EMT Final

Card Set Information

Author:
hiker0001
ID:
275341
Filename:
EMT Final
Updated:
2014-06-18 20:44:33
Tags:
EMT Final
Folders:
EMT Final
Description:
EMT Final
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user hiker0001 on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. The Emergency Medical Dispatch System was developed to:
    A. provide an exact location of the caller using GPS.
    B. allow dispatchers to provide instructions to the caller until EMS arrives.
    C. see what is going on at the scene.
    D. all of the above
    B. allow dispatchers to provide instructions to the caller until EMS arrives.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The party responsible for ensuring that an EMT maintains his or her ability to provide high-quality EMS care and updates his or her knowledge of EMS care is the:
    A. state regulatory authority.
    B. medical director.
    C. EMS agency chief.
    D. EMT.
    D. EMT.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The quickest source of energy is ____; however this supply will last less than a day and is consumed in greater quantities during stress.
    A. protein
    B. fat
    C. carbohydrates
    D. glucose
    D. glucose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.
    72
  5. The philosophy of right and wrong is called:
    A. ethics.
    B. confidentiality.
    C. morality.
    D. responsibility.
    A. ethics.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should:
    A. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response.
    B. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
    C. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew.
    D. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.
    D. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. The base station may be used:
    A. in a single place by an operator speaking into a microphone that is connected directly to the equipment.
    B. remotely through telephone lines.
    C. by radio form a communications center.
    D. all of the above.
    D. all of the above.
  8. You must consult with medical control to:
    A. notify the hospital of an incoming patient.
    B. request advice or orders from medical control.
    C. advice the hospital of special situations.
    D. all of the above.
    D. all of the above.
  9. The patient report commonly includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. a brief history of the patient's current problem.
    B. a list of the patient's medications.
    C. the patient's age and gender.
    D. your estimated time of arrival.
    B. a list of the patient's medications.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Medical control guides the treatment of patients in the system through all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. postcall review.
    B. direct orders.
    C. hands-on care.
    D. protocols.
    C. hands-on care.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Functional age relates to the person's:
    A. ability to function in daily activities.
    B. mental state.
    C. activity pattern.
    D. all of the above.
    D. all of the above.
  12. When caring for a visually-impaired patient, you should:
    A. try to avoid sudden movements.
    B. use sign language.
    C. touch the person only when necessary to render care.
    D. never walk him or her to the ambulance.
    A. try to avoid sudden movements.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. When communicating information over the radio, you should:
    A. limit any single transmission to 60 seconds or less and use 10 codes.
    B. respond professionally by saying “please” and “thank you.”
    C. use the words “affirmative” and “negative” instead of “yes” or “no.”
    D. use the patient's name only when communicating with the hospital.
    C. use the words “affirmative” and “negative” instead of “yes” or “no.”
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should:
    A. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about.
    B. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.
    C. consider asking the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.
    D. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety.
    C. consider asking the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. If a patient is lying supine on a backboard, the head end of the backboard will hold approximately _________ of the weight of the patient.
    A. 79% to 85%
    B. 35% to 48%
    C. 52% to 64%
    D. 68% to 78%
    D. 68% to 78%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Rapid extrication technique should be used to remove a single patient from a car when:
    A. the patient is alert and talking, but bleeding from the forehead.
    B. the patient is unresponsive with snoring respirations.
    C. the patient is complaining of trouble breathing and is intoxicated.
    D. all of the above
    B. the patient is unresponsive with snoring respirations.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. The diamond carry requires how many rescuers?
    four
  18. A minimum of _________ rescuers should be used to restrain a combative patient.
    five; one at the head and one at each extremity
  19. You should not attempt to lift a person who weights more than ____ pounds without ____ rescuers.
    • 250
    • four
  20. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction?
    A. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries.
    B. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children.
    C. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia.
    D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
    D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct?
    A. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.
    B. The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move.
    C. The patient is dragged against the body's long axis during an emergency move.
    D. It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient.
    A. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated?
    A. The EMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle.
    B. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.
    C. A significant mechanism of injury is involved.
    D. A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock.
    B. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is FIRST reflected onto the:
    A. thigh muscles.
    B. spinal column.
    C. pelvic girdle.
    D. shoulder girdle.
    D. shoulder girdle.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. A 15-year-old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should:
    A. let them know that because of the circumstances of their child's death, they will not be permitted to see him at this time.
    B. advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first. C. express your sincere condolences over their loss and have them escorted away from the scene by a law enforcement officer.
    D. discreetly escort them to the back of the ambulance and allow them to see their child by themselves while you wait outside.
    • B. advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask
    • them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first.
  25. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts informed consent?
    A. A patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing care.
    B. A patient advises an EMT of why he or she is refusing care.
    C. An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment.
    D. An EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult.
    C. An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should:
    A. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.
    B. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions.
    C. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea.
    D. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you.
    A. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS?
    A. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED)
    B. a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia
    C. a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle
    D. a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device
    A. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR?
    A. “Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle.”
    B. “After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved.”
    C. “The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day.”
    D. “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.”
    D. “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.”
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Abduction is defined as:
    A. straightening of a body part.
    B. bending of a joint.
    C. motion toward the midline.
    D. motion away from the midline.
    D. motion away from the midline.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart. This is called stroke volume (SV).
    A. 70 to 80 mL
    B. 90 to 100 mL
    C. 100 to 120 mL
    D. 40 to 50 mL
    A. 70 to 80 mL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. What function does the pneumotaxic center serve?
    A. stimulates the DRG, resulting in longer, slower respirations
    B. inhibits the DRG, resulting in shorter, faster respirations
    C. inhibits the DRG, but only affects the respiratory rate
    D. stimulates the DRG, resulting in prolonged inspiration
    B. inhibits the DRG, resulting in shorter, faster respirations
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Each pelvic bone is formed by the fusion of the:
    A. sacrum and ischium.
    B. pubis and acetabulum.
    C. ilium, ischium, and pubis.
    D. ilium, pubis, and sacrum.
    C. ilium, ischium, and pubis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) is a part of the brain stem and is responsible for:
    A. controlling expiration.
    B. decreasing respiratory depth.
    C. inhibiting deep inspiration.
    D. initiating inspiration.
    D. initiating inspiration.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. The 10th cranial nerve is the___________ and is responsible for_____________.
    A. vagus / pupillary constriction
    B. vagus / slowing the heart rate
    C. oculomotor / pupillary constriction
    D. oculomotor / vision
    B. vagus / slowing the heart rate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. ___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid and occurs when blood is moved through the artery at relatively high pressures.
    A. Hydrostatic
    B. Osmotic
    C. Diffusion
    D. Oncotic
    A. Hydrostatic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. The Hering-Breuer reflex is stimulated when:
    A. the DRG stops and the process of expiration begins.
    B. stretch receptors in the chest wall detect that the lungs are too full.
    C. the brain stem senses that there is a low amount of oxygen in the blood.
    D. excess carbon dioxide needs to be eliminated from the body.
    B. stretch receptors in the chest wall detect that the lungs are too full.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. An increase in heart rate and contractility occurs due to stimulation of:
    A. alpha-1 receptors.
    B. alpha-2 receptors.
    C. beta-2 receptors.
    D. beta-1 receptors.
    D. beta-1 receptors.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. What three bones make up the shoulder girdle?
    A. clavicle, scapula, humerus
    B. acromion, clavicle, scapula
    C. acromion, humerus, clavicle
    D. acromion, scapula, humerus
    A. clavicle, scapula, humerus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her body.
    6 L
  40. The cervical spine is composed of ___________ vertebrae.
    7
  41. A patient in a semireclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position.
    Fowler's
  42. Damage to which nerve would cause pupil dilation in stroke?
    III - occulomotor nerve
  43. The cranium is made up of _ bones.
    4
  44. Facial bones are made up of __ bones.
    14
  45. Spinal column is composed of __ bones.
    33
  46. The thoracic spine has one pair of ribs attached to each of __ vertebrae.
    12
  47. Lumbar spine has _ vertebrae
    5
  48. Sacrum has _ vertebrae
    5
  49. Coccyx has _ vertebrae
    4
  50. _ bones in the wrist (____ bones)
    8, carpal
  51. _ metacarpals extend from the carpal bones
    5
  52. The foot contains _ tarsal bones
    7
  53. Five toes formed by __ phalanges
    14
  54. _ phalanges in the great toe and _ phalanges in each of the smaller toes
    2, 3
  55. There are more than ___ muscles in the body that attach to the bones of the skeleton.
    600
  56. Right lung has _ lobes and left lung has _  lobes.
    3, 2
  57. In 1 minute, the body’s entire blood volume (_ to  _L) is circulated through all the vessels.
    5, 6
  58. The cerebrum has _ lobes.
    4
  59. Salivary glands produce __ L of saliva daily
    1.5
  60. What is the total lung capacity of the average adult male
    6,000 mL
  61. What percent water is the body composed?
    72
  62. What percent is an isotonic salt solution?
    0.9
  63. Blood consists of __% plasma, __% RBCs, and __% WBCs and platelets.
    • 55
    • 45
    • <1
  64. What does a "match" refer to in breathing?
    for every four liters of air breathed in, 5 L of blood is perfused
  65. Kidney function declines by __ percent between the ages of 20 and 90 years.
    50
  66. At what age can an infant normally start tracking objects with his or her eyes and recognizing familiar faces?
    2 months
  67. Children begin to develop their self-concept and self-esteem during what period of growth?
    school age
  68. The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is:
    90 mm Hg
  69. Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
    A. Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue.
    B. Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.
    C. The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.
    D. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
    D. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
    9 and 18 months
  71. Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT:
    A. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.
    B. decreased residual volume.
    C. increased surface area available for air exchange.
    D. a loss of respiratory muscle mass.
    C. increased surface area available for air exchange.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Infants
    ages 1 month to 1 year
  73. Neonates
    birth to 1 month
  74. A neonate usually weighs _ to _ lb at birth.
    6 to 8
  75. A neonate's head accounts for __% of its body weight.
    25
  76. Infants younger than _ months are particularly prone to nasal congestion.
    6
  77. The posterior fontanelle fuses by _ months.
    3
  78. Separation anxiety peaks between __ and __ months.
    10, 18
  79. Toddlers
    ages 1 to 3 years
  80. Preschoolers
    ages 3 to 6 years
  81. Preschoolers will have a brain that weighs __% of its final adult weight.
    90
  82. Physiologically, toddlers have the neuromuscular control capable for bladder control by __ to __ months of age.  However, the child may not be psychologically ready until 18 to 30 months of age.  The average age for completion of toilet training is __ months of age.
    • 12 to 15
    • 18 to 30
    • 28
  83. At __ months of age, basic language is mastered.
    36
  84. By __ to __ months, cause and effect begin to become understood.
    18, 24
  85. School-age children
    6 to 12 years
  86. Adolescents
    12 to 18 years
  87. Girls generally finish their growth spurt by __ years, boys by __ years.
    • 16
    • 18
  88. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure tend to peak at age __ to __ years.
    14, 16
  89. Early Adults
    19 to 40 years
  90. From age __ years to shortly after __ years, the body should be functioning at its optimal level.
    • 19
    • 25
  91. Middle Adults
    41 to 60 years
  92. Menopause takes place in the late __s or early __s.
    • 40
    • 50
  93. Late adults
    61 years and up
  94. By age __ years, the vital capacity may amount to only __% of the vital capacity of a young adult.
    • 75
    • 50
  95. In the central nervous system, the brain weight may shrink __% to __% by age 80 years.
    • 10
    • 20
  96. At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
    10 to 18 months
  97. The distal aspect of the tibia forms the:
    medial malleolus.
  98. Negative pressure breathing involves:
    A. pushing or forcing air into the lungs.
    B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity.
    C. increasing airway resistance during breathing.
    D. relaxing the respiratory muscles.
    B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in:
    A. increased heart rate.
    B. increased cardiac contractility.
    C. constriction of the blood vessels.
    D. dilation of the blood vessels.
    C. constriction of the blood vessels.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. A patient who takes an occasional gasping breath after his or her heart has stopped has:
    agonal respirations.
  101. Properly performed suctioning of a patient may still cause:
    vomiting
  102. Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
    A. a 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume
    B. a 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
    C. a 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations
    D. a 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations
    B. a 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient.  Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should:
    A. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately.
    B. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations.
    C. hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations.
    D. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique.
    D. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output?
    A. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases cardiac output.
    B. There is no effect on cardiac output because positive-pressure ventilation is the act of normal breathing.
    C. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.
    D. It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output.
    C. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask device technique is correct?
    A. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device.
    B. The bag-mask device delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.
    C. Bag-mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person.
    D. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device.
    D. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the:
    A. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.
    B. mouth-to-mouth technique.
    C. manually triggered ventilation device.
    D. one-person bag-mask device.
    A. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Brain tissue will begin to die within _ to _ minutes.
    4, 6
  108. Average tidal volume is ___ mL.
    500
  109. cardiac irritability occurs after breathing stops:
    0 to 1 minute
  110. brain damage is not likely within __ to __ minutes after breathing stops.
    0, 4
  111. brain damage is possible:
    4 to 6 minutes
  112. brain damage is very likely
    6 to 10 minutes
  113. irreversible brain damage occurs
    over 10 minutes
  114. Never suction the mouth or nose for more than  __ seconds at one time for adult patients, __ seconds for children, and _ seconds for infants.
    15, 10, 5
  115. Composite cylinders are tested every _ years.
    3
  116. Cells need a constant supply of oxygen to survive. Some cells may become severely or permanently damaged after what period of time without oxygen?
    4 to 6 minutes
  117. During your primary assessment, you observe that the patient can only answer  questions in two- to three-word sentences.  Based on this finding, you should:
    A. apply a pulse oximeter to see if he is having trouble breathing.
    B. place him in a supine position and begin to give him artificial respirations.
    C. give him oxygen at 6 L/min by nasal cannula.
    D. give him oxygen at 15 L/min by nonrebreathing mask.
  118. In deeply pigmented skin, you should look for changes in color in areas of the skin that have less pigment, including:
    A. the sclera.
    B. the conjunctiva.
    C. the mucous membranes of the mouth.
    D. all of the above.
    D. all of the above.
  119. When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is:
    A. slow.
    B. thready.
    C. rapid.
    D. irregular.
    C. rapid.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. In responsive patients that are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery.
    A. femoral
    B. brachial
    C. carotid
    D. radial
    D. radial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct?
    A. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.
    B. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion.
    C. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.
    D. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion.
    A. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Palpating the carotid pulse is not recommended in infants because:
    A. a decrease in cerebral perfusion may occur.
    B. you may inadvertently compress the trachea.
    C. the pulse rate is usually too fast to count.
    D. the carotid artery is more anterior in infants.
    B. you may inadvertently compress the trachea.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. After performing a primary assessment, a rapid scan of the body should be performed in order to:
    A. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.
    B. identify less obvious injuries that require immediate transport.
    C. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.
    D. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.
    B. identify less obvious injuries that require immediate transport.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. The full-body scan of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than:
    60 to 90 seconds
  125. Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is:
    A. in a recumbent position.
    B. sitting up at a 45° angle.
    C. in a full Fowler's position.
    D. in a supine position.
    B. sitting up at a 45° angle.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. Which of the following statements regarding stridor is MOST correct?
    A. It is caused by incorrect airway positioning.
    B. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway.
    C. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.
    D. It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs.
    C. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. A moist crackling, usually on both inspiration and expiration.
    Rales
  128. Low-pitched, noisy sounds that are most prominent on expiration.
    Rhonchi
  129. Aim to assess, stabilize, package, and begin transport to the appropriate facility within __ minutes (often referred to as the “____ __”) after arrival on scene.
    • 10
    • Platinum 10
  130. How much vacuum should a properly functioning suction unit with a gauge generate?
    300 mm Hg
  131. Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
    A. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.
    B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
    C. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has a low carbon dioxide content.
    D. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.
    B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells:
    A. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids.
    B. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.
    C. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
    D. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood.
    B. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. When transporting a stable stroke patient with unilateral paralysis, it is best to place the patient in a:
    A. supine position with the legs elevated 6″ to 12″.
    B. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle.
    C. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.
    D. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up.
    C. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when:
    A. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body's ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body.
    B. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.
    C. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body.
    D. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange.
    B. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the:
    A. alveolar sacs.
    B. apex of the lung.
    C. bronchioles.
    D. pulmonary capillaries.
    A. alveolar sacs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. Suctioning of the oral cavity in an adult patient should be accomplished within __ to __ seconds?
    10, 15
  137. The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is:
    A. neurovascular compromise.
    B. total depletion of synovial fluid.
    C. internal bleeding and shock.
    D. ligament and cartilage damage.
    A. neurovascular compromise.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should:
    A. put padding behind his or her head.
    B. thoroughly suction his or her airway.
    C. place him or her on a firm surface.
    D. rule out an injury to the spinal cord.
    C. place him or her on a firm surface.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted:
    A. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose.
    B. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare.
    C. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.
    D. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum.
    C. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant?
    100
  141. Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?
    A. pressure-compensated flowmeter
    B. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
    C. vertical-position flowmeter
    D. ball-and-float flowmeter
    B. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should:
    A. contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient's chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin.
    B. ensure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg since aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure.
    C. assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerin, assess his vital signs, and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discomfort.
    D. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given.
    D. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. How much activated charcoal should be administered for a poisoning?
    2 g per kg of body weight
  144. In anaphylactic shock, the combination of poor oxygenation and poor perfusion is a result of:
    widespread vasodilation
  145. You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should:
    A. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.
    B. repeat your secondary assessment.
    C. arrange for an ALS rendezvous.
    D. take his vital signs in 15 minutes.
    A. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. Two types of shock associated with pump failure:
    • obstructive
    • cardiogenic
  147. Four types of distributive shock:
    • Septic
    • Neurogenic
    • Anaphylactic
    • Psychogenic
  148. ____ shock occurs when conditions that cause mechanical obstruction of the cardiac muscle also affect the pump function.
    Obstructive
  149. Two common causes of obstructive shock:
    • Cardiac tamponade
    • Tension pneumothorax
  150. -It is a collection of fluid between the pericardial sac and the myocardium.
    -It is caused by blunt or penetrating trauma and can progress rapidly.
    -Blood leaks into the tough fibrous membrane known as the pericardium, causing an accumulation of blood within the pericardial sac.
    -This accumulation leads to compression of the heart.
    Cardiac tamponade
  151. Signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade are referred to as ____ triad:
    • Beck’s
    • the presence of jugular vein distention
    • muffled heart sounds
    • systolic and diastolic blood pressure starting to merge
  152. ____ shock results when there is widespread dilation of small arterioles, venules, or both.  The circulating blood volume pools in theexpanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases.
    Distributive
  153. ____ shock occurs as result of severe infections, usually bacterial, in which toxins are generated by the bacteria or by infected body tissues. The toxins damage the vessel walls, causing increased cellular permeability.  The vessel walls leak and are unable to contract well.  Widespread dilation of vessels, in combination with plasma loss through the injured vessel walls, results in shock.
    Septic
  154. ____ shock is usually a result of injury to the part of the nervous system that controls the size and muscle tone of the blood vessels.
    Neurogenic
  155. A patient in ____ shock has had a sudden reaction of the nervous system that produces a temporary, generalized vascular dilation, resulting in fainting, or syncope.
    psychogenic
  156. ____ shock is the result of an inadequate amount of fluid or volume in the system.
    Hypovolemic
  157. When checking for a pulse in an infant, you should palpate the ____ artery.
    brachial
  158. The rate of compressions for an infant is at least ____ per minute.
    100
  159. What is the preferred method of ventilating an infant:
    mouth to nose and mouth ventilation using a mask or barrier device
  160. When performing chest compressions on adults, depress the sternum at least __ inches.
    2
  161. What rate are chest compressions for adult CPR?
    At least 100 per minute.  Same as for children.
  162. What is the general sequence of events for adult CPR?
    • determine responsiveness
    • check pulse
    • chest compressions/AED
    • position airway/ventilations
  163. When is the compression to ventilation ratio not 30:2?
    two rescuer CPR of a child
  164. The automated external defibrillator (AED) can be used in children over ________ of age.
    one month
  165. When providing mouth-to-mouth or mouth-to-mask ventilations to a patient, the air you exhale contains approximately what percentage of oxygen?
    16
  166. When performing CPR on a child, at what point should the AED be applied?
    after two minutes of CPR
  167. A 60-year-old male is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
    A. begin CPR until an AED is available.
    B. determine if he has a valid living will.
    C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
    D. start CPR and transport immediately.
    A. begin CPR until an AED is available.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is MOST correct?
    A. Survival rates decrease by 7% to 10% for each minute that V-fib persists.
    B. It is an uncommon dysrhythmia in patients with sudden cardiac arrest.
    C. AEDs should not be used to defibrillate patients in V-fib.
    D. The only indication for immediate defibrillation is V-fib.
    A. Survival rates decrease by 7% to 10% for each minute that V-fib persists.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. In a conscious infant who is choking, you would first give five back slaps followed by:
    five chest thrusts.
  170. When do you apply an AED to a child?
    Apply after the first five cycles of CPR.
  171. or children 1 month to 1 year of age, a ____ ____ is preferred; if this is not available, use pediatric-sized pads and ____-____ system.  If neither is available, an AED without a dose-attenuating system may be used.
    • manual defibrillator
    • dose-attenuating
  172. Place AED electrodes at least _″ to the side of a pacemaker.
    1
  173. In two-person CPR, it is recommended to switch positions every _ minutes with no more than a __-second break between the compression cycle.
    • 2
    • 10
  174. If you find an unresponsive, apneic, pulseless child, perform CPR for _ minutes and then call the EMS system.
    2
  175. I____ means lack of oxygen.
    Ischemia
  176. Tissue death
    infarction
  177. Absence of heart electrical activity
    asystole
  178. Complete blockage of coronary artery:
    acute myocardial infarction
  179. About __ minutes after blood flow is cut off, some heart cells begin to die.
    30
  180. Signs and symptoms of shock include all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. pale, clammy skin.
    B. elevated heart rate.
    C. air hunger.
    D. elevated blood pressure.
    D. elevated blood pressure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. Which of the following changes in heart function occur in patients with CHF?
    A. A decrease in heart rate.
    B. A decrease in blood pressure.
    C. Enlargement of the right ventricle.
    D. Enlargement of the left ventricle.
    D. Enlargement of the left ventricle.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. In addition to angina and myocardial infarction, nitroglycerin can be used to treat:
    A. CHF.
    B. hypertensive emergency.
    C. cardiogenic shock.
    D. aortic aneurism.
    A. CHF.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. Maximum dosages of nitroglycerin?
    3
  184. Defibrillation works best if done within __ minutes of cardiac arrest.
    2
  185. Swelling in the part of the body closest to the ground, caused by collection of fluid in the tissues; a possible sign of congestive heart failure.
    dependent edema
  186. A heart attack; death of the heart muscle following obstruction of blood flow to it.
    acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
  187. Transient (short-lived) chest discomfort caused by partial or temporary blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle.
    angina pectoris
  188. A weakness in the wall of the aorta that makes it susceptible to rupture.
    aortic aneurism
  189. A condition in which the inner layers of an artery, such as the aorta, become separated, allowing blood (at high pressures) to flow between the layers.
    dissecting aneurism
  190. A blood clot that has formed within a blood vessel and is floating within the blood stream.
    thromboemoblism
  191. A rapid heart rhythm in which the electrical impulse begins in the ventricle (instead of the atrium), which may result in inadequate blood flow and eventually deteriorate into cardiac arrest.
    ventricular tachycardia
  192. A term used to describe a group of symptoms caused by myocardial ischemia; includes angina and myocardial infarction.
    acute coronary syndrome
  193. Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients:
    A. who have taken up to two doses.
    B. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.
    C. who have experienced a head injury.
    D. with a history of an ischemic stroke.
    C. who have experienced a head injury.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is
    cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should:
    A. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital.
    B. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly.
    C. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport.
    D. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay.
    C. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. Angina pectoris occurs when:
    A. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.
    B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.
    C. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds the supply.
    D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
    C. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds the supply.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that:
    A. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.
    B. blood returning from the body can fill the atria.
    C. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers.
    D. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles.
    D. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm:
    A. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest.
    B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset.
    C. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours.
    D. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea.
    B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should:
    A. perform five cycles of high-quality CPR and then apply the AED.
    B. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
    C. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.
    D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED without delay.
    A. perform five cycles of high-quality CPR and then apply the AED.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm?
    A. sinus bradycardia
    B. sinus tachycardia
    C. extra ventricular beats
    D. ventricular tachycardia
    D. ventricular tachycardia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. Patients develop septic shock secondary to:
    A. failure of the blood vessels to adequately dilate.
    B. an infection that weakens cardiac contractions.
    C. weak vessel tone due to nervous system damage.
    D. poor vessel function and severe volume loss.
    D. poor vessel function and severe volume loss.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. After the patient's airway is intubated during two-rescuer CPR, you should:
    A. deliver one rescue breath every 6 to 8 seconds.
    B. decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute.
    C. increase rescue breathing to a rate of 12 breaths/min.
    D. pause compressions to deliver ventilations.
    A. deliver one rescue breath every 6 to 8 seconds.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should:
    A. open the airway.
    B. attach an automated external defibrillator (AED) immediately.
    C. assess for breathing.
    D. check for a carotid pulse.
    A. open the airway.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by:
    A. ventricular fibrillation.
    B. congestive heart failure.
    C. severe bradycardia.
    D. cardiogenic shock.
    A. ventricular fibrillation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. The flow rate for a small volume nebulizer should be set to __ L/min.
    6
  205. A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should:
    A. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
    B. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen.
    C. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-mask device at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min.
    D. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing.
    A. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:
    A. paraplegia.
    B. dysarthria.
    C. dysphagia.
    D. aphasia.
    B. dysarthria.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. Stroke is the ____ leading cause of death in the United States.
    third
  208. In most people, speech is controlled on the ____ side of the brain near the middle of the cerebrum.
    left
  209. ____ cranial nerves run directly from the brain to parts of the head.
    12
  210. At each vertebra in the neck and back, ____ nerves branch out.
    2
  211. There are two main types of stroke:
    • ischemic
    • hemorrhagic
  212. When stroke symptoms go away on their own in less than __ hours, the event is called a transient ischemic attack.
    24
  213. When strokes occur in the ____ cerebral hemisphere, usually, patients will understand language and be able to speak, but their words may be slurred and hard to understand.
    right
  214. Normal glucose levels:
    80 to 120 mg/dL
  215. One tube of oral glucose gel contains one __-g dose.
    30
  216. Normal red blood cells are round, contain hemoglobin _, and live ___ days.
    • A
    • 120
  217. What level of glucose causes excess glucose to be excreted by the kidney?
    200
  218. About _% of people may have anaphylactic reactions from stings.
    5
  219. More than two thirds of patients who die of anaphylaxis do so within the first:
    30 minutes
  220. Injection of medications such as penicillin may cause an immediate and severe reaction. "Immediate" is described as:
    within 30 minutes.
  221. Eating certain foods, such as shell fish or nuts, may result in a relatively slow reaction that still can be quite severe. That relatively slow reaction time is:
    more than 30 minutes.
  222. Epinephrine can have an effect within:
    1 minute
  223. Normal adult forms __ to __ L of urine per day.
    1.5, 2
  224. How much activated charcoal is given to an adult?
    25 to 50 g
  225. Ringing in the ears is associated with an overdose of:
    A. ethylene alcohol
    B. aspirin
    C. acetaminophen
    D. methyl alcohol
    B. aspirin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. When a large amount of material has been spilled on a patient, flood the affected part for at least __ minutes.
    20
  227. If the patient has a chemical agent in the eyes, irrigate them quickly and thoroughly for at least __ to __ minutes for acid substances and __ to __ minutes for alkalis.
    • 5, 10
    • 15, 20
  228. The usual dose for an adult or child is __ g of activated charcoal per kilogram of body weight.
    1
  229. The only effective antidote for opiate overdose is certain narcotic antagonists such as:
    naloxone (Narcan).
  230. A benzodiazepine antidote may be administered in the hospital.  It is called ____ and is given intravenously.
    flumazenil
  231. The classic picture of a person who has taken too much of an ____ medication is “hot as a hare, blind as a bat, dry as a bone, red as a beet, and mad as a hatter.”
    anticholinergic
  232. From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least:
    A. 1 month.
    B. 3 weeks.
    C. 1 week.
    D. 2 weeks.
    A. 1 month.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. A patient without a history of seizures experiences a sudden convulsion. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:
    A. epilepsy.
    B. a serious infection.
    C. intracranial bleeding.
    D. a brain tumor.
    A. epilepsy.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should:
    A. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia.
    B. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis.
    C. initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and attach an automated external defibrillator (AED) as soon as possible.
    D. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED.
    C. initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and attach an automated external defibrillator (AED) as soon as possible.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. Law enforcement personnel request your assistance for a 30-year-old man who they pulled over for erratic driving. The patient became acutely violent while he was being questioned, which required one of the officers to subdue him with a Taser.  When you arrive and assess the patient, you find that he is very agitated and is experiencing apparent hallucinations. His skin is flushed and diaphoretic. You should:
    A. suspect that he is acutely hypoglycemic, consider giving him one tube of oral glucose, and transport with lights and siren.
    B. recognize that he is experiencing a complex psychiatric crisis, quickly load him into the ambulance, and transport without delay.
    C. limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you.
    D. quickly rule out any life-threatening conditions and then perform a detailed secondary assessment as he is being restrained.
    C. limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  236. A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. You apply 100% oxygen and assess her blood glucose level, which reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop:
    A. hypoxia and overhydration.
    B. complete renal failure.
    C. severe insulin shock.
    D. acidosis and dehydration.
    D. acidosis and dehydration.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched “rattling” sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. With which of the following conditions is this finding MOST consistent?
    A. aspiration pneumonia
    B. early pulmonary edema
    C. widespread atelectasis
    D. acute asthma attack
    A. aspiration pneumonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  238. You respond to the residence of a 70-year-old male who complains of weakness and severe shortness of breath. His wife tells you that he
    is a dialysis patient, but has missed his last two treatments. After applying high-flow oxygen, you auscultate his lungs and hear diffuse rhonchi. The patient is conscious, but appears confused. His blood pressure is 98/54 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. You should:
    A. leave him in a sitting position, keep him warm, and prepare for immediate transport.
    B. perform a detailed secondary assessment and then transport him to a dialysis center.
    C. place him in a supine position, elevate his lower extremities, and transport at once.
    D. treat for shock and request a paramedic unit to respond to the scene and assist you.
    A. leave him in a sitting position, keep him warm, and prepare for immediate transport.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  239. You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty.
    Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes phenytoin (Dilantin) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to applying high-flow oxygen, you should:
    A. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.
    B. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren.
    C. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport.
    D. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity.
    A. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  240. An acute accelerated drop in the hemoglobin level, which is caused by red blood cells breaking down at a faster rate than normal, occurs during a(n) __________ crisis.
    A. vaso-occlusive
    B. aplastic
    C. splenic sequestration
    D. hemolytic
    D. hemolytic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  241. Children shorter than __ should ride in the rear seat.
    4'9″
  242. A fall from more than __ feet or _ times the patient’s height is considered significant.
    15, 3
  243. ____ blast injuries are due entirely to the blast itself.
    Primary
  244. In ____ blast injuries, damage to the body results from being struck by flying debris.
    secondary
  245. In ____ blast injuries, the victim is hurled by the force of the explosion, sometimes against a stationary object.
    tertiary
  246. The tympanic membrane evolved to detect minor changes in pressure and will rupture at pressures of:
    5 to 7 pounds per square inch above atmospheric pressure.
  247. List the eyes for GCS:
    • 1 - does not open eyes
    • 2 - eyes open in response to painful stimuli
    • 3 - eyes open in response to voice
    • 4 - eyes open spontaneously
    • 5 - N/A
    • 6 - N/A
  248. List the verbal for GCS:
    • 1 - makes no sounds
    • 2 - incomprehensible sounds
    • 3 - utters inappropriate words
    • 4 - confused, disoriented
    • 5 - oriented, converses normally
    • 6 - N/A
  249. List the motor for GCS:
    • 1 - makes no movements
    • 2 - extension to painful stimuli
    • 3 - abnormal flexion to painful stimuli
    • 4 - flexion/withdrawal to painful stimuli
    • 5 - localizes painful stimuli
    • 6 - obeys commands
  250. Cells in other organs, such as the lungs and kidneys, can survive for almost:
    an hour
  251. Skeletal muscle cells may survive for __ hours in a state of inadequate perfusion.
    2
  252. -The brain and spinal cord may last _ to _ minutes without perfusion.
    -Kidneys may survive __ minutes.
    -Skeletal muscles may last _ hours.
    -The gastrointestinal tract can tolerate slightly longer periods of inadequate perfusion.
    • 4 to 6
    • 45
    • 2
  253. The body will not tolerate an acute blood loss of greater than __% of blood volume.
    20
  254. The typical adult has approximately __ mL of blood per kilogram of body weight.
    70
  255. Significant changes in vital signs may occur if the typical adult loses more than:
    1 L (about 2 pints) of blood.
  256. A systolic blood pressure of less than ___ mm Hg with a weak, rapid pulse should suggest the presence of hypoperfusion.
    100
  257. Hold uninterrupted pressure for at least  _ minutes.
    5
  258. Elevate a bleeding extremity by as little as _" while applying direct pressure.
    6
  259. If bleeding from the nose is present and a skull fracture is not suspected, pinch both nostrils together for __ minutes.
    15
  260. A fractured femur can result in the loss of _ L  or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh.
    1
  261. With chemical burns, continue flooding the area with gallons of water for __ to __ minutes after the patient says the burning pain has stopped.
    15, 20
  262. According to the rule of nines, what percent is an entire adult arm?
    9
  263. According to the rule of nines, what percent is the front of an adult torso?
    18
  264. According to the rule of nines, what percent is the back of an adult torso?
    18
  265. According to the rule of nines, what percent is the entire adult head?
    9
  266. According to the rule of nines, what percent is the entire adult leg?
    18
  267. According to the rule of nines, what percent is the adult genitalia?
    1
  268. What is the difference between adults and children using the rule of nines?
    In children, the head is 18 percents instead of 9 percent and the leg is 14 percent instead of 18 percent.
  269. What is the rule of thumb for determining burn area in children over one year of age?
    For children over the age of one year, for each year above one, add 0.5% to each leg and subtract 1% for the head. This formula should be used until the adult rule of nines values are reached. For example, a 5-year old child would be +2% for each leg and -4% for the head.
  270. Clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye is called the:
    vitreous humor.
  271. In front of the lens is a clear fluid called the:
    aqueous humor.
  272. The retina is nourished by a layer of blood vessels between it and the back of the globe called the:
    choroid.
  273. bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye
    Hyphema
  274. The cerebrum contains about __% of the brain’s total volume and is divided into ____ hemispheres with ____ lobes.
    • 75
    • two
    • four
  275. Cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) is produced in a chamber inside the brain, called the:
    third ventricle.
  276. There is approximately ____ to ____ mL of CSF in the brain at one time.
    125 to 150
  277. __ pairs of spinal nerves
    31
  278. Effects of cerebral edema and increased ICP may be increased systolic blood pressure, decreased pulse rate, and irregular respirations.  This triad of signs is called:
    Cushing’s reflex.
  279. Hyperventilate your patient via positive-pressure ventilations if the patient shows:
    Cushing's triad
  280. In supine patients with a head injury, the head should be elevated __ degrees to help reduce intracranial pressure.
    30
  281. Using the Glasgow Coma Scale, what total score would you give a patient who opens his eyes to your voice, answers all questions correctly, and is able to obey your motor commands?
    14
  282. Following a head injury, a 20-year-old female opens her eyes spontaneously, is confused, and obeys your commands to move her extremities. You should assign her a GCS score of:
    14
  283. The ____ ____ is a network of nerves, arteries, and veins lying closely along the inferior of and slightly posterior to the lowest margin of each rib and can be a source of significant bleeding into the pleural space.
    neurovascular bundle
  284. Note whether the jugular veins are distended which is a sign of:
    pressure (tamponade) on the heart
  285. Check for paradoxical motion (flail chest), an abnormality associated with:
    multiple fractured ribs.
  286. What does Beck’s triad indicate?
    cardiac tamponade
  287. Cullen sign
    periumbilical bruising
  288. Liver and spleen injuries refer pain to the ____; called ____ sign.
    • shoulder
    • Kehr
  289. Bruises around the umbilicus, called the ____ sign, are predictive of significant internal abdominal bleeding.
    Cullen
  290. The skeleton is made up of approximately ____ bones
    206
  291. The pelvic girdle is actually three separate bones fused together to form the ____ bone.
    innominate
  292. A potential complication of fractures is ____ ____.
    compartment syndrome
  293. A ____ fracture (also known as a hairline fracture) is a simple crack of the bone that may be difficult to distinguish from a sprain or simple contusion.
    nondisplaced
  294. A ____ fracture produces actual deformity, or distortion, of the limb by shortening, rotating, or angulating it.
    displaced
  295. An incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone and occurs in children.
    greenstick
  296. A fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two fragments.
    Comminuted
  297. A fracture of weakened or diseased bone generally produced by minimal force as seen in patients with osteoporosis or cancer.
    Pathologic
  298. A fracture in which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone.  Usually a result of a sharp-angled blow to the bone.
    Oblique
  299. A fracture that occurs straight across the bone.  Usually the result of a direct blow or stress fracture caused by prolonged running.
    Transverse
  300. A fracture caused by a twisting force, causing an oblique fracture around the bone and through the bone.  Often the result of abuse in very young children.
    Spiral
  301. A fracture that does not run completely through the bone.
    Incomplete
  302. The amount of traction that is required varies but often does not exceed __ lb.
    15
  303. This type of fracture, also known as a supracondylar or intercondylar fracture, is common in children.
    Fracture of the distal humerus
  304. Fractures of the distal radius, which are especially common in elderly patients with osteoporosis, are often known as ____ fractures.  The term “____ ____ deformity” is used to describe the distinctive appearance of the patient’s arm.
    • Colles
    • silver fork
  305. True or false?  Compartment syndrome usually occurs with a fractured femur.
    False.  Tibia or forearm.
  306. Immerse the frostbitten part in water with a temperature of between:
    100°F and 105°F
  307. Hypothermia temperature:
    95 degrees
  308. Hyperthermia temperature:
    101 degrees
  309. Toxins from the spines of urchins, stingrays, and certain spiny fish such as the lionfish, scorpion fish, or stonefish are heat sensitive.  The best treatment is to immobilize the affected area and soak it in hot water for __ minutes.
    30
  310. A minivan has struck a utility pole. The driver is unresponsive and has life-threatening injuries. Which of the following would be most appropriate when extricating the patient from the vehicle?
    A. Remove the patient and immobilize in the ambulance during rapid transport
    B. Rapid extrication with cervical collar applied
    C. Vest-type short spine immobilization device
    D. Pull the patient from the car and immobilize in the ambulance
    B. Rapid extrication with cervical collar applied
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  311. A teenage boy who was involved in a bicycle accident has a puncture wound where the bicycle kickstand impaled his leg. The MOST appropriate method for treating this injury is to:
    A. leave the kickstand attached to the bike until the physician can remove it safely.
    B. unbolt the kickstand from the bike frame and stabilize it with bulky dressings.
    C. remove the kickstand in a circular motion and apply a dry, sterile dressing.
    D. cut the kickstand off just above the skin, and stabilize it with sterile dressings.
    B. unbolt the kickstand from the bike frame and stabilize it with bulky dressings.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  312. After assessing a patient involved in a serious motor vehicle collision, another EMT informs you that he believes that the patient has a flail chest segment. Which of the following assessment findings would best help determine that the patient does indeed have a flail segment?
    A. Shortness of breath
    B. SpO2reading less than 90 percent
    C. Unequal chest wall movement
    D. Pain with inspiration
    C. Unequal chest wall movement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  313. You are treating a patient who was injured while diving into a public swimming pool. She is flexing her upper extremeties to painful stimuli. Her vital signs are pulse of 50, respirations of 8 shallow and irregular, and blood pressure of 170/110. Her left pupil is dilated and unresponsive to light. Which of the following is your best course of treatment?
    A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and assist ventilations with a BVM with oxygen enrichment at 20 breaths per minute
    B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and assist ventilations with a BVM at 36 breaths per minute
    C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and administer high-flow/high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather at 15 Ipm
    D. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and administer high-flow/high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather at 15 Ipm
    A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and assist ventilations with a BVM with oxygen enrichment at 20 breaths per minute
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  314. A person with pulmonary edema, dependent edema, jvd, bradycardia and a low blood pressure. You suspect what type of shock?
    A. Non-hemorrhagic hypovolemic
    B. Obstructive
    C. Distributive
    D. Cardiogenic
    D. Cardiogenic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  315. While cleaning a gun, a 44-year-old patient accidentally shot himself in the abdomen. On arrival, you observe the patient on the floor lying on his side with his legs drawn to his chest. Blood is evident on his shirt and pants. Which of the following indicates the correct sequence of events when caring for this patient?
    A. Transfer to the ambulance, rapid transport, primary assessment and oxygen therapy performed en route to the hospital
    B. Perform primary assessment and focused trauma exam, move to the stretcher for immediate transport, start positive pressure ventilation en route to the hospital
    C. Transfer to the ambulance, perform the primary assessment and rapid trauma exam, provide oxygen therapy, rapid transport
    D. Perform the primary assessment, administer high-flow oxygen, perform the rapid trauma exam, transfer to the stretcher, rapid transport
    D. Perform the primary assessment, administer high-flow oxygen, perform the rapid trauma exam, transfer to the stretcher, rapid transport
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  316. Which statement made by the EMT regarding the traction splint indicates an understanding of the use of this piece of emergency equipment?
    A. "Once the traction splint has been positioned under the leg, and the ankle hitch is applied, manual traction can be released."
    B. "Once the mechanical traction has been applied, the ischial strap must be released to promote circulation into the affected leg."
    C. "Mechanical traction should be applied until the affected leg is approximately one to two inches longer than the unaffected leg."
    D. "Mechanical traction should be applied until the mechanical traction is equal to the manual traction and the patient experiences a reduction in pain."
    D. "Mechanical traction should be applied until the mechanical traction is equal to the manual traction and the patient experiences a reduction in pain."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  317. An alert and oriented worker had his right thigh pinned between the bumpers of two trucks. Assessment findings include deformity and swelling to the right hip area and mid thigh, along with ecchymosis and edema to the right knee. The patient complains of excruciating pain to the right leg. Which of the following instructions given to other EMTs on the scene would be appropriate?
    A. "Let's immobilize him to the long spinal board and then transport him to the hospital."
    B. "We need to wrap the right leg in a pressure dressing and then elevate it for transport."
    C. "Check for a pedal pulse and then carefully move him to the stretcher for transport."
    D. "Let's put his leg in the traction splint to help align the femur and reduce pain."
    A. "Let's immobilize him to the long spinal board and then transport him to the hospital."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  318. If the egg is not fertilized within __ to __ hours after it has been released, the lining is shed as menstrual flow.
    36, 48
  319. The uterus, or womb, is a muscular organ, and it is here that the fetus grows for approximately 9 months (__ weeks).
    40
  320. The amniotic sac contains about ____ to ____ mL of amniotic fluid, which helps insulate and protect the floating fetus.
    • 500
    • 1,000
  321. Rapid uterine growth occurs in the ____ trimester of pregnancy.
    second
  322. Blood volume may eventually increase as much as __% by the end of the pregnancy.
    50
  323. By the end of pregnancy, the pregnant patient’s heart rate increases up to __% to accommodate the increase in blood volume.
    20
  324. In the ____ trimester, there is an increased risk of vomiting and potential aspiration following trauma because of changes that occur in the gastrointestinal tract.
    third
  325. In the ____ trimester, changes in the body’s center of gravity increase the risk of slips and falls.
    third
  326. The ____ stage of labor is usually the longest, lasting an average of __ hours for a first delivery.
    • first
    • 16
  327. The ____ stage of labor begins when the fetus begins to encounter the birth canal and ends when the infant is born (spontaneous birth).
    second
  328. The ____ stage of labor begins with the birth of the infant and ends with the delivery of the placenta.
    third
  329. Internal bleeding may be the sign of an ____ pregnancy, a pregnancy that develops outside the uterus, most often in a fallopian tube.  This occurs about once in every ____ pregnancies.
    • ectopic
    • 300
  330. On the rare occasion that delivery does not occur within __ minutes or you determine that a complication is occurring that cannot be treated in the field, notify the hospital and provide rapid transport.
    30
  331. The placenta delivers itself, usually within a few minutes of the birth, although it may take as long as __ minutes.
    30
  332. Some bleeding, usually less than ____ mL, occurs before the placenta delivers and is normal and expected.
    500
  333. Any newborn who requires more than routine resuscitation requires transport to a hospital with a Level ___ neonatal intensive care unit.
    III
  334. Calculate the Apgar score at __ minute and __ minutes after birth.
    1, 5
  335. If the mother does not deliver within __ minutes of the buttocks presentation, provide prompt transport.
    10
  336. Passage of the fetus and placenta before __ weeks is called abortion.
    20
  337. If twins are present, the second one will usually be born within __ minutes of the first.
    45
  338. A normal, single infant will weigh approximately __ lb at birth.
    7
  339. Any infant who delivers before __ months (__ weeks) or weighs less than __ lb at birth is considered premature.
    • 8
    • 36
    • 5
  340. Postterm pregnancy refers to pregnancies lasting longer than __ weeks.
    42
  341. The fetus develops inside a fluid-filled, bag-like membrane called the amniotic sac, and contains ____ to ____ mL of fluid.
    • 500
    • 1,000
  342. As the time for delivery nears, certain complications can occur.  Preeclampsia, or pregnancy-induced hypertension, is a condition that can develop after the __th week of gestation.
    30
  343. An old medical axiom states, “Anyone who neglects to consider a gynecologic cause in a woman of childbearing age who complains of abdominal pain will miss the diagnosis at least __% of the time.”
    50
  344. first year of life
    infancy
  345. Toddler:
    1 to 3
  346. Preschool-age child:
    3 to 6
  347. School-age child:
    6 to 12
  348. Adolescents:
    12 to 18
  349. Children have an oxygen demand ____ that of an adult.  This higher demand combined with a smaller oxygen reserve increases the risk of
    hypoxia.
    twice
  350. Pediatric patients weighing less than __ lb should be transported in a car seat.
    40
  351. The formula ____ = systolic blood pressure is a useful tool to determine blood pressure in children 1 to 10 years of age.
    70 + (2 × child’s age in years)
  352. Febrile seizures are common in children between the ages of __ months and __ years.
    6
  353. Temperatures of ___°F or higher are considered abnormal.
    100.4
  354. At around __ to __ years of age, children no longer require padding underneath the torso. They can lie supine on the board.
    8, 10
  355. Minor: Partial-thickness burns involving less than __% of body surface
    10
  356. Moderate: Partial-thickness burns involving  of body __% to __%surface
    10, 20
  357. Critical: Any full-thickness burn, a partial-thickness burn involving more than __% of body surface, or any burn involving the hands, feet, face, airway, or genitalia
    20
  358. The ____ triage system was developed for pediatric patients.  Intended for patients younger than __ years and weighing less than ___ lb.
    • JumpSTART
    • 8
    • 100
  359. Saying their first word, sitting without support, and teething are initially noticed in what age group?
    6 to 12 months
  360. A blood pressure of ____ mm Hg could be an indication of a significant problem in an elderly patient.
    120/80
  361. In most states, in order for a DNR to be considered valid, it must have been signed within __ months.
    12
  362. Obese is __% to __% over the ideal weight.
    20, 30
  363. Severely obese is ___ to ___ lb over the ideal weight.
    50, 100
  364. You arrive on scene for a 74-year-old male found sitting on the floor in the bathroom. His wife advises you that he is responding slowly to questions and appears to be a little confused. You note one-sided weakness.  Based on the history, what do you suspect is the cause of his signs and symptoms?
    A. transient ischemic attack (TIA)
    B. cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
    C. acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
    D. vagal episode
    B. cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  365. A 31-year-old female is in labor. After assuring her airway, breathing, and circulation, you assess her perineum. You observe the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina, but do not see the baby. Your immediate action would be to:
    a. Gently pull the cord to assist in delivery.
    b. Prepare and apply high-flow oxygen to the mother.
    c. Place the patient in a knee-chest position.
    d. Place a saline-soaked dressing over the cord.
    c. Place the patient in a knee-chest position.
  366. You are at a private residence assessing a 1-year-old patient. The mother states she called an ambulance because her daughter was having a seizure. The child has been ill for the past two days. The patient is very warm to the touch and is not responding appropriately for her age. Your treatment should include:
    A. Giving the patient ice chips to suck.
    B. Placing ice packs in the armpits, groin and around the head.
    C. Sponging the child’s back and arms with rubbing alcohol.
    D. Removing the child’s clothing down to underpants or diaper.
    D. Removing the child’s clothing down to underpants or diaper.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  367. According to the “E” in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient with a tracheostomy tube?
    A. Look for blood or other secretions in the tube.
    B. Listen to breath sounds to assess for a pneumothorax.
    C. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.
    D. Attempt to pass a suction catheter into the tube.
    C. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  368. Your patient is a 5-year-old female who awoke with a harsh cough, sore throat, drooling, and high fever. She has shallow respirations of 40 and inspiratory stridor. She is completely focused on breathing, leaning forward on her outstretched arms. Which of the following is the best course of action?
    A. Rapidly tranfer to the ambulance and begin to ventilate at a rate of 24 to 28 per minute.
    B. Provide high-flow oxygen by nonrebreathing mask and repeat a full set of
    C. Provide blow-by oxygen, humidified if possible; transport without delay and avoid procedures that might upset her.
    D. Inspect the hypopharynx for edema and be prepared for insertion of an OPA if airway obstruction is imminent.
    vital signs every 5 minutes en route to the emergency department.
    C. Provide blow-by oxygen, humidified if possible; transport without delay and avoid procedures that might upset her.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  369. Assessment indicates that a newborn's respiratory rate is 40 and his heart rate 80 beats per minute. The EMT would:
    A. Administer high-flow oxygen.
    B. Start chest compressions.
    C. Initiate positive pressure ventilation.
    D. Continue to monitor the baby.
    C. Initiate positive pressure ventilation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  370. You arrive at the scene just as a 22-year-old has delivered her first child. She tells you that her due date is not for six weeks. Your initial assessment of the neonate reveals core and peripheral cyanosis, apnea, and an unobtainable pulse. Your first action will be to:
    A. start CPR.
    B. secure the scene for the coroner, this is a still birth.
    C. suction the nose and mouth and flick the soles of the feet.
    D. advise the mother that the age of viability is 38 weeks and apologize for her loss.
    A. start CPR.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  371. An ambulance should carry at least ___ L of oxygen.
    500
  372. An ambulance should be equipped with one mounted oxygen unit containing ____ L of oxygen.
    3,000
  373. A primary wheeled ambulance stretcher should allow __ degrees semi-sitting position and __ to __ degrees Trendelenburg’s position (feet elevated __ to __ inches) for airway care and treatment of shock.
    • 60
    • 10, 15
    • 6, 10
  374. A primary wheeled ambulance stretcher should have at least ____ restraining devices for the patient.
    3
  375. Park ___ feet before or past a crash scene to create a barrier between you and traffic.
    100
  376. Clean the stretcher with an EPA-registered germicidal/virucidal solution or bleach and water at 1:___ dilution.
    1:100
  377. At speeds of greater than __ mph, a tire may be lifted off the road as water “piles up” under it; the vehicle may then feel as if it is floating.
    30
  378. An appropriate site for a landing zone should be a hard or grassy level surface between:
    • 60 × 60 and 100 × 100 feet
    • 100 x 100 feet (recommended)
  379. Smoking, open lights or flames, and flares are prohibited within __ feet of the aircraft at all times.
    50
  380. Most helicopter services are limited to flying at ____ feet above sea level.
    10,000
  381. The federal specifications that cover basic ambulance design are known as:
    KKK-A -1822F, 2008.
  382. A type I ambulance is mounted on a ____ like chassis.
    truck
  383. Type II ambulances are built using a ____ type chassis.
    van
  384. A type ___ is ambulance is mounted on a cut-a-way van chassis.
    III
  385. You should maintain at least __" clearance around side impact air bags that have not deployed.
    5
  386. You should maintain at least __" clearance around driver air bags that have not deployed.
    10
  387. You should maintain at least __" clearance around passenger-side air bags that have not deployed.
    20
  388. Collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately ___ lb per cubic foot.
    100
  389. At no time should medical or rescue personnel enter a trench deeper than __′ without proper shoring in place.
    4
  390. Toxicity levels measure the health risk that a substance poses to someone who comes into contact with it.  There are five levels from __ to __.
    0 to 4
  391. The active, muscular part of breathing is called:
    A:expiration.
    B:respiration.
    C:ventilation.
    D:inhalation.
    D:inhalation.
  392. An elderly man is found lying unresponsive next to his bed. The patient's wife did not witness the events that led to his unresponsiveness. You should:
    A:assess the patient’s respirations.
    B:grasp the angles of the lower jaw and lift.
    C:tilt the head back and lift up the chin.
    D:apply 100% supplemental oxygen.
    B:grasp the angles of the lower jaw and lift.
  393. During your assessment of a trauma patient, you note massive facial injuries, weak radial pulses, and clammy skin.  What should be your MOST immediate concern?
    A:Providing rapid transport to a trauma center
    B:Internal bleeding and severe shock
    C:Potential obstruction of the airway
    D:Applying 100% supplemental oxygen
    C:Potential obstruction of the airway
  394. ____ (snoring) respirations, which most commonly result from partial airway obstruction by the tongue, are most rapidly corrected by simply positioning the head.
    Sonorous
  395. While assessing a man who is complaining of chest pain, he suddenly becomes unresponsive. You should:
    A:assess for breathing.
    B:assess for a pulse.
    C:apply the AED.
    D:open the airway.
    A:assess for breathing.
  396. A 50-year-old man's implanted defibrillator has fired twice within the last hour. He is conscious and alert and complains of a "sore chest." Further assessment reveals that his chest pain is reproducible to palpation and is localized to the area of his implanted defibrillator. In addition to supplemental oxygen, treatment for him should include:
    A:deactivating his defibrillator by running a magnet over it.
    B:application of the AED and transport to the hospital.
    C:up to three doses of nitroglycerin and prompt transport.
    D:prompt transport with continuous monitoring en route.
    D:prompt transport with continuous monitoring en route.
  397. The mid-upper region of the abdomen is referred to as the ____ because of its location over the stomach. This is a common site of pain or discomfort in patients experiencing a cardiac problem, which frequently causes them to attribute their pain or discomfort to indigestion.
    epigastrium
  398. An adult patient opens his eyes in response to a painful stimulus, moans when you ask him questions, and pulls his arm away when you palpate it.  What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
    8
  399. Which of the following mechanisms of injury would necessitate performing a rapid head-to-toe assessment?
    A:A 5 foot, 9 inch tall adult who fell 12 feet from a roof and landed on his side
    B:An impaled object in the patient’s lower extremity with minimal venous bleeding
    C:Amputation of three toes from the patient’s left foot with controlled bleeding
    D:A stable patient involved in a motor-vehicle crash, whose passenger was killed
    D:A stable patient involved in a motor-vehicle crash, whose passenger was killed
  400. When applying a vest-style spinal immobilization device to a patient with traumatic neck pain, you should:
    A:immobilize the head prior to securing the torso straps.
    B:secure the torso section prior to immobilizing the head.
    C:gently flex the head forward as you position the device.
    D:ask the patient to fully exhale as you secure the torso.
    B:secure the torso section prior to immobilizing the head.
  401. Hypoxia-induced unresponsiveness during a submersion injury is usually the result of:
    A:associated hypothermia.
    B:laryngospasm.
    C:a cardiac dysrhythmia.
    D:water in the lungs.
    B:laryngospasm.
  402. A middle-aged man was found floating
    facedown in a small pond. When you arrive at the scene, bystanders are present, but nobody has removed him from the water because they thought he was dead. After reaching the victim, you should:
    A:stabilize his head as you remove it from the water and open his airway by tilting his head back.
    B:grab him by his clothing, remove him from the pond, and assess for breathing and a pulse.
    C:float a buoyant backboard under him, remove him from the pond, and begin rescue breathing.
    D:move him to a supine position by rotating the entire upper half of his body as a single unit.
    D:move him to a supine position by rotating the entire upper half of his body as a single unit.
  403. After an advanced airway device (eg, ET tube, multilumen airway, supraglottic airway) has been inserted during cardiac arrest, ventilate the patient at a rate of: ______. This ventilation rate applies to all age groups, except the newborn.
    8 to 10 breaths/min (one breath every 6 to 8 seconds)
  404. When is it MOST appropriate to clamp and cut the umbilical cord?
    A:As soon as the cord has stopped pulsating
    B:Immediately following delivery of the newborn
    C:Before the newborn has taken its first breath
    D:After the placenta has completely delivered
    A:As soon as the cord has stopped pulsating
  405. When you begin to assess a woman in labor, she states that her contractions are occurring every 4 to 5 minutes and lasting approximately 30 seconds each. Which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask next?
    A:How many other children do you have?
    B:Has your bag of waters broken yet?
    C:At how many weeks gestation are you?
    D:Have you had regular prenatal care?
    C:At how many weeks gestation are you?
  406. Seizures in children MOST often are the result of:
    A:a life-threatening infection.
    B:an inflammatory process in the brain.
    C:a temperature greater than 102°F.
    D:an abrupt rise in body temperature.
    D:an abrupt rise in body temperature.
  407. As soon as you begin transport of a patient to the hospital, you should:
    A:contact medical control.
    B:notify the receiving facility.
    C:conduct a detailed examination.
    D:advise dispatch of your status.
    D:advise dispatch of your status.
  408. Your actions at the scene of a critically injured patient who was shot during a robbery should include:
    A:caring for the patient while manipulating the scene minimally.
    B:providing care when the police authorize you to.
    C:performing a primary assessment only.
    D:starting immediate care as you would with any other patient.
    A:caring for the patient while manipulating the scene minimally.
  409. According to the United States Department of Transportation (USDOT), minimum staffing for a basic life support ambulance includes:
    A:an EMT who functions as the driver.
    B:at least one EMT in the patient compartment.
    C:at least two EMTs in the patient compartment.
    D:a minimum of two EMTs in the ambulance.
    B:at least one EMT in the patient compartment.
  410. You are performing abdominal thrusts on a 19-year-old male with a severe airway obstruction when he becomes unresponsive. After lowering him to the ground and placing him in a supine position, you should:
    A:assess for a carotid pulse for up to 10 seconds.
    B:continue abdominal thrusts until ALS arrives.
    C:open his airway and look inside his mouth.
    D:begin CPR, starting with chest compressions.
    D:begin CPR, starting with chest compressions.
  411. The Cincinnati Stroke Scale is used to assess patients suspected of experiencing a stroke. It consists of three tests:
    • speech
    • facial droop
    • arm drift
  412. Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib) is correct?
    A:Any patient in V-Fib must receive CPR for 2 minutes prior to defibrillation.
    B:Loss of consciousness occurs within minutes after the onset of V-Fib.
    C:Patients in V-Fib should be defibrillated after every 60 seconds of CPR.
    D:In V-Fib, the heart is not pumping any blood and the patient is pulseless.
    D:In V-Fib, the heart is not pumping any blood and the patient is pulseless.
  413. A disorganized, ineffective quivering of the heart muscle. No blood is pumped through the body and the patient is pulseless.
    Ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib)
  414. Sudden cardiac arrest in the adult population MOST often is the result of:
    A:respiratory failure.
    B:accidental electrocution.
    C:myocardial infarction.
    D:a cardiac arrhythmia.
    D:a cardiac arrhythmia.
  415. The most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest (SCA) in the adult population is:
    a cardiac arrhythmia—usually ventricular fibrillation
  416. Tachycardia can be detrimental to a patient who is experiencing a cardiac problem because it causes:
    A:a profound decrease in oxygen consumption.
    B:increased cardiac oxygen usage and demand.
    C:increased cardiac filling in between beats.
    D:an associated increase in breathing difficulty.
    B:increased cardiac oxygen usage and demand.
  417. A ____ AED sends energy in two directions simultaneously. This is advantageous because it produces a more efficient defibrillation than monophasic defibrillation, which sends energy in only one direction, and uses a lower energy setting.
    biphasic
  418. Activated charcoal is contraindicated for patients who have ingested:
    • acid or alkali (ie, drain cleaner)
    • petroleum product
  419. A near-drowning is MOST accurately defined as:
    A:complications within 24 hours following submersion in water.
    B:survival for at least 24 hours following submersion in water.
    C:immediate death due to prolonged submersion in water.
    D:death greater than 24 hours following submersion in water.
    B:survival for at least 24 hours following submersion in water.
  420. Type of triage that should be performed during a lightning strike:
    reverse triage
  421. You respond to a baseball field for a person who was struck by lightning. When you arrive, you see one patient who appears confused and is ambulatory; a second patient who is conscious, sitting on the ground, and holding his arm; and a third patient who is supine and motionless. After requesting additional responders, you should:
    A:treat the conscious patients because the motionless patient is likely deceased.
    B:assess the motionless victim and perform CPR and defibrillation if necessary.
    C:assess and begin treating the sitting patient first because he is obviously injured.
    D:proceed to the ambulatory patient, sit him down, and assess his mental status.
    B:assess the motionless victim and perform CPR and defibrillation if necessary.
  422. A 5-year-old child in compensated shock secondary to severe vomiting and diarrhea would be expected to have:
    A:a weakly palpable carotid pulse.
    B:slow, shallow respirations.
    C:strong, bounding radial pulses.
    D:a slow capillary refill time.
    D:a slow capillary refill time.
  423. Compensated shock in the infant or child is characterized by (five things):
    • poor peripheral perfusion
    • weak peripheral pulses
    • pallor
    • tachycardia
    • tachypnea
  424. Following the initial steps of resuscitation, a newborn remains apneic and cyanotic. You should:
    A:start CPR if the heart rate is less than 80 beats/min.
    B:begin ventilations with a bag-mask device.
    C:immediately resuction its mouth and nose.
    D:gently flick the soles of its feet for up to 60 seconds.
    B:begin ventilations with a bag-mask device.
  425. If the newborn remains apneic after the initial steps of resuscitation, or has a heart rate less than ___ beats/min, you should begin positive-pressure ventilations (PPV) with a bag-mask device at a rate of 40 to 60 breaths/min.
    100
  426. If the newborn’s heart rate is less than __ beats/min despite effective positive-pressure ventilation, you should begin chest compressions.
    60
  427. When crowning is observed, you should apply gentle pressure to the infant’s head to prevent an:
    explosive delivery.
  428. A 29-year-old woman, who is 38 weeks pregnant, presents with heavy vaginal bleeding, a blood pressure of 70/50 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 130 beats/min. She is pale and diaphoretic, and denies abdominal cramping or pain. Her signs and symptoms are MOST consistent with a/an:
    A:ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
    B:placenta previa.
    C:ruptured ovarian cyst.
    D:abruptio placenta.
    B:placenta previa.
  429. ____ previa and abruptio ____ occur during the later stages of pregnancy.
    Placenta
  430. Ectopic pregnancy, a condition in which the egg implants and grows outside the uterus (usually in a fallopian tube), is a ____ trimester condition.
    first
  431. Keeping in mind that a child’s tongue is proportionately large, the preferred method for inserting an oropharyngeal (oral) airway is to use a ____ ____  to depress the tongue.
    tongue blade
  432. You are assessing a 5-year-old boy with major trauma. His blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg and his pulse rate is
    140 beats/min. and weak. The child's blood pressure:
    A:suggests increased intracranial pressure.
    B:indicates decompensated shock.
    C:is appropriate based on his age.
    D:reflects adequate compensation.
    B:indicates decompensated shock.
  433. The low normal systolic blood pressure (SBP) for a child between 1 and 10 years of age is calculated by:
    multiplying his or her age (in years) by 2 and adding 70.
  434. As the baby’s head begins to deliver, it is usually in a ____, face ____ position. After the head delivers completely, however, it usually tilts to the side in preparation for delivery of the shoulders.
    posterior, down
  435. A patient presents with severe bradycardia, hypersalivation, vomiting, and excessive tearing. Which of the following agents would MOST likely cause his signs and symptoms?
    A:Soman
    B:Chlorine
    C:Phosgene
    D:Anthrax
    A:Soman
  436. Nerve agents, discovered while in search of a superior pesticide, are in a class of chemical called ____, which are found in household bug sprays, agricultural pesticides, and some industrial chemicals.
    organophosphates
  437. ____ block an essential enzyme in the nervous system, which cause the body’s organs to become overstimulated.
    Organophosphates
  438. The mnemonics “DUMBELS” and "SLUDGEM" can help you recall the signs and symptoms of nerve agent exposure; they stand for:
    • Diarrhea
    • Urination
    • Miosis (constricted pupils)
    • Bradycardia
    • Emesis (vomiting)
    • Lacrimation (excessive tearing)
    • Seizures, Salivation, and Sweating
    • Salivation
    • Lacrimation
    • Urination
    • Defecation
    • GI distress
    • Emesis
    • Miosis
  439. You are cleaning the back of the ambulance after transporting a patient with major trauma. Which of the following contaminated items should NOT be placed in a plastic biohazard bag?
    A:Blood-soaked gauze pads
    B:Suction canister
    C:Rigid suction catheter
    D:Plastic IV catheter
    D:Plastic IV catheter (should be placed in sharps)
  440. In most states, the EMT is required to report which of the following occurrences?
    A:Injury to a minor
    B:Drug overdose
    C:Motor vehicle crash
    D:Animal bite
    D:Animal bite
  441. Which of the following is the preferred initial method for providing artificial ventilations to an apneic adult?
    A:One-person bag-valve-mask technique with 100% oxygen
    B:Two-person bag-valve-mask technique with 100% oxygen
    C:Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device
    D:Mouth-to-mask technique with supplemental oxygen
    D:Mouth-to-mask technique with supplemental oxygen
  442. A 65-year-old man has generalized weakness
    and chest pressure. He has a bottle of prescribed nitroglycerin, but states that he has not taken any of his medication. As your partner prepares to administer oxygen, you should:
    A:apply the AED and prepare the patient for immediate transport.
    B:perform a secondary assessment and obtain baseline vital signs.
    C:assist the patient with his nitroglycerin with medical control approval.
    D:administer up to 325 mg of aspirin if the patient is not allergic to it.
    D:administer up to 325 mg of aspirin if the patient is not allergic to it.
  443. Aspirin has clearly been shown to reduce mortality and morbitiy associated with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) and should be given as early as possible; the dose is ___ to ___ mg.
    160, 325
  444. In addition to supplemental oxygen, one of the MOST effective way to minimize the detrimental effects associated
    with acute coronary syndrome is to:
    A:reassure the patient and provide prompt transport.
    B:request ALS support for any patient who has chest pain.
    C:transport the patient rapidly, using lights and siren.
    D:administer nitroglycerin in 15 to 20 minute intervals.
    A:reassure the patient and provide prompt transport.
  445. Chest compression effectiveness is MOST effectively assessed by:
    A:palpating for a carotid pulse with each compression.
    B:measuring the systolic blood pressure during compressions.
    C:listening for a heartbeat with each compression.
    D:carefully measuring the depth of each compression.
    A:palpating for a carotid pulse with each compression.
  446. Initial treatment for a patient with external blood loss depends upon:
    A:his or her past medical history.
    B:whether or not hypotension is present.
    C:the amount of estimated blood loss.
    D:his or her signs and symptoms.
    D:his or her signs and symptoms.
  447. The nerves that supply the diaphragm (the phrenic nerves) exit the spinal cord at C3, C4, and C5. A patient whose spinal cord is injured below the __ level will lose the ability to move his or her intercostal muscles (the muscles in between the ribs), but the diaphragm will still contract. The patient may still be able to breathe because the phrenic nerves remain intact.
    C5
  448. Patients with spinal cord injuries at __ or above often lose their ability to breathe entirely.
    C3
  449. Remember this: C3, 4, and 5 keep the ____ alive.
    diaphragm
  450. You are assessing a young male who was
    stabbed in the right lower chest. He is semiconscious and has labored breathing, collapsed jugular veins, and absent breath sounds on the right side of his chest. This patient MOST likely has a:
    A:hemothorax.
    B:pneumothorax.
    C:liver laceration.
    D:ruptured spleen.
    A:hemothorax (due to penetrating trauma)
  451. A pneumothorax (air in the pleural space) is also associated with difficulty breathing and unilaterally decreased or absent breath sounds; however, the ____ ____ are usually not collapsed.
    jugular veins
  452. For the most part, the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) is no longer routinely used in EMS. However, it may be useful to stabilize ____ fractures, especially if the patient has accompanying signs of shock.
    pelvic
  453. Some patients with blunt trauma to the eyeball (globe) may present with a ____, or bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye.
    hyphema
  454. Injury to the cervical spine following a hanging occurs via ____, or stretching, of the vertebrae and spinal cord.
    distraction
  455. A ____ is a partial or incomplete dislocation.
    subluxation
  456. A 46-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and shortness of breath after he was bitten on the leg by a rattlesnake. His blood pressure is 106/58 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 112 beats/min. In addition to supplemental oxygen, further treatment for this patient should include:
    A:elevation of the affected part and ice packs.
    B:proximal arterial constricting band and splinting.
    C:ice packs to the wound and splinting.
    D:splinting and lowering of the affected part.
    D:splinting and lowering of the affected part.
  457. Do NOT apply ____ to a snakebite; this will cause local vasoconstriction and may force the venom deeper into the patient’s circulation.
    ice
  458. ____ ____ (diabetic coma) is characterized by a dangerously high blood glucose level (hyperglycemia); slow onset; warm, dry skin (from dehydration); and Kussmaul’s respirations, which are deep and rapid and have a fruity or acetone odor.
    Hyperglycemic ketoacidosis
  459. ____ ____ results from a low blood glucose level (hypoglycemia) and is characterized by a rapid onset; altered mental status; and cool, clammy skin.
    Insulin shock
  460. You are transporting a 35-year-old male who
    has a history of alcoholism. He stopped drinking 4 days ago and is now disoriented, diaphoretic, and tachycardic. You should be MOST concerned that he:
    A:will develop a high fever.
    B:is severely dehydrated.
    C:will begin hallucinating.
    D:may have a seizure.
    D:may have a seizure.
  461. Weight loss, fever, and night sweats could indicate tuberculosis or HIV/AIDS; however, the dark purple lesions on the skin, which are called ____ ____, are malignant skin tumors and are a classic finding in patients in the later stages of AIDS.
    Kaposi’s sarcoma
  462. Of the following, the MOST detrimental effect of gastric distention in infants and children is:
    A:tracheal rupture.
    B:less effective chest compressions.
    C:acute rupture of the diaphragm.
    D:decreased ventilatory volume.
    D:decreased ventilatory volume.
  463. A child typically begins to develop stranger anxiety when he or she is a/an:
    A:infant.
    B:toddler.
    C:preschooler.
    D:neonate.
    B:toddler.
  464. The ____ ____ on a bite knot creates a secure loop at the working end of the rope, the part of the rope used for forming the knot.  This loop can be used to attach the end of the rope to a fixed object or a piece of equipment, or to tie a life safety rope around a person. The loop may be of any size, from an inch to several feet in diameter.
    figure eight
  465. The ____ ____ is not a secure knot by itself, which is why it is used in conjunction with other knots.
    half hitch
  466. The ____ ____ is used to attach a rope firmly to a round object, such as a tree or fencepost.
    clove hitch
  467. All of the following are considered key components at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, EXCEPT:
    A:an on-scene emergency physician.
    B:an adequately staffed treatment area.
    C:a supply area near the treatment area.
    D:an on-site communication system.
    A:an on-scene emergency physician.
  468. Physical presence of a ____ at an MCI, although optimal, is often not possible.
    physician
  469. A 52-year-old woman crashed her minivan into a tree. She is pinned at the legs by the steering wheel and is semiconscious. After gaining access to the patient, you should:
    A:have the fire department disentangle the patient and quickly remove her from the car.
    B:immediately apply high-flow oxygen to the patient and allow extrication to begin.
    C:perform a primary assessment and provide any life-saving care before extrication.
    D:rapidly assess her from head to toe, obtain vital signs, and apply a cervical collar.
    C:perform a primary assessment and provide any life-saving care before extrication.

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview