farm camp final

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XQWCat
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276196
Filename:
farm camp final
Updated:
2014-06-05 16:36:35
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farm camp
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Description:
farm camp final exam, equine, bovine, caprine, ovine, camelid and swine
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  1. Equine TPR
    • temp: 99-101.5, +/- 102
    • pulse: 28-44 (less for athletes, more for foal/neonate)
    • RR: 6-12/min
  2. bovine TPR
    • temp: 100-102.5
    • pulse: 40-80
    • RR: 10-30
  3. caprine TPR
    • temp: 101-104
    • pulse: 70-90
    • RR: 12-30
  4. ovine TPR
    • temp: 101-104
    • pulse: 70-90
    • RR: 12-25
  5. camelid TPR
    • temp: 99-101.5
    • pulse: 60-90
    • RR: 10-30
  6. porcine TPR
    • temp: 101-103
    • pulse: 60-90
    • RR: 10-24 (young up to 50)
  7. CRT of 2 = (% dehydration, HR, PCV/TS, etc)
    6-7% dehydrated, 40-60 bmp, 40/7 PCV/TS, mild dehydration, 2-3s delayed skin tent
  8. CRT of 3 = (% dehydration, HR, PCV/TS, etc)
    8-9% dehydrated, 61-80 bmp, 45/7.5 PCV/TS, moderate dehydration, 3-5s skin tent, tacky mucous membranes
  9. CRT of 4 = (% dehydration, HR, PCV/TS, etc)
    10-11% dehydrated, 81-100 bmp, 50/8 PCV/TS, approaching severe dehydration and shock.  Weak peripheral pulse, sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes, delayed skin tent >5s
  10. CRT of >4 = (% dehydration, HR, PCV/TS, etc)
    12-15% dehydrated, >100 bmp, >50/>8 PCV/TS, shock, collapse, death if untreated
  11. A temp of 104.2 in a horse is
    pyrexic
  12. a pulse of 80 in a horse is
    tachycardic
  13. gut sounds of ULQ +2, URQ +4, LRQ +4, LLQ 0 in a horse are
    • UL normal
    • UR hypermotile
    • LL hypomotile
    • LR hypermotile
  14. A horse with HR 80, CRT 3s, 3-5s skin tent, tacky mucous membranes, PCV 45, TS 7.5
    is what % dehydrated?
    8-9%
  15. a horse with calcium carbonate crystals in its urine is
    normal
  16. fluid replacement formulas
    • fluids needed = maintenance + ongoing losses + deficit replacement
    • maintenance = (given) x kg x 24h
    • ongoing = (given) x kg x 24h
    • deficit replacement = body weight (kg) x % dehydration = L to replace
  17. mare
    female equine >/= 3y
  18. stallion
    intact male equine between 2 and 3
  19. gelding
    • castrated male equine of any age
    • castrated male camelid
  20. foal
    equine from birth to weaning (4-7m)
  21. weanling
    equine from weaning (4-7m) to 1 year
  22. yearling
    • equine from 1-1.5y
    • immature caprine
    • camelid between 1 and 2 years
  23. long yearling
    equine 1.5-2y
  24. cold
    intact male between 2 and 3 (stallion?)
  25. filly
    female between 2 and 3
  26. cow
    mature female bovine
  27. bull
    mature male bovine
  28. steer
    castrated male bovine
  29. heifer
    immature female bovine
  30. calf
    neonate bovine
  31. heifer calf
    neonate female bovine, <1y
  32. bull calf
    neonate male bovine, <1y
  33. calving
    parturition of bovines
  34. ewe
    adult female ovine
  35. ram
    adult male ovine
  36. wether
    castrated male ovine and/or caprine
  37. yearling ewe
    immature female ovine
  38. lamb
    neonate ovine
  39. wether lamb
    castrated neonate ovine
  40. ram lamb
    intact male neonate ovine
  41. ewe lamb
    female neonate ovine
  42. lambing
    parturition of ovines
  43. doe/nanny
    adult female caprine
  44. buck/billy
    adult male caprine
  45. sow
    mature intact female swine
  46. kid
    neonate caprine
  47. buck kid
    intact male neonate caprine
  48. doe kid
    female neonate caprine
  49. kidding
    parturition
  50. female/dam
    adult female camelid
  51. cria
    neonate camelid
  52. boar
    mature intact male swine
  53. barrow
    male swine castrated before puberty
  54. stag
    male swine castrated after puberty
  55. gilt
    immature female, pre-1st litter
  56. farrowing
    parturition in swine
  57. piglet
    birth to weaning of swine
  58. shoat
    intact male swine before puberty
  59. pig
    young male or female swine, less than 120 lbs (~4 months)
  60. hog
    male or female swine, greater than 120 lbs (over 4 months)
  61. brucellosis in sheep
    • epididymitis, some abortion
    • there is a vaccine
    • b. ovis, most common
  62. brucellosis in goats
    • abortion storms, lameness, mastitis, diarrhea, depression
    • no vaccine
    • b. melitensis most common, causes MALTA FEVER in humans
  63. brucellosis in cattle
    • abortion at 7-8 months, orchitis, epididymitis
    • vaccine for heifer calves (@ 4-8 months)
    • b. abortis
    • UNGULENT FEVER in humans
  64. brucellosis in pigs
    bacteremia for up to 90 days, orchitis, lameness, spondylitis, paralysis, metritis, abscesses, temporary or permanent sterility
  65. johne's disease/paratuberculosis
    • cattle, sheep and goats
    • 4 stages: silent, subclinical, clinical, advanced clinical
    • tip of the iceberg, 1 ID'd = 15-20 more
    • <1/2 ID'd by sensitive fecal culture
    • continuous or intermittant prouse, watery diarrhea, pale enlarged intestinal lymph nodes, thick intestinal rugal folds
  66. T/F 
    The inability to retract the penis back into the prepuce, usually due to excessive swelling
    of the prepuce or penis is known as penile paralysis.
    • FALSE
    • paraphimosis
  67. During which phase of parturition does expulsion of the afterbirth occur?
    phase 3
  68. T/F
    Scrotal circumference is important when performing a breeding soundness examination
    of livestock.
    True, especially in bulls
  69. T/F
    Do not use black walnut shavings around horses because it can cause heaves
    False, causes laminitis
  70. T/F
    Hot zones are areas that no one should enter without permission or without proper
    personal protective gear.
    TRUE
  71. T/F
    Compartment syndrome is caused by the collapse of vessels inside a muscle
    compartment due to the heavy weight of the animal pressing down on the
    compartment's blood and lymphatic vessels. Collapse of vessels eventually
    compromises nutrition and waste elimination off the muscle and nerve cells inside the
    compartment, resulting in various degrees of muscle and nerve dysfunction.
    Compartment syndrome is an insignificant problem in anesthetized animal.
    False, SIGNIFICANT
  72. T/F
    Prepurchase examinations are paid by the seller. Prepuchase examinations are a
    guarantee of the animal's future performance.
    FALSE, no guarantee
  73. You are called out on a farm call with Dr. Wachter to examine a horse that has been
    coughing. On physical examination you find the animal has a temperature of 103,
    respiration rate of 22, and pulse rate of 40. Which of these three is abnormal.
    Temperature (99.5-101.5) and respiratory rate (6-12)
  74. T/F
    Calcium carbonate crystals are normal and common in horse urine
    TRUE
  75. T/F
    Signs of pneumothorax include decreased respiratory rate, dyspnea, cyanosis, and
    possibly collapse.
    False
  76. T/F
    The paper recording speed for an EKG is usually 25 mm/sec in large animals.
    true
  77. T/F
    Smegma tends to harden into round balls, called "beans," within the urethral fossa
    True
  78. T/F
    Caslick procedures are commonly performed in females to treat cribbing and in mares
    entering race training.
    False, prevent windsucking
  79. In most (equine) muscles IM injections typically have a volume of ___ ml's 
    A. 15
    B. 25
    C. 1
    D. 2
    A. 15
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. A tooth which is rudimentary and is known as a wolf tooth to layman is actually which
    tooth? 
    A. PM2
    B. PM1
    C. M1
    D. PM3
    B. PM1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. What types of drugs are: 
    butorphanol
    acepromazine
    xylazine
    • butorphanol - opiate
    • acepromazine - tranquilizer
    • xylazine - sedative-hypnotic
  82. Etiological agent causing equine thrush
    fusobacterium necrophorum
  83. Etiological agent causing equine lyme disease
    borrelia burgdorferi
  84. Etiological agent causing equine strangles
    streptococcus equi
  85. Etiological agent causing equine potomac horse fever
    neoricketsia risticii
  86. Etiological agent causing equine piroplasmosis
    babesia equi
  87. Etiological agent causing equine infectious anemia
    lentivirus
  88. Etiological agent causing equine west nile virus
    flaviviridae
  89. Etiological agent causing equine rhinopneumonitis
    equine herpes virus
  90. Etiological agent causing equine influenza
    orthomyxovirus
  91. Etiological agent causing equine vesicular stomatitis
    rhabdoviridae
  92. etiological agent causing bovine blackleg
    clostridium perfringes
  93. etiological agent causing bovine pinkeye
    moraxella bovis
  94. etiological agent causing bovine lumpy jaw
    actinomyces bovis
  95. etiological agent causing bovine spongiform encephalopathy
    prion
  96. etiological agent causing bovine subclinical mastitis
    streptococcus agalactiae (or staph aureus)
  97. which of the following disease is/are zoonotic? 
    A. a and b
    B. pinkeye
    C. leptospirosis
    D. brucellosis
    A. lepto and brucellosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. T/F
    Hemorrhage and infection are the primary postoperative complications of castration.
    true
  99. T/F
    A bier block uses an IV injection of local anesthetic, distal to a previously placed
    tourniquet.
    True
  100. T/F
    cattle normally have smooth kidneys
    false
  101. T/F
    Whenever possible, bovine im injections should be given in the semintendinosus muscle
    false, lateral cervical
  102. You are called out on a farm call with Dr. Wachter to look at a sick 4 year old Holstein.
    When you arrive your tpr reveals the following. Temperature 104, Pulse 50, Respiration
    rate 42. Describe these findings.
    pyrexia, normal pulse, tachypnea
  103. T/F
    The needle should point towards the brain when giving an intravenous injection.
    false, toward the heart
  104. Which of the following are types of mastitis? 
    a. Contagious
    b. Environmental
    c. Gangrenous
    d. Clinical 
    e. Subclinical
    f. All of the above
    g. a and b only
    f. All of the above
  105. Which dairy breed produces the most milk fat? 
    A. Ayrshire
    B. Brown Swiss
    C. Jersey
    D. Guernsey
    E. Holstein
    C. Jersey
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. T/F
    Male urinary catheters are difficult to place (ovine and caprine) because of the sigmoid flexure and urethral
    diverticulum.
    true
  107. T/F
    Holding the nostrils and mouth shut for up to 45 seconds while a nanny is standing can
    stimulate urination.
    false, a ewe
  108. T/F
    Sheep and goats are as sensitive to lidocaine as bovines are.
    false, more sensitive
  109. T/F
    The primary risk of heat cautery for dehorning is heat-induced meningitis and malacia
    true
  110. T/F
    Breeding females may reject males that lack scent glands.
    true
  111. The major clinical sign of brucellosis in sheep is epididymitis in rams.
    true
  112. T/F
    Romanov sheep are the most common breed diagnosed with scrapie
    false, Suffolk
  113. T/F
    Antibiotics if given in time will cure ovine progressive pneumonia.
    false, no tx
  114. T/F
    Haemonchus contortus cause acute anemia in lambs, bottle jaw, death, and chronic
    weight loss.
    true
  115. T/F
    Clostridium Type C is also known as "lamb dysentary."
    • false. Type B = lamb dysentery
    • Type C = "struck" in adults (diarrhea)
  116. a form of Aberrant Behavior Syndrome in camelids is called
    Berserk Male syndrome
  117. a castrated camelid is called a
    gelding
  118. a type of placenta in which chorion is apposed to the uterine epithelium (in camelids)
    epitheliochorial
  119. female camelid is called
    dam
  120. use of follicle-stimulating hormone to increase number of eggs  (camelid) is
    superovulation
  121. lama
    south american camelid
  122. technique for quantitating soluble proteins in agar (camelid)
    radial immunodiffusion test
  123. neonate camelid is called
    cria
  124. most common position for a female camelid to give birth is
    standing
  125. T/F
    camelids often bloat in lateral recumbancy
    false.  Camelids rarely bloat under anesthesia, but sternal will help
  126. T/F
    fasting is not recommended with camelids
    false
  127. T/F
    camelids should be artificially inseminated in the right horn
    false, left horn
  128. T/F
    camelids often kick out during subcutaneous injections.  Care should be taken
    true
  129. T/F
    Camelids have oval erythrocytes that can swell up to 240% of their normal size without
    lysing, whereas other animals with round erythrocytes can only swell up to 150% without
    lysing.
    true
  130. etiological agent in swine causing orchitis
    brucellosis suis
  131. etiological agent in swine causing atrophic rhinitis
    bordetella spp.
  132. etiological agent in swine causing exudative epidermitis
    staphylococcus aureus
  133. etiological agent in swine causing diamond back disease
    erysipelothrix rhusiopathae
  134. T/F
    a barrow is an uncastrated male of the porcine species
    false, castrated pre-puberty
  135. T/F
    castration is typically done in 2-3 day old male piglets to prevent taint
    true. taint is a bad taste in meat caused by unaltered males
  136. T/F
    Needle teeth are deciduous upper and lower third premolars and deciduous canine teeth
    in the newborn piglet; they are routinely clipped to remove the sharp tips to prevent
    damage to the sow’s teats and to other piglets.
    • False
    • deciduous 3 (12) incisors and deciduous canines
  137. T/F
    The pharyngeal recess in swine is ventral and caudal to the orifice of the auditory tube in
    the pharynx of the ruminant.
    • false
    • dorsal to esophagus, causes trouble in intubation
  138. T/F
    A stag is a male of the porcine species that was castrated after reaching puberty
    true
  139. T/F
    Terminal lines refers to swine breeds that have stronger meat characteristics.
    true

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