMC prepares a report that is distributed to logistics planners for deployment execution.
    D. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into USAF plans.
    D. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into USAF plans.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. What is the Air Force's war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?
    A. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
    B. Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS).
    C. Geographic Location File (GEOFILE).
    D. Time-phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).
    A. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The relationship between a plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) and an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan (CONPLAN) is that a PID corresponds directly to either
    A. An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.
    B. Cargo category code contained within the type unit characteristics (TUCHA) file and contains detailed OPLAN and CONPLAN data.
    C. Unit type code and contains all of the OPLANs and CONPLANs associated with the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).
    D. National Air Mobility System (NAMS) and contains all of the data used to aggregate cargo category codes with the OPLAN or CONPLAN.
    A. An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. If you are assigned to the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), you are responsible for
    A. Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
    B. Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
    C. Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
    D. Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
    B. Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. If you are assigned to the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF), you are responsible for
    A. Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
    B. Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
    C. Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
    D. Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
    B. Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training you should receive?
    A. Initial.
    B. Refresher.
    C. Weak Area.
    D. New procedure.
    A. Initial.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
    A. Provide for contingency or peacetime planning purposes.
    B. Used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces of war.
    C. Provide data critical to crisis planning.
    D. Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.
    D. Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every
    A. 30 days or when changes affect your units overall category level (C-level).
    B. 90 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall C-level.
    C. 30 days or before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation.
    D. 90 days or before every AEF tempo band rotation.
    A. 30 days or when changes affect your units overall category level (C-level).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which Air Force (AF) form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit’s Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report?
    A. AF Form 632.
    B. AF Form 623.
    C. AF Form 732.
    D. AF Form 723.
    D. AF Form 723.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
    A. C-2.
    B. C-3.
    C. C-4.
    D. C-1.
    A. C-2.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
    A. C-3.
    B. C-4.
    C. C-2.
    D. C-1.
    A. C-3.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to
    A. Assign valid unit line numbers to the proper tasking.
    B. Ensure a solid C-level.
    C. Keep your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed.
    D. Smooth AEF execution.
    D. Smooth AEF execution.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit’s ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to
    A. Reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycles until you can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies.
    B. Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.
    C. Request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle unit until the MAJCOM can provide resource support.
    D. Remove your unit from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo band cycle until the deficiencies are corrected.
    B. Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. What are the relationships between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan?
    A. ESSP, the prime focus of part 2 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies limiting factors and shortages.
    B. ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.
    C. IGESP/ESP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the ESSP.
    D. ESSP, the prime focus of part 3 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies overages and shortfalls.
    B. ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which of the following is not one of the three specific objectives within part 2 of the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
    A. Assesses the ability to support the operation.
    B. Allocates resources previously identified in part 1.
    C. Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.
    D. Identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls, and overages.
    C. Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. When reviewing deployment procedures outlined in the installation deployment plan (IDP), what crucial element in each step of the process must you and the installation deployment officer always consider?
    A. Flexibility.
    B. Infrastructure.
    C. Clarity.
    D. Operational Risk Management (ORM).
    D. Operational Risk Management (ORM).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. What is the primary purpose of support agreements?
    A. Develop local support guidance explaining how all units will deploy from the installation.
    B. Define local processes, procedures, and resources that will be used when deploying forces.
    C. Ensure the support process runs efficiently with all units prepared to deploy.
    D. Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.
    D. Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, which type of support agreement is required?
    A. Intraservice.
    B. Intragovernmental.
    C. Interservice.
    D. Intergovernmental.
    A. Intraservice.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?
    A. Intragovernmental.
    B. Intraservice.
    C. Intergovernmental.
    D. Interservice.
    D. Interservice.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, on which form would that arrangement need to be documented?
    A. AF Form 1144.
    B. DD Form 4411.
    C. DD Form 1144.
    D. AF Form 4411.
    C. DD Form 1144.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which of the following documents?
    A. Installation support plan (ISP) or an MOA.
    B. Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
    C. Memorandum of support (MOS) or a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA).
    D. ISP or an MOU.
    B. Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?
    A. The installation will fund these requirements.
    B. SrA Williams must provide her own gear to be an augmentee.
    C. The unit to which SrA Williams is normally assigned.
    D. The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.
    D. The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because.
    A. Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.
    B. If they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay.
    C. Augmentation support must be explicitly documented in the individual’s contract before performing augmentation duties.
    D. Of the legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations that are too difficult to work around.
    A. Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Which product is the primary documents reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
    A. AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107.
    B. Work Center Rotation Schedule (WCRS).
    C. Unit Manpower Documents (UMD).
    D. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
    C. Unit Manpower Documents (UMD).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. A “1” under the fiscal year and quarter column on the Unit Management Document (UMD) indicates the
    A. Number of positions that exist for the specified organizational structure code (OSC).
    B. Specified position is unfunded for that quarter.
    C. Number of positions that exist for the specified grade.
    D. Specified position is funded for that quarter.
    D. Specified position is funded for that quarter.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. When performing a joint inspection (JI), you annotate the “start time” block on DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, by entering the
    A. Local time the JI actually started.
    B. Greenwich Meantime the JI actually started.
    C. Local time the JI is scheduled to start.
    D. Greenwich Meantime the JI is scheduled to start.
    A. Local time the JI actually started.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. When performing a joint inspection (JI), how will you annotate the DD Form 2133 if an item on the list is satisfactory?
    A. An “X”.
    B. Leave it blank.
    C. A check mark.
    D. Circle it.
    C. A check mark.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark a nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure that
    A. You verify the material inside the cart is, in fact, nitrogen.
    B. Vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time.
    C. Valve stems on the pressure panel are serviceable and caps are present and properly installed.
    D. You release the valves on the left side of the cart so the nitrogen does not expand in flight.
    B. Vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark an internal slingable unit (ISU) as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure the cargo within it is secured and restrained
    A. To allow room for hazardous materials to expand and reduce during flight.
    B. To prevent movement and damage during flight.
    C. With three 2 x 4 wooden beams spanning the width of the ISU.
    D. With ¼ inch nylon rope to secure all hazardous materials to the doors to prevent opening.
    B. To prevent movement and damage during flight.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. When processing Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, how must the cargo be stored to allow for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material?
    A. Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.
    B. In the supervisors office or in the truck, ready for loading.
    C. Separated from hazardous materials by at least 88 inches in all directions.
    D. The cargo moves too quickly to be stored.
    A. Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments are transferred on a hand receipt basis using
    A. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests.
    B. An AMC Form 35, Terminating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
    C. An AMC Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
    D. A Department of Defense (DD) Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification.
    A. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. When using category B passenger missions to move Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, the shipment must fit into the baggage compartment and not exceed
    A. 200 pounds
    B. 150 pounds
    C. 50 pounds
    D. 100 pounds
    D. 100 pounds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. When processing an originating Air Mobility Command (AMC) Mission Capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, which form do you use to control and monitor each shipment?
    A. AF Form 35, Terminating Control Log.
    B. AMC Form 35, Terminating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
    C. Air Force (AF) Form 36, Originating Control Log.
    D. Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
    D. Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Ramstein AB, Germany, notify after a green sheet request submitted?
    A. Load planning.
    B. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
    C. Special Handling.
    D. Customer Service Branch (CSB).
    A. Load planning.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Travis AFB, California, notify after a green sheet request is submitted?
    A. Special Handling.
    B. Load Planning.
    C. Customer Service Branch (CSB).
    D. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
    C. Customer Service Branch (CSB).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. You have received and signed an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 101, Green Sheet Request. What is entered into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) in the prime Transportation Control Movement Document (TCMD) record and trailer data to show the shipment as green sheet?
    A. “T_I” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only.
    B. A “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only.
    C. “GI” in the miscellaneous information block and “G” in the special priority field only.
    D. "T_I” in the miscellaneous information block and “GS” in the special priority field only.
    B. A “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. When processing palletized green sheet cargo using manual procedures, what two documents must you annotate to ensure that the shipment is properly identified?
    A. Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 101, Green Sheet Request, and the DD Form 1015, Certification Request.
    B. The pallet contents listing and the manifest.
    C. DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification, and the DD Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record.
    D. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and the DD Form 2775, pallet identifier.
    D. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and the DD Form 2775, pallet identifier.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. If you do not have enough airlift to move all green sheet cargo on hand for a particular destination, how do you move the remaining cargo and who must you notify?
    A. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC.
    B. By destination, priority, and system entry time; notify the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC).
    C. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the air terminal operations officer.
    D. By destination, priority, and system entry time; notify the air terminal operations officer.
    A. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. When processing purple sheet cargo, if the shipment is not transportation priority one with an expedited handling indicator of “999,” what do you enter into the appropriate fields in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?
    A. PS9; “TP1”
    B. TP1; “999”
    C. PS1; “999”
    D. TP9; “PS”
    B. TP1; “999”
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. When you are processing the inspecting the DD Form 1387-2, Special Handing Data/Certification, for a classified shipment, if none of the information entered in the blocks of the form is classified, the shipper completes how many total copies of the form?
    A. Four
    B. Two
    C. One
    D. Three
    A. Four
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. When a classified shipment arrives damaged or improperly documented, packaged, marked, or labled at an originating station, you refuse the shipment unless
    A. The duty officer authorizes acceptance.
    B. It arrives by commercial conveyance.
    C. You can correct the discrepancy yourself.
    D. The Customer Service Branch (CSB) can correct the discrepancy the same day.
    B. It arrives by commercial conveyance.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Security and classified shipments must be inventoried and accountability transferred using an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 214, Security Cage Log, or equivalent. This action is required
    A. As close to 0001 hours local time each Sunday.
    B. Each time a shipment is placed in or removed from the storage facility.
    C. At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.
    D. Once daily at any point throughout the day, mission permitting.
    C. At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. When processing Defense Courier Service (DCS) material, the DCS representative’s first choice to escort the material in the absence of a dedicated courier is
    A. A space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers.
    B. An eligible space available passenger who consents to the designation.
    C. A commercial carrier representative with proper identification.
    D. A military aircrew personnel, E-5 and above.
    A. A space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. What must you place inside the container for use at the destination station before sealing a container of registered mail?
    A. Copy of the registered mail manifest.
    B. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record.
    C. Boxcar seal.
    D. Content listing.
    D. Content listing.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. After you have containerized registered mail shipments into one box, what is the first step in sealing the container?
    A. Band the containers with four metal or plastic bands, two along the width and two along the length.
    B. Place a boxcar seal at the band crimp where it cannot be removed if the bands were cut.
    C. Assign pallet identifiers to the container and cap the pallet as a skid using 0.5 in the equivalent positions column.
    D. Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both individuals’ signatures, across the tape.
    D. Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both individuals’ signatures, across the tape.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. What must you do before aircraft departure if an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail shipment?
    A. Write a statement on the manifest with the discrepancy and notify the downline station to correct it.
    B. Annotate the incorrect mail shipment as a short shipment and hand scribe the correct information at the bottom of the manifest.
    C. Correct it and generate a new manifest.
    D. Correct it by making pen-and-ink changes to the manifest.
    C. Correct it and generate a new manifest.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission, you and the aircrew member will
    A. Sign across the tape of the container to signify joint custody.
    B. Inspect the container to verify the contents.
    C. Reseal the container to ensure safe off-load operations.
    D. Download the container and generate a new manifest to ensure expedited handling and accuracy.
    B. Inspect the container to verify the contents.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. You are receipting for a terminating registered mail shipment and the manifested transportation control number (TCN) does not match the TCN on the shipment. What is your nest step after annotating the manifested TCN as a short shipment and listing the correct TCN at the bottom of the manifest as an over shipment?
    A. Bump the shipment and generate a new manifest only.
    B. Both you and the crew member sign the manifest to confirm the discrepancy only.
    C. Annotate the original copy of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.
    D. Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.
    D. Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. What should you do if human remains are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available?
    A. Frustrate the shipment.
    B. Contact mortuary affairs.
    C. Refuse the shipment.
    D. Notify the escort.
    B. Contact mortuary affairs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Where are human remains loaded when considering the possibility that cargo jettisoning may occur?
    A. In the forward-most available level cargo position.
    B. On the ramp; they can be moved to the side, if necessary.
    C. In the forward-most available cargo position; remains cannot be jettisoned.
    D. In the rear-most available level cargo position.
    A. In the forward-most available level cargo position.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. When must you review the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 106, Biologicals/Reicing/Refrigeration Log, to ensure that perishable shipment reicing is accomplished as necessary?
    A. Once a month.
    B. At the beginning of each shift.
    C. Once a day.
    D. Once a week.
    B. At the beginning of each shift.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. When can you open a diagnostic specimen shipment to reice it?
    A. Anytime.
    B. Never.
    C. When closing instructions are provided with the shipment.
    D. When the specimen is contained in double bags and each bag is individually sealed.
    C. When closing instructions are provided with the shipment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. As a member of the special handling section, you’re handed a piece of unclassified cargo identified as nuclear weapons related material (NWRM). This cargo is treated as
    A. Nuclear surety materials.
    B. Unclassified material.
    C. Classified or unclassified assemblies.
    D. Classified, protected cargo.
    D. Classified, protected cargo.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. “Assemblies and subassemblies identified by the military departments that comprise or could compromise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle” is the Office of the Secretary of Defense definition of what type of material?
    A. Nuclear material.
    B. Special nuclear materials.
    C. Nuclear weapons related material.
    D. Nuclear surety material.
    C. Nuclear weapons related material.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. In addition to individuals who are required by function to handle nuclear weapons related material (NWRM), what percentage of authorized aerial port personnel must be appointed in writing and must complete the NWRM fundamentals course annually?
    A. 25%.
    B. 20%.
    C. 5%.
    D. 10%.
    C. 5%.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. During engine running on/off load (ERO) operations, the aircraft engines must be in what mode before load team members approach the aircraft?
    A. Low speed ground idle only.
    B. Reverse thrust or shut down only.
    C. Forward thrust or low speed ground idle only.
    D. Low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only.
    D. Low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. During engine running on/off load (ERO) operations, after being signaled by an aircrew member, load team members use a route that takes them
    A. Perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
    B. Directly centerline to the aircraft ramp to help the loadmaster lower it.
    C. Most directly to the aircraft and is the shortest route possible.
    D. Parallel to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
    A. Perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. During engine running on/off load (ERO) operations, who must you coordinate with before off loading passengers through the crew entrance door?
    A. Aircraft commander, the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) and ERO functional areas only.
    B. Airfield manager, command post and ERO functional areas only.
    C. Aircraft commander, command post and ERO functional areas only.
    D. Airfield manager, the Maintenance Operations Control Center (MOCC) and ERO functional areas only.
    C. Aircraft commander, command post and ERO functional areas only.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Before entering an area where concurrent servicing operations are already in progress, you must report to the
    A. Fuels operator.
    B. Loadmaster/boom operator.
    C. Concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS).
    D. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
    C. Concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. During concurrent servicing operations, what action must you take if a spark occurs when you first ground yourself?
    A. Remove all laptop computers, cell phones and radio equipment from your vicinity.
    B. Exit the flight line area until your electrostatic discharge dissipates.
    C. Change the battery on your radio before conducting any loading operations.
    D. Reground yourself periodically during operations.
    D. Reground yourself periodically during operations.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. During the concurrent servicing operations, passengers can enter or exit the aircraft only if
    A. The load team is conducting winching operations.
    B. A jet way or stairs are used and the load team is conducting winching operations.
    C. A jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.
    D. Refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.
    C. A jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. A passenger is considered a deportee when she or he
    A. Is traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member when returning to the CONUS.
    B. Is an unauthorized person aboard an aircraft is not listed on the flight manifest.
    C. Fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country.
    D. Is performing duties directly associated with a particular mission, aircrew or aircraft.
    C. Fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests honors while traveling, which DV honors code do you use?
    A. H.
    B. O.
    C. T.
    D. M.
    A. H.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests transportation, which DV honors code do you use?
    A. H.
    B. T.
    C. M.
    D. O.
    B. T.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests quarters only, which DV honors code do you use?
    A. M.
    B. T.
    C. Q.
    D. H.
    C. Q.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Which feature on some organic aircraft allows a large bodied passenger to use standard seat belts?
    A. Aft facing seats with removable arm rests.
    B. Side wall seats designed to carry fully equipped paratroopers.
    C. Side wall seats with optional seat belt extensions.
    D. Aft facing seats with reclining capabilities.
    B. Side wall seats designed to carry fully equipped paratroopers.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. What must a female passenger who is less than 6 weeks postpartum present to passenger agents in order to travel?
    A. Females less than 6 weeks postpartum are never authorized to travel.
    B. The infant’s birth certificate with a legible date of birth and signature of the medical doctor.
    C. A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.
    D. A waiver from HQ Air Mobility Command (AMC).
    C. A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Which unique passenger would cause transportation working capital fund (TWCF) cargo to be downloaded up to two hours prior to aircraft block time?
    A. Mission route support (MRS).
    B. Air Mobility Command (AMC) mobility mission observers (MMO).
    C. Phoenix Raven (PR).
    D. Defense courier service (DCS).
    A. Mission route support (MRS).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger notifies the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) within three hours of aircraft departure, then he/she
    A. Will be added to the mission if there are space available passengers on board that can be bumped.
    B. Is normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already manifested passengers.
    C. Can proceed directly to the aircraft at any time within the three hour time frame.
    D. Can request cargo be downloaded to accommodate the number of personnel traveling in his/her group.
    B. Is normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already manifested passengers.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. If a customer has a problem, what is the most important thing you can do to provide great customer service?
    A. Listen.
    B. Speak clearly.
    C. Ensure you are in compliance with AFI 36-2903, Discrepancy Report.
    D. Smile.
    A. Listen.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. In which two ways can you build rapport with your customers?
    A. Enunciating your words and speaking slowly.
    B. Listening and asking good questions.
    C. Being prepared for what you’re going to say next.
    D. Speaking clearly and quickly enough so you’re not wasting their time.
    B. Listening and asking good questions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Once you receive a mission load report (MLR) from the previous station, your next step is to
    A. Give it to the ramp controller for reference and coordination.
    B. File it in the station copy file.
    C. Determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.
    D. Notify the Tanker Aircraft Control Center (TACC) of any special handling cargo or passengers.
    C. Determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), you forward the report to the downline stations after the
    A. Senior controller approves it, but no later than 20 minutes after mission departure.
    B. Port operations officer approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.
    C. Port operations officer approves it, but no later than 20 minutes after mission departure.
    D. Senior controller approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.
    D. Senior controller approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. You are accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) without the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES). What document does the load information come from?
    A. DD Form 1015, Computer Aided Load Manifest.
    B. DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD).
    C. DD Form 463, Automated Air Load Planning System Worksheet.
    D. AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.
    D. AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), when the cargo breakdown section includes rolling stock and multipallet trains, what other information about those items is included?
    A. If any of the items are inoperative on board the aircraft.
    B. The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.
    C. If security guards are required for any of the items.
    D. The equipment that will be needed to off load the items and other helpful remarks.
    B. The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) with human remains cargo on board, which of the following answers best represents the information that must be included in the report and in which section the information is placed.
    A. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/123-45-6789; hazardous cargo section.
    B. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; hazardous cargo section.
    C. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/123-45-6789; special interest cargo section.
    D. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.
    D. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, what do you enter into the Location block for Air Mobility Command Mission Capable (AMC MICAP) shipments?
    A. The pallet position the AMC MICAP is located on the aircraft.
    B. The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined.
    C. The location of your station.
    D. The current location of the AMC MICAP shipment.
    B. The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, in the Explosives block for cargo/mail data off load you enter the total
    A. Weight of thru load and off load explosives on the aircraft.
    B. Weight of explosives off loaded at your station.
    C. Net explosives weight (NEW) of explosives off loaded at your station.
    D. NEW of thru load and off load explosives on the aircraft.
    B. Weight of explosives off loaded at your station.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. When completing the outbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, you enter in the Loadmaster Scheduled Show block the loadmaster/boom operator scheduled show time
    A. and the initials of the command post representative passing the information only.
    B. And the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only.
    C. And the initials of the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) representative receiving the information only.
    D. Only.
    B. And the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. When completing the outbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, the Telecon Coordination block is completed when the
    A. Folder has been reviewed and mission history passed to records via telephone.
    B. Aircraft is in commission as received via telephone through the maintenance operations control center.
    C. Aircraft load message is passed by telephone for short flights.
    D. Loadmaster/boom operator calls in as available for duty.
    C. Aircraft load message is passed by telephone for short flights.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. When accomplishing airlift capability schedules, what is your next step after extracting the necessary data from the command and control systems or published schedules?
    A. Adjust airlift as necessary.
    B. Update the work centers with changed or new information.
    C. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.
    D. Monitor the schedules.
    C. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. When clearing explosives shipments, request port to port clearance at the earliest possible date, but no later than
    A. 12 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only.
    B. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time only.
    C. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only.
    D. 12 hours prior to the mission’s departure time only.
    C. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. When requesting port to port clearance of explosives, which of the following is not required on the explosives clearance request?
    A. Requested departure date.
    B. Pieces/weight/cube.
    C. Mission number.
    D. Proper shipping name (PSN) and United Nations (UN) number.
    A. Requested departure date.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Who is considered to be the “eyes and ears” of the administrative contracting officer?
    A. Commercial load validator personnel.
    B. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel.
    C. Contract Officer Representative (COR).
    D. Squadron operations officer.
    C. Contract Officer Representative (COR).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Which form is used only to report contract discrepancies or violations to higher headquarters?
    A. AMC Form 166c, In flight Surveillance Activity Checklist.
    B. AMC Form 166b, Contract Discrepancy or Violation Notice Civil Airlift.
    C. AMC Form 166d, Preflight/In flight Surveillance and Violation Report.
    D. AMC Form 166a, Preflight Surveillance Activity Checklist.
    B. AMC Form 166b, Contract Discrepancy or Violation Notice Civil Airlift.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Which three levels of discrepancies can commercial carriers receive from the Contract Officer Representative (COR) when using the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 166a, Preflight Surveillance Activity Checklist?
    A. Go, no go and partially proficient.
    B. Passenger, cargo and general operations.
    C. Critical, major and minor.
    D. Satisfactory, unsatisfactory and not applicable.
    C. Critical, major and minor.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. When conducting an air terminal inventory, what should you do if you find a discrepancy on a pallet that you cannot correct?
    A. Enter the discrepancy into the trailer data so the downline station can fix it upon arrival.
    B. Place the pallet in FR7 status and notify the Air Clearance Authority (ACA).
    C. Let the appropriate work center know so they can fix it.
    D. Delete the pallet from the system and prepare a deleted pallet report.
    C. Let the appropriate work center know so they can fix it.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. When conducting an air terminal inventory on loose cargo, in addition to verifying the aerial port of debarkation (APOD), transportation control number (TCN), date received, and air commodity/special handling code, you must also verify the warehouse location,
    A. Configuration, number of pieces, weight and cube only.
    B. Number of pieces, weight and cube only.
    C. Priority, number of pieces, weight and cube only.
    D. Aerial port of embarkation (APOE), priority and number of pieces only.
    C. Priority, number of pieces, weight and cube only.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. When selecting cargo by priority for a mission to Ramstein AB, Germany, which of the following pieces of cargo would you select first based on transportation priority (TP), expedited handling indicators and system entry time (SET) in Greenwich Meantime (GMT)?
    A. TP1; 999; SET: 25 July 09/1440 GMT.
    B. TP1; SET: 25 July 09/1630 GMT.
    C. TP1; SET: 25 July 09/1430 GMT.
    D. TP2; 777; SET: 25 July 09/1400 GMT.
    A. TP1; 999; SET: 25 July 09/1440 GMT.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. When selecting cargo by priority for a mission to Hickam AB, Hawaii, which of the following pieces of cargo would you select first based on transportation priority (TP), expedited handling indicators and system entry time (SET) in Greenwich Meantime (GMT) and other factors?
    A. A canned engine; TP1, 777, SET: 25 July 09/1430 GMT.
    B. An armored personnel carrier; TP1, SET: 25 July 09/1640 GMT.
    C. A T4 multipallet train; TP1, 777; SET: 25 July 09/1630 GMT.
    D. Registered mail; TP1; SET: 25 July 09/1645 GMT.
    D. Registered mail; TP1; SET: 25 July 09/1645 GMT.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. When computing an aircraft critical leg allowable cabin load (ACL), the two numbers you must add to equal the total aircraft weight upon takeoff include the aircraft
    A. Operating weight and takeoff fuel weight.
    B. Basic weight and fuel weight.
    C. Operating weight and cargo weight.
    D. Basic weight and payload weight.
    A. Operating weight and takeoff fuel weight.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Which activity completes the task of manual cargo selection?
    A. Maintaining the pallet contents listing file.
    B. Inspecting the cargo.
    C. Determining the aircraft critical leg allowable cabin load (ACL).
    D. Conducting an inventory on the cargo you selected.
    A. Maintaining the pallet contents listing file.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which formula do you use to determine the shoring requirements for skidded cargo?
    A. Diameter2 x number of skids.
    B. L x W x 0.785 x number of skids.
    C. L x W x number of skids.
    D. L x W.
    C. L x W x number of skids.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Which formula do you use when determining the shoring requirements for drums with rims
    A. Diameter2 x 0.785.
    B. Outside rim diameter2 – inside rim diameter2 x 0.785.
    C. Diameter2 x 0.875.
    D. Inside rim diameter2 – outside rim diameter2 x 0.785.
    B. Outside rim diameter2 – inside rim diameter2 x 0.785.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. When determining shoring requirements, you determine the wheel load for a vehicle by dividing the
    A. Gross vehicle weight by the number of wheels on the vehicle.
    B. Gross vehicle weight by the number of axles.
    C. Number of wheels on each axle by the axle weight.
    D. Axle weight by the number of wheels on each axle.
    D. Axle weight by the number of wheels on each axle.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. When determining shoring requirements for a drum with a rim, after doubling the thickness of the shoring,
    A. Add it to the outside diameter and subtract it from the inside diameter.
    B. Subtract it from the outside diameter and add it to the inside diameter.
    C. Subtract it from the outside and inside diameters.
    D. Add it to the outside and inside diameters.
    A. Add it to the outside diameter and subtract it from the inside diameter.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. When preparing a load plan, which type will units and aerial port personnel use for mobility moves, contingencies and channel missions outside of Air Mobility Command (AMC) if they have the capability?
    A. Automated air load planning system (AALPS)/Integrated Computerized Deployment System (ICODES) Load Plans.
    B. DD Form 2131-XX-series load plans.
    C. AF IMT 4090, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.
    D. Computer automated load manifesting load plans.
    A. Automated air load planning system (AALPS)/Integrated Computerized Deployment System (ICODES) Load Plans.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. When preparing a load plan, which type do you use for Air Mobility Command (AMC) channel missions?
    A. Automated Air Load Planning System (AALPS)/Integrated Computerized Deployment System (ICODES) load plans.
    B. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.
    C. Computer Automated Load Manifesting load plans.
    D. DD Form 2131-XX-series load plans.
    B. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. When preparing a load plan, in how many copies do you prepare and who receives them?
    A. Two; one to ATOC personnel and one to ramp services personnel.
    B. Two; one to Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel and one to the load master.
    C. Three; one to ATOC personnel, one to Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) personnel and one to ramp services personnel.
    D. Three; two to ATOC personnel and one to ramp services personnel.
    D. Three; two to ATOC personnel and one to ramp services personnel.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. When preparing a load plan, after calculating the moments for each piece of equipment, multipallet train or single pallet on the aircraft, you must separately total the
    A. Operating weight and zero fuel weight.
    B. Cargo gross weight and aircraft fuselage stations.
    C. Leading edge mean aerodynamic chord (LEMAC) and mean aerodynamic chord (MAC)
    D. Weight of all the cargo and the moments the cargo generates.
    D. Weight of all the cargo and the moments the cargo generates.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. You are preparing manual manifests and have the following cargo for Hickam AFB, Hawaii, and Kadena AB, Japan; general cargo for both locations; registered mail for Hickam; and signature service shipments for both destinations. How many manifests will you prepare?
    A. Five.
    B. Two.
    C. Four.
    D. Three.
    A. Five.
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  123. When preparing a manual manifest, list
    A. Loose cargo data first, with pallet data listed in pallet identification (ID) sequence.
    B. Loose cargo data first, with pallet data listed in transportation priority (TP) sequence.
    C. Pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in system entry time (SET) sequence.
    D. Pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in transportation control number (TCN) sequence.
    D. Pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in transportation control number (TCN) sequence.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. When preparing a manual manifest, in the destination block, enter the
    A. In the clear destination.
    B. Four character International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code.
    C. Three character air terminal identifier (ATI) code.
    D. Three character aerial port code (APC).
    A. In the clear destination.
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  125. At the end of each month, what happens before the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, is forwarded to the records, reports and analysis section?
    A. It is used to project future workloads and document facts for various studies.
    B. It is included in the AMC A4 7107 report.
    C. Manpower levels are adjusted based on the numbers entered.
    D. Section leadership reviews and verifies the information.
    D. Section leadership reviews and verifies the information.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel complete the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandles Workload, after
    A. A load plan is reaccomplished.
    B. Pallets are reconfigured due to opportune airlift.
    C. Prebuilt pallets that arrived improperly configured are reconfigured by aerial port personnel.
    D. Cargo is frustrated to Air Clearance Authority/Customer Service Branch (ACA/CSB).
    A. A load plan is reaccomplished.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. When completing the cargo rehandled block of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, who is required to review and sign the form after it is complete?
    A. The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft workload.
    B. The squadron operations officer.
    C. The records, reports and analysis representative accepting the form.
    D. The individual making entries on the form.
    A. The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft workload.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. If you reservice the latrine on an aircraft, which rehandled form do you complete?
    A. AMC Form 108, Passenger Rehandled Workload.
    B. AMC Form 65, Aircraft Reserviced Workload.
    C. AMC Form 56, Rehandled Workload.
    D. AMC Form 85, Rehandled Form.
    B. AMC Form 65, Aircraft Reserviced Workload.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. When reviewing and reconciling transportation documentation, which report does aerial port management review daily?
    A. Excessive port hold time (PHT) or system entry time (SET).
    B. Over/short shipment report.
    C. Manifest header summary.
    D. Pallet listing report.
    A. Excessive port hold time (PHT) or system entry time (SET).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. Before the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77 is sent to data records for review and filing who must review the form for accuracy and completeness and sign it?
    A. The inbound controller.
    B. The shift supervisor/senior controller of Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
    C. The ramp controller.
    D. The squadron operations officer.
    B. The shift supervisor/senior controller of Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. Data records personnel can file the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, in the station files after they have reviewed the folder to ensure
    A. Skipped manifests are annotated in the remarks section.
    B. Manifest numbers are in sequential order based on aircraft time of departure and deleted manifests are annotated in the remarks section.
    C. Each aircraft’s schedule of events occurred on time.
    D. All aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.
    D. All aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. When reviewing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, what do data records personnel do if they notice any discrepancies?
    A. Notify the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) that proper billing cannot take place due to the discrepancies.
    B. Notify the squadron operations officer so he/she can direct corrective action.
    C. Send the package back to the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) for corrections or correct it themselves.
    D. Send the discrepant portion(s) of the package back to the work center responsible for creating the document.
    C. Send the package back to the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) for corrections or correct it themselves.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. When maintaining transportation documentation, if a mission number changes what must you do before filing the new Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77?
    A. File each AMC Form 77 separately with remarks annotated on each.
    B. Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC Form 77.
    C. Write the old mission number on the new AMC Form 77 in the remarks section.
    D. Duplicate all the information from the old AMC Form 77 onto the new one and file.
    B. Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC Form 77.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. When maintaining manifest registers, maintain one current
    A. Fiscal year plus 2 inactive years.
    B. Calendar year plus 1 inactive year.
    C. Calendar year plus 2 inactive years.
    D. Fiscal year plus 1 inactive year.
    D. Fiscal year plus 1 inactive year.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. When maintaining the consolidated flight packages (CFP), consider them as permanent documents and retire them to the base staging area after
    A. 2 calendar years.
    B. 1 calendar year.
    C. 2 fiscal years.
    D. 1 fiscal year.
    C. 2 fiscal years.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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