Microbiology

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bkkrafft
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274501
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Microbiology
Updated:
2014-05-15 10:09:59
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Microbiology
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Microbiology clinical exam study cards
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  1. The presence of Haemophilus influenza in CSF can be rapidly detected by:
    bacterial antigen testing
  2. When cleansing the skin with alcohol and then iodine for the collection of a blood culture, the iodine should remain intact on the skin for at least:
    60 seconds
  3. The purpose of SPS as an anticoagulant for blood cultures is
    it inactivates neutrophils and components of serum complement
  4. To eliminate the antibacterial properties of blood and simultaneously introduce an adequate volume of blood for recovery of microorganisms from septicemia, the recommended blood-to-broth ratio in the blood culture bottle is approximately:
    1:10
  5. Which of the following characteristics is not consistent with strep pneumoniae
    positive catalase
  6. A small gram positive rod that causes neonatal meningitis and septicemia
    listeria monocytogenes
  7. Children who have infections with beta-hemolytic strep can develop
    acute glomerulonephritis
  8. The stock cultures needed for quality control testing of motility are
    klebsiella pneumonia/ e coli
  9. clinical resistance to penicillin dosages appears to correlate with beta-lactamase production in
    Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  10. a tsi tube inoculated with an organism gave the following reaction
    shigella dysenteriae
  11. it is important to identify individual members of the group d strep because
    enterococci often show more antibiotic resistance than other group d strep
  12. the onpg test allows organisms to be classified as  lactose fermenter by testing for which of the following
    beta-galactosidase
  13. the x and v factors required for growth of h. influenza are contained in
    chocolate agar
  14. family characteristics of the enterbacteriaceae include
    fermentation of glucose
  15. a nasopharyngeal culture grows a predominace of a beta=hemolytic colont-type on SBA at 18h. The isolate is susceptible to a 0.04 bacitracin. the most likely id is
    group a strep
  16. Neisseria species can be identified and differentiated by
    carbohydrate utilization
  17. which of the following statements regarding simmons citrate agar is incorrect
    glucose is the carbohydrate in the medium
  18. a potentially pathogenic yeast that is normal flora in the oropharyngeal cavity and may produce thrush is
    candida albicans
  19. which genera of the enterbacteriaceae are known to cause diarrhea and are considered to be enteric pathogens
    escheria, salmonella, shigella, yersinia
  20. parasites that are detected by direct visualization in a perispheral blood smear are
    plasmodium
  21. micrococcus and staphylococcus species are differentiated by which tests
    all of the above
  22. s. epidermidis is recovered from which of the following sources
    all of the above
  23. which of the following organisms is the cause of lyme disease
    borrelia burgdorferi
  24. which of the following is a dimorphic fungus
    sporothrix schenckii
  25. a campy species has been isolated from a blood culture. the organism is susceptible to ....
    hippurate hydrolysis
  26. the examination of human feces is no help in the detection of
    echinococcus granulosus
  27. which disinfectant
    sodium hypochlorite
  28. gram stain examination of a csf specimen
    india ink
  29. mycobacteria that produce pigment only after exposure to light
    photochromogens
  30. on a culture suspected to be mycobacterium tuberculosis, the most important test to perform is
    niacin
  31. if material for viral culture cannot be processed immediately, it should be held at
    4 degrees C
  32. an 8 year-old child presents with tinea capitis thought to be caused by microsporum canis
    spindle shaped thick walled macroconidia with an asymmetric terminal knob
  33. an organism was isolated on KV agar from a peritoneal abcess. it is most likely to be
    bacteroides
  34. a hiv pos patient began to show signs of meningitis. a budding capsulated yeast was recovered. which organism is consistent with this information
    Cryptococcus neoformans
  35. highest rate of infection in lab professionals
    hep b
  36. primary isolation of n. gonorrhoeae requires
    CO2
  37. the etiologic agent of botulism is
    an exotoxin producer
  38. hep b virus can be transmitted by
    all of the above
  39. gram neg rod is isolated. fruity odor
    pseudomonas
  40. parasitic organisms that are most often transmitted sexually include
    trichomonas vaginalis
  41. which nonpathogenic mycobacterium sp is isolated most often from clinical specimens and is called the tapwater bacillus
    m. gordonae
  42. which of the following is the medium of choice for the selective recovery of gram-neg anaerobes
    KV agar
  43. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
    staph aureus
  44. shigella apecies characteristically are
    nonmotile
  45. the pair of organisms that would provide a good positive and negative control for PEA blood agar
    enterococcus and e.coli
  46. after 48 hrs of incubation on anaerobic SBA clostridium perfringens appears as a
    large flat colony with a double zone of hemolysis
  47. satellite phenomenon with colonies of staph
    haemophilus influenzae
  48. in preparing india ink slide the tech should
    ensure that the proper amount of reagent is added
  49. which selective medium is used for the isolation of gram pos organism
    Columbia CAN with 5% SB

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