CAAC ATPL 270 questions

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CAAC ATPL 270 questions
2014-06-07 22:15:33

Study questions Chinese pilot ATPL
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  1. Which weather condition is an example of a non frontal instablity band?

    A. radiation fog
    B. front gense
    C. squall line
  2. The horizontal wind shear critical for turbulance per 150 miles is

    A. 18 knots or less
    B. greater than 18 knots
    C. not a factar
  3. 3.ⅢA 最低

    A.DH 50 feet and RVR 350m
    B.RVR 300m
    C.RVR 200m
  4. What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?

    A. Reduce profilw drag
    B. decelerates the supper surface boundary lager air
    C. changes the stalling angle of attack of a higher angle
  5. ESHP of a turboprop engine is a measure of

    A. Turbine inlet temperature
    B. Shaft horsepower and jet thrust
    C. Propeller thrust only
  6. what action should be taken when cleared for approach while……

    A.descend to min vector altitude
    B.remain at last assigned altitude until establish on published route segment
    C.descend to initial approach fix altitude
  7. Where is a common location for an inversion?

    A. Tropopause
    B. Stratosphere
    C. Base of cumulus clouds
  8. The section of the atmosphere surrounding the earth and closest to surface iscalled

    A. troposphere
    B. stratosphere
    C. tropopause
  9. Where is the usual location for an inversion?

    A. in the stratosphere;
    B. at the base of cumulus clouds;
    C. at the tropopause;
  10. What is the reason for variations is geometric pitch along a propeller or rotorblade?

    A. It prevents the portion of the blade near the Huber root from stalling duringcruising flight
    B. It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruisingflight
    C. It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruisingflight
  11. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

    A. Absobite upper limit of could formation
    B. Absence of wind and turbulence
    C. Abrupt charge of and lapse rate
  12. Which maximum range factor decrease as weight decrease?

    A. Airspeed
    B. Angle of attack
    C. Altitude
  13. Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth airdepend?

    A. Angle of bank
    B. Turn airspeed
    C. Rate of turn
  14. Airport not listed in a proscribed take-off weather and does not have the minimumtake-off

  15. Which weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?

    B. Calm
    C. High pressure area
  16. Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the Jet stream?

    A. Cold front and warm front
    B. Warm front
    C. Occluded front
  17. Which arctic flying hazard is caused when a cloud layer of uniform thicknessoverlies a snow or ice covered surface

    A. Whiteout
    B. Blowing snow
    C. Ice fog
  18. When setting the altimeter, pilot should disregard

    A. Corrections for static pressure systems
    B. Effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures
    C. Corrections for instrument error
  19. What criteria determine which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-engineairplane?

    A. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.
    B. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.
    C. The one designated by the manufacturer, which develops most usable thrust.
  20. When the gross weight is increased

    A. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag
    B. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased
    C. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag
  21. Which type jet stream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence

    A.A jet stream associated whither wide isotherm spacing
    B.A straight jet stream associated with a high-pressure ridge
    C.A curring jet stream associated with a deep low pressure through
  22. What type weather changes is to be expected in an area where frontolysis isreported?

    A. The frontal weather becoming stronger
    B. The front is moving at a faster speed
    C. The front is dissipating
  23. When saturated air moves downhill, it’s temperature increases

    A. At a faster rate than dry air because of the release of latent heat
    B. At a slower rate than dry air because condersation release heat
    C. At a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat
  24. What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing?

    A. The altitude and airspeed should be consider higher than normal throughout theapp
    B. The flight path and procedures should be almost identical to a normal app andlanding
    C.A normal approach except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshowd
  25. What effect if any will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speedhave on hydroplaning

    A. increase hydroplaning potential regard less of braking
    B. no effect on hydroplaning,but increase landing roll
    C. reduce hydroplaning potential if having braking is applied
  26. How should a pilot describle break action?

    A. 00 percent ,50 percent,75 or 100 percent
    B. zero-zero fifty-fifty or normal
    C. poor medium or good
  27. Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visualreferences are not required, the missed approach should be initiated up on

    A. Arrival at the visual descent point
    B. Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach
    C. Arrical at the DH on glide slope
  28. When does ATC issue a STAR?

    A. only when ATC deems it appropriate
    B. only upon request of the pilot
    C. only to high priority flights
  29. Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?

    A. upper low located directly ocer the surface low
    B. upper winds blowing accross the front
    C. The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front
  30. Which condition are necessary for the formation of slope fog?

    A.A clear sky calm 100%相对湿度
    B.层云下雨 and a 10-25-knot wind moving the precipitation up the slope
    C. Moist stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind
  31. frost most likely form on aircraft surface

    A. on overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation
    B. on clear nights with stable air and calm
    C 晴朗的夜空,有对流运动,小的露点温度差
  32. Which weather condition is present when the tropical storm is upgraded to ahurricane or typhoon

    A. Highest windspeed 100 knots or more
    B. A clear area or hurricane eye has formed
    C. Sustained winds of 65 knots or more
  33. Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at thedestination airport at the EAT?

    A. Radar Summary and weather Depiction charts
    B. low-level prog chart
    C. Terminal Aerodrome forecast
  34. Isobars on a surface weather chart represent line of equal pressure

    A. at agiven atmospheric pressure
    B. at the surface
    C. reduce to sea level
  35. What effect if any does altitude have on Vmc for an airplane with unsure-changedengines?

    A. Decrease with altitude Increase
    B. None
    C. Increase with altitude
  36. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsoryreport?

    A. passengers on board
    B. ordering galley supplies
    C. when an approach has been missed.
  37. Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
    Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew-point and the dew-point isalso below freezing
  38. When are inboard ailerons normally used?

    A. Low-speed flight only.
    B. High-speed flight only.
    C. Low-speed and high-speed flight.
  39. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in alight twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to

    A. best engine out rate of climb airspeed while on the ground the lift off and climbairspeed.
    B.Vmc then lift off at that speed and climb at most angle of climb airspeed.
    C. An airspeed slightly above VMC the lift off and climb at the best rate of climbairspeed.
  40. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?

    A.60 days.
    B.90 days.
    C.120 days.
  41. What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather?

    A. change in air pressure over Earth’s surface;
    B. Variation of solar energy at surface;
    C. Movement of air mass from moist areas to dry areas.
  42. where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and front?

    A. the jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the coldfront
    B. the jetstream is located north of the surface system
    C. the jetstream is located south of the low and warm front
  43. What term describes are elongated areas of lows pressure?

    A. hurricane or typhoon;
    B. Ridge;
    C. Trough
  44. What is the highest speed possible with out supersonic flow over the wing?

    A. critica mach No.;
    B. initial suffer speed;
    C. transonic index
  45. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharge-reciprocating engine?

    A .the altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained;
    B.the highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained;
    C.highest altitude where the mipfure can be leaned to best power ratio;
  46. In addition to the localizer; glide slope; marker beacons; approach lighting and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet ACL??

    A. TDZL;RCLS and RVR;
    B. RCLS and REIL;
    C. Rader and RVR
  47. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane?

    A. with one engine inoperative;
    B. with full flaps and gear extended;
    C. with climb power on
  48. What is the difference between a visual and contact approach

    A. both are the same but classfied according to the party initiating the approach
    B. A visual approath is an IFR authorization while a contact app is a VFR….
    C. A visual app is initiated by TAC while a contact is initiated by the pilot
  49. What weather difference is found on each side of a “dry line”?

    A. extreme temperature difference.
    B. strut versus cumulus clouds.
    C. Dew-point difference
  50. Which area or areas of the northen hemisphere experance a generally East toWest movement of weather system?

    A. subtropical only;
    B. Arctic only;
    C. Arctic and subtropical;
  51. Which weather will experance at the altitude where the dew-point lapse rate anddry Adiabatic rate meet?

    A. precipitation starts;
    B. cloud bases form;
    C. stable air charge to unstable air;
  52. In which meteorological condition can finite a low pressure area from?

    A. warm front or occlouded fronts;
    B. slow-moving cold front or stationary fronts;
    C. cold front;
  53. What conditions are indicated on a weather depiction chart?

    A. actual sky cover visibility restrictions and type of precipiteition at reporting stations;
    B. actual en route weather conditions between reporting station;
    C. for case ceilirgs and visibilities over a large geographic area.
  54. Constant pressure analysis charts contain air tours is others some contain isobarsthe contours depict?

    A. high lows troughs and ridges on the surface;
    B. ridges lows troughs and high aloft;
    C. highs lows troughs and ridges corrected to MSL
  55. Weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause can?

    A. abrupt temperature of the tropopause;
    B. thin layers of cirrus clouds at the tropopause level;
    C. maximum wind and narrow wind shear zone;
  56. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colderair?

    A. atmosphere pressure increase;
    B. temperature dew point decrease;
    C. wind direction shifts to the left
  57. Which type wind flows down slope become warmer and dry?

    A. volley wind;
    B. loud breeze;
    C. katabatic wind.
  58. The Embedded thunderstorm is suddenly and violently?

    A.The thunderstorm is suddenly and violently the are obscured by other type ofclouds;
    B.The thunderstorm is suddenly and violently the are predicted to develop in a stableair mass;
    C.The serious thunderstorm is suddenly and violently the are embed a squall line
  59. A prognostic charts depicts the condition.

    A. exsting at the surface during the past 6 months;
    B. which pressure from front the 1000 miniburt though 700
    C. forcast to exist at specific time in the future shown on the chart;
  60. what is a feature of a stationary front?

    A.surface winds tends to flow parallel to the zone conditions ate a combination of strong wind front
    C.the warm front surface moves abort half the spead of the cold front
  61. where is the usual location of a thermal low?

    A. over the surface of a dry sunning region
    B. over the eye of a hurricane
    C. over the anti region
  62. which condition produce weather on the side of a large lake?

    A. cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog
    B. warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce advection fog
    C. warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce rain shower
  63. which term applies when the temperature of the air change by compression ofexpansion with no heat added or removed?

    A. katabatic
    B. advection
    C. adiabatic
  64. where do squall lines most often develop?

    A. behind a station front
    B. ahead of a cold front
    C. in a occlauded front
  65. atmosphere pressure change due to a TS will be at the lowest value?

    A. during the downdraft and heavy rain showers
    B. when the TS is approaching
    C. immediately after the rain shower have stopped
  66. what weather is predicted by the term Vcts in a TAFA. between

    A. 5 and 25 km
    B. within 50 km
    C. TS are expected in the vicinity
  67. CAT turbulance most likely encountered

    A. constant pressure chart show 20 kt less than 60 NM aparT
    B. constant pressure chart show 20 kt less than 60 kt aparT
    C. constant pressure chart show 20 kt less than 20 kt
  68. which primary source contains informations regardings the expected weather at destination Airport at ETA

    A. radar summary and weather depiction charts
    B. TAFC.
    C. low-level prog chart
  69. the jestream usually cross which front?

    A. cold front
    B. warm front
    C. occlusion front
  70. “FAI L OPERATIONAL” means fault, roll the autopilots, will disengage if a fault is tested in one of them leaving the aircraft in a passive state of trim

    A. False
    B. Depends
    C. True
  71. Which take-off climb segment is limited to 5 minutes at MCT?

    A. 2nd
    B. 3rd
    C. 1st
  72. Which take-off climb segment is the most critical?

    A. 1st
    B. 3rd
    C. 2nd
  73. The human body is comfortable at normal temperatures. When the relative humidity is?

    A. 60-80%
    B. 40-60%
    C. 20-30%
  74. Which statement is correct about conditional waypoint?

    A. they are event defined by geographically fix position, by radial and distance
    B. there are four type passing through altitude radial DME dist intercept course
    C. they can be entered manually by the flight crew
  75. Roll out mode become armed

    A. when the glide slope is captured
    B. when the second auto pilot switch is pushed
    C. when aircraft pass 1500ft radio altitude
  76. Provisional or modified route are displayed as

    A. a solid white line
    B. a dashed white line
    C. a dashed magenta line
  77. the approach climb performance with the critical engine failed is?

    A. 1.3VS and 2.1 % 2.3% and 2.4% for 2. 3 .and 4 engines
    B. 1.2 VS and 2.1 % 2.3% and 2.4% for 2. 3 .and 4 engines
    C. 1.5 VS and 2.1 % 2.3% and 2.4% for 2. 3 .and 4 engines
  78. Under the Homes-ache scale, the most stressful life event is

    A. death of spouse
    B. pregnancy
    C. jail term
  79. A diffuser is

    A. divergent dust and causes gas expansion
    B. Convergent dust and causes gas expansion
    C. Clivergtnt dust and causes gas compression
  80. The use of a higher flap setting for take—off will

    A. Lengthen both the take—off run and the second and third take—off climb segments.

    B. Shorten the take—off run and the second the second but lengthen the third take—off climb Segment.

    C. Shorten the take—off run but lengthen the second and third take—off climb segments.
  81. On approach to a long thin runway with rising terrain towards the threshold withprovide which of the following apparent visual effects

    A. No effect a normal approach path will be experienced
    B. Overshooting
    C. Overshoot than undershoot when on short final
  82. The ideal pilot is

    A. More person directed than goal directed
    B. More goals directed than person directed
    C. Both person and goal directed
  83. A strong wind shear can be expected

    A. if the 50 is other are spaced 100Nm or closer together
    B. where the horizontal windshear is 25kt in a distance equal to 2.50 lorgitade
    C. A strong wind shear can be expected on the low pressure side of a 100 knots at stream core
  84. what is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pretax clearanceprogram?

    A. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi, pilots will receive taxi clearance,the receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on the runway.
    B. Pilots request IFR clearance 10’or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearancefrom ground control.
    C. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi, the pilot will receive taxiinstruction with clearance.
  85. avoiding smoking and alcohol and exercising regularly reduce the likelihood ofdeveloping with disease?

    A. Osteo-arthritis
    B. Cardiac-vascular
    C. Gout
  86. perception involves creation of mental models of the outside world which arebased

    A. Entirely on experience and expectation
    B. Mainly on sensory information but also on experience and expectation to some degree
    C. Entirely on sensory information
  87. A PROB4(PROB ability)HHhh group in an IAF indicates the probability of

    A. Precipitation or low visibility
    B. Ts or high wind
    C. Ts or other precipitation
  88. the approximate percentage of oxygen at ground level is

    A. 20%
    B. 15%
    C. 41%
  89. a rheostat is

    A. A temperature indicator
    B. A remote automatic manual switch
    C. A temperature control device
  90. V2 or initial climb speed must not be

    A. More than the take off safety speed
    B. Less than 1.2 Vs1
    C. More than 1.1 Mac
  91. isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure

    A. At the surface
    B. Reduced to sea level
    C. At a given atmospheric pressure altitude
  92. what is some characteristic of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?

    A. Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed and least stability
    B. Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed and least stability
    C. Lowest stall speed; lowest cruise speed and highest stability
  93. TODA must exceed TODR in order to

    A. Increase V2
    B. Decrease Vr
    C. Allow use of degrade thrust
  94. micro switch is an assembly

    A. Which has a very small movement to make or break a circuit
    B. Used for instrument contact only
    C. Used where one side of the structure is inaccessible
  95. a prognostic chart depicts the condition

    A. Only when ATC deems it appropriate the 1000mb through the 100mb level
    B. Forecast to exist at a specific time in the future
    C. Existing at the surface during the past 6 hours
  96. what minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance “cleared asfiled ” include?

    A. Clearance limit and en route altitude
    B. Destination airport en route altitude and SID, if appropriate
    C. Clearance limit en route altitude and SID, if appropriate
  97. the effectiveness of the trim tab is

    A. Proportional to the speed
    B. Not proportional to the speed in any way
    C. Proportional to the square of the speed
  98. As large jet transport aircraft climbs above FL340 as fuel burns off, the IAS turbulence penetration speed will

    A. Increase
    B. Decrease
    C. Remain the same
  99. as static temperature increases at the same altitude, which N1 held constant

    A. TAS increase and SFC decrease
    B. TAS and SFC both increase
    C. TAS decrease and SFC increase
  100. the physiological for respiration is

    A. The already concentration of carbon dioxide
    B. The arterial concentration of oxygen
    C. The arterial concentration of carbon dioxide
  101. when flying orientation is most reliably determined through information sensedby the

    A. Somatic sensory system
    B. Visual system
    C. Vestibule apparatus
  102. sinus barotraumas is most likely to occurred during

    A. Descend
    B. Takeoff from a high altitude
    C. Level flight in turbulence
  103. Under what condition may air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to theDH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum publishedlanding condition exist at the airport

    A. If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment
    B. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach
    C. When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF
  104. When recovering from a spin the pilot should first

    A. Reduce the angle of attach
    B. Increase the drag yawing moment
    C. Oppose the auto rotation?
  105. When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevationduring a categoryII ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights arevisible?

    A. When the RVR is 550m on more
    B. After passing the visual decent point
    C. When the red terminal ban of the approach light system are in sight
  106. Which statement below is incorrect regarding the auto throttle?

    A. It can be engaged during VNAV operations
    B. It can be engaged in N1 and SPD modes
    C. A/T operates whenever a MCP FD mode is selected, irrespective of the A/T switch position
  107. 大气压改变由于雷暴,will be at the lowest value

    A. During the downdraft and heavy rain showers
    B. Immediately after the rain showers have dropped
    C. When the thunderstorm is approaching
  108. During multi auto pilot approaches, bus isolation occurs at:

    A. 500 ft AGL
    B. 1000 ft AGL
    C. 1500 ft AGL
  109. The following winds would result in the use of which approach speeds. 33o/20G30 temp 37o and 270/10

    A.VREF +20 and VREF +10
    B.VREF +15 and VREF + 5
    C.VREF +20 and VREF + 5
  110. how does aroused affect performance

    A.affected in overload but not underload
    B.affected in underload but not overload
    C.both affected
  111. A temperature of 45℃ is C----K. C+273 C----F. C*1.8+32

    A. 57o F or 273o k
    B. 113o F or 273o K14
    C. 57o F or 318o K
    D. 113F or 318k
  112. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be

    A. The same.
    B. Two times greater.
    C. Four times greater.
  113. V2 or rotation speed must not be

    A. Less than V1
    B. More than Vmca
    C. Less than VMCG +20 kits
  114. when thrust reversers are not available ASDA must be increase by

    A.a distance equal to half of the clearway
    C.200 meters
  115. 什么最V will dynamic hydroplanding begin if tire has pressure 70?

    A. 75 knots
    B. 85 knots
    C.80 knots
  116. “VERIFY 2700m” and 2400m

    A. 报告保持2400m
    B. 报告保持2700m
    C. Limit climb to 2700
  117. 关于对流层不正确

    A. 太阳辐射readily 超过地面辐射
    B. 水汽和二氧化碳是absorbers of 陆地的
    C. 太阳能量 地球表面
  118. A pilot should not fly with a common cold. What drug cause side effects related to the common cold?

    A anti-histamines causing drowsiness
    B tranquilizers increase pilot fatigued
    C auribiotics causing diarrniea
  119. Age-related hearing losses is called?

    A. Presbycusis
    B. Presbyopia
    C. Presbyterianism
  120. which statement is correct regarding holding pattern and procedure turnsthat are displayed on the EHSI screen

    A. active holding patterns and procedure turn are shown in magenta inactive inblue and modified in white
    B. active holding patterns and procedure turn are displayed in white in magenta and modified in blue
    C. active holding patterns and procedure turn are turn in blue inactive in magenta and modified in white
  121. when using the Earth’s horizon as a reference point to determine the result position of other aircraft most concern would be for aircraft

    A. On the horizon and increasing in size
    B. On the horizon which little relative movement
    C. Above the horizon and increase in size
  122. The relative humidity will be 100% when

    A. Dew point<dry bulb
    B wet bulb and dry bulb equal
    C. Dew point>dry bulb
  123. While being vectored to the final app course of an IFR app when may the pilotdescend to published altitude?

    A. When the flight is within the 10mile ring of a published app
    B. Only when app control clears the flight for app
    C. Anytime the flight as on a published leg of an app chart
  124. A pilot engaged in a prolonged constant bank and in a balanced turn will perceive himself to be flying?

    A. at a constant angle of bank
    B. in a turn in the apposite direction
    C. straight and level
  125. the water vapor held in unsaturated air is

    A. Invisible always
    B. Visible always
    C. Visible only if temperature is low enough
  126. 现代后掠翼飞机with large proportion of fuel store in two wings reducing fuel contents in wing tanks will result in

    A. A rearwar movement of CG as fuel is burning
    B. A forward movement of CG as fuel is burning
    C. 不变
  127. pilots should notify controller on initial contact that they have received two ATIS broadcast is

    A. Repeating two alphabetical code word appended to broadcast
    B. Stating “have number”
    C. Stating “have weather”
  128. which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air

    A. temperature dew point decrease
    B. atmosphere pressure increase
    C. wind direction shifts to the left
  129. The most common cause of in flight in expectation of flight crew is

    A. Heart attack
    B. Gastroenteritis
    C. Fatigue
  130. What is the primary purpose of STAR?

    A. Simplify clearance delivery procedures
    B. Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic
    C. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports
  131. How far from the threshold will you land if you are 100 high over the landing threshold?

    A. 3000
    B. 1000
    C. 2000
  132. The weather condition that meet minimum requirements for an air carrier to takeoff from an alternate airport that is not listed in the operations specification are

    A. 240-3200m 270-2400 300-1600
    B. 240-2400m 270-2700 300-3000
    C. 240-1600 270-2400 300-3200
  133. If during flight in one-time, you sense a descending turn to the left, the mostimportant action to take is to

    A. Keep your heard stulto reduce any disorienting sensations
    B. Hand over control of the aircraft go another crew member
    C. Monitor the aircraft’s artificial attitude instruments
  134. If whilst flying at 30000ft,the aircraft suddenly depressurize, the most common symptom experienced by all persons on board would be

    A. sudden inhalation
    b sudden exhalation
    C. Abdominal pain
  135. The main function of hemoglobin is to

    A. Carry carbon dioxide around to body
    B. Carry oxygen around to body
    C. Carry carbon dioxide around to body
  136. Optic barotraumas means that gas is trapped in the

    A. Gut
    B. Sinuses
    C. Middle ear
  137. A pilot showing the symptoms of dizziness, tingling at the fingertips

    A. Hypoxia
    B. Hypertension
    C. Hyperventilation
  138. If a … completes similar difficulty few day later should experience

    A. Greater stress
    B. Less stress
    C. About the same degree stress
  139. Before plates in wing fuel cells prevent

    A. Fuel coving frond our tank to another during turbulent flight
    B. Over pressure in the fuel tank
    C. movement of the fuel (cruising) in the tank during acceleration/deceleration and in颠簸情况
  140. The part of the eye which bends in coming light the most is the

    A. refractive disc
    B. lens
    C. cornea
  141. The time of the day when the earth’s surface gives off the greatest amount ofterrestrial radiation is

    A. A few hours before midnight
    B. At sunset
    C. Mid afternoon
  142. What factor is the demonstrated all engines take off distance increase todetermine a TODR

    A. 1.15
    B. 1.2
    C. 2
  143. the effect of clearway on take off performance is

    A. Increases TODR
    B. Increases TODA
    C. Decreases ASDA
  144. the net gradients required in the second segment are

    A.1.6%, 1.8% and 2%
    B.2.4%, 2.7% and 3%
    C.2.1%, 2.2% and 2.3%
  145. In two international Terminal Aero F (TAT)18

    A. VRB 00KT
    B. 00000KT
    C. 00003KT
  146. With age, the lens of eye generally becomes.

    A. Cracked
    B. Too stiff
    C. Too elastic
  147. the purpose of dilating ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water innon-precipitation condition is to

    A. Varies the eutectic point
    B. Increase the minimum freezing point (outset of on stallzation)
    C. Decrease the freeze point
  148. what is the result when water vapor changes of the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?
    latent heat is released to the atmosphere
  149. which is the correct symbol for design cruising speed
  150. what does the waste gate of a turbine-reciprocating engine control?

    A supercharger gear ratio
    B Exhaust gas discharge.
    C Throttle opening
  151. if visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach whatactions should the pilot take
    make a climb turn toward the landing runway…..;
  152. In the absence of visual cues, the resting focal length, of the eye is approximately?
    C 1-2m
  153. the vestibule apparatus of the body comprises
    C. Otoliths and semicircular canals
  154. 气象报
  155. ATIS
    have temperature
  156. where is the jet stream normally located?

    A. In areas of strong low-pressure system in the troposphere
    B. In a single condition.
    C. At the tropopause intensified temperature gradients…located
  157. what is the minimum glycol content of type 2 deicing anti-icing fluid?

    A. 80 percent
    B. 50 percent
    C. 30 percent
  158. What action should be taken by a crew member following a suddendcompression at 35000 feet?

    A. Deploy passenger oxygen mask
    B. Don on an oxygen mask
    C. Make immediate descent
  159. Which af the following statements correctly describers the alleviation of the effects of hypoxia at cabin altitudes about 10000ft without the use of supplemental oxygen?

    A. rapid shallow breathing
    B. the effects cannot be alleviated
    C. slow deep breathing
  160. What percentage of aircraft accidents have been deemed to have been directly attributed to human factors-rated related causes?

    A. 80-90%
    B. about 75%
    C. 40-50%
  161. how are haze layers cleared or dispersed?

    A. by corvective mining in cool night air
    B. by eveporation similer to the clearing of fog
    C. by wind or the movement of air
  162. A record of atmospheric temperature can be read for a

    A. Barograph
    B. Thermogram
    C. Thermograph
  163. What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed andresultant lift from wind shear?

    A. avoid overstressing the aircraft pitch to airspeed and apply maximum power
    B. lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed
    C. maintain or increase pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indicatiors
  164. How long is needed for full dark adaptation?

    A. 10-20min
    B. 35-45min
    C. 20-30min
  165. A good captain will encourage the copilot to use communication styles whichare?

    A. supportive and submissive
    B. aggressive and supportive
    C. assertive and supportive
  166. A relay

    A. is a form of electro temperture sensing device
    B. is a form of electro magnetic switch
    C. is a form of electro mechanical switch
  167. CAT associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as

    A. 1500m above the troposphere
    B. 1000miles or more downstream of the moumtion
    C. 100miles or more upwind
  168. a smoker at 5000ft altitude experiences physiological effects requirement to being a non smoker at ?

  169. The eye moves in what are termed “saccades” jerks and rests. In visual searching a saccade/rest cycle tsuacly occupies roughly ?

    A.0.3 s
    B.1.0 s
    C.3 s
  170. Clear Air Turbulence can occur in windily different eirurmstunces, but there aresome features, which generally hold true, which of the following is generally true?

    A. If CAT is encountering a 1000’ altitude change is likely to be sufficient to leave theCAT area.
    B. There will probably bca jet stream in the vicinity if CAT is encountered.
    C.CAT occurs more frequently over the water than land.
  171. where do the maximum winds associated with the jet stream usually?

    A. Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jet stream is located
    B. In the vicinity of breaks in the troposphere on the polar side the jet cone.
    C. on the equatorial side of the jet-stream where moisture has formed airriformclouds.
  172. When holding at an NDB at what point should the timing begin for the secondleg contain

    A.abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to theoutbound heading whichever…(illus first).
    B.At the end of al-minute standard rate turn after station passion
    C.When abeam the holding fix
  173. the high of the lowest cloud in the report was?(BKN080)

    A. 1000FL Agl
    B. 800FL Agl
    C. 8000FL Agl
  174. A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin-engine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of

    A. expectancy producing a false hypothesis
    B. expectancy producing a mental block
    C. a motor program producing a false hypothesis
  175. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness?

    A. When wing lift has been reduced.
    B. At high ground speeds.
    C. When the wheels are locked and skidding.
  176. A fuse may be replaced by the pilot:

    A.never, it must always be replaced by an engineer
    B.only after consulting an engineer
    C.once, then the engineer must be consulted
  177. The eye adapts to difference level by

    A.the lens becoming progressively opaque
    B.chemical change in the retina
    C.chemical change in the cornea
  178. 在一个机场中,与关于天气情况的发布是:

  179. 国内航空器未经批准不能在多少高度以下,大于多少飞行
    3000m 以下,250knot 以上
  180. 在特忙的机场空域,按仪表飞行规则,须有正常接受机

  181. stop way 的要求

  182. 当远航高度降低时,起TAS 应

  183. a common symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is

    A.impairment of VIS
    B.tingling hands and arms
    C.decreased body temperature
  184. a mismatch between the real world and the mental model is termed illusion hallucination
    C.a dream
  185. 温度高,在10800M, 密度高度和压力高度

    A.impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitude
    B.lower than 压力高
    C.higher than 压力高
  186. generator voltage controlled by the voltage regulator controlled by the PRM of the engine controlled by number of magnetic poles
  187. in relation to accelerate stop distance certification rules allow a period of time for engine failure recognition and pilot reaction, how long is this period

    A.V1 plus 2 second
    B.2 sencond
    C.Vef until V1 plus 2 second
  188. an ATC ‘instruction’ a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take aspecific action providing the safety of the aircraft in not jeoparalized the same as an ATC clearance
    C.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming
  189. the surface air temperature of a running will depend on all of the following

    A.airfield elevation, runway length and slope, airfield latitude and wind
    B.airfield elevation and latitude time of the year, time of day, runway surface prevailing wind and cloud cover
    C.airfield elevation runway length, prevailing wind and the time of day
  190. the dew point temperature is higher when

    A.air is very warm and dry
    B.air is very cold and moist
    C.air is very moist
  191. What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ZLS approach

    A.must maintain the last assigned altitude established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course
    C.may begin a descend to the procedure turn altitude
  192. when making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot be aware of the possibility of illusion the approach may appear to betoo

  193. when must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach

    A.when the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environmentis not clearly visible the DH, if the visual reference for the intended runway are not destinaty visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost the DH when the runway is not clearly visible
  194. assurning that all ILS components are operating and the required visual reference are not acquired the missed approach should be initiated upon
    A.expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach
    B.arrival at the DH on the glide slope
    C.arrival at the visual descent point
  195. summer thunderstorm in the arctic region will generally move

    A.southwest to northeast with the jetstream flow
    B.directly north to south with the low level polar airflow
    C.northeast to southwest in polar easterlies
  196. dew point

    A.the temperature to which dry air must be cooled in order to just reach saturation
    B.the temperature at which a parcel at air reach super satruature point,irrespective of pressure
    C.the TEM to which saturated air must be cooled to produce condensation
  197. when simultaneous ILS approach are in progress which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately

    a.if radar monitoring be desired to confirm lateral seporation
    b.any inoperative of malfunction aircraft receivers
    c.if a simultaneous ILS approach is desired
  198. with increase altitude at a constant IAS, TEM and thrust respectively

    A.decrease and decrease
    B.increase and decrease
    C.decrease and increase
  199. engine bleed air is supplied to the air gap above the fuel in the tanks primarily to

    A.ensure an adequate supply of fuel pressure is maintained to the APU
    B.warm the fuel
    C.prevent cavitation
    C.X (发动机引气与APU 没关系)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. which type clouds maybe associated with the jetstream

    A.cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream
    B.cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front
    C. cirostratus cloud bland on the polar side and under the jetstream
  201. when the forecast weather condition for destination and alternate airport areconsidered marginal for a domestic air carrier’s operation, what specific actionshould the dispatcher or pilot in command take

    A.list at least are additional alternate airport
    B.list an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate
    C.add additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane isuse
  202. Which of the following statements correctly describes the effect resulting fromexposure over many years to aircraft engine noise

    A.some loss of heaving may occur but total recovery will eventually take place
    B.a permanent loss heaving may occur
    C.some loss of heaving may occur but it will last for only a few minutes aftereach exposure
  203. when does min temperature normally occur during a 24 hours period

    A.about 1 hour before sunrise midnight
    C.after sunrise
  204. what is the propose of the term “hold for release” when included in an IFRclearence

    A.when an IFR cleance is received by telephone the pilot will have time toprecpave for take off prior to being release
    B.a procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume weather or need to issue further instructions
    C.gate hold procedure are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the timethe flight will be released
  205. what is max allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimension of 148*125.2 inches? Condition. floor load limit. 60. pound/sqft, palletweight:197 pounds, tiedown device. 66pounds

    A.25, 984.9 pound
    B.25, 987.9
    C.25, 721.9
  206. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated

    A. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of finalchecklist upon termination of flight.
    B. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklistprior to engine shutdown.
    C. when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist aftertermination of the flight.
  207. A rise in carbon dioxide concentration in the blood cause

    A. a reduction in respiration rate
    B. an increase in respiration rate
    C. an increase….
  208. Doppler wind measurements indicate that the windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately

    A. 45 kts
    B. 15 kts
    C. 25 kts
  209. Grey out generally occurs at

    A. +3G
    B. +2.5G
    C. +4.5G
  210. In a bypass engine ,the bypass exhaust is

    A. Always exhausted separately
    B. Always mixed with the normal exhaust gas in the jet pipe
    C. Sometimes mixed with the normal exhaust gases in the jet pipe
  211. In relation to take off performance V1 is the speed by which

    A. a decision has been made
    B. retardation action is taken
    C. a margin of 10% exists over Vmcg
  212. TODR takes into account the ground distance to lift off plus the air distance toreference zero, what is reference zero?

    A. the distance at which landing gear restriction is initiated
    B. the departure end of the runway
    C. a point 35 ft above the take off surface
  213. Tropical TS occurring in the hours just before down are most likely to from

    A. over coast waters with tendency…
    B. inland in subcontinental area
    C. over coastal land areas with…
  214. Water is said to have a greater value of specific heat as compared with the land,because

    A. it’s able to absorb more heat than the land, but has no bearing on the rate of change in the temperature
    B. it requires less heat be taken into change it temperature as compared with the land
    C. it equires more heat to increase it temperature than land
  215. Which organic of the body sense(s) acceleration?

    A. the vestibular apparatus
    B. the Eustachian tabe
    C. the tympanic membrane
  216. What is a feature of super cold water?

    A. the unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object
    B. the temperature of the water drop remains at 0°C until it impacts a part of airframe,then cleat ice accumulates
    C. the water drop sublimates to an ice partied upon impact
  217. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

    A. Ambient temperature lapse rate.
    B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.
    C. Surface temperature/dew point spread.
  218. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?

    A.Compressor discharge.
    B.Fuel spray nozzles.
    C.Turbine inlet.
  219. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur?

    A. Turbine inlet.
    B. Compressor discharge.
    C. Fuel spray nozzles.
  220. The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include

    A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121operations are conducted.
    B. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position.
    C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
  221. "Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the followingattitude?

  222. Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is

    A. refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others
    B. adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible
    C. does the first thing that comes to mind.
  223. Group II aircraft are

    A.Propeller driven aircraft
    B.Turbojet aircraft
    C.3/4 engine aircraft
  224. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic aircarrier?

    A. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types ofairplanes to be flown.
    B. The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areasand airports.
    C. The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.
  225. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front?

    A. wind speed
    B. air temperature
    C. air pressure
  226. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before

    A.1330 Beijing Time.
    B.1300 Beijing Time.
    C.1230 Beijing Time.
  227. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?

    A.Increases takeoff distance.
    B.Decreases takeoff speed.
    C.Decreases takeoff distance.
  228. The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its

    A. angle of attack
    B. camber
    C. energy
  229. A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin-engineairplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, onlyto find that it was the right

    A.(续正文,engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis
    B. expectancy producing a mental block
    C. a motor program producing a false hypothesis
  230. A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts:

    A. Must be adhered to.
    B. Does not preclude rejected landing.
    C. Precludes a rejected landing.
  231. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn

    A. is directly related to the airplane's gross weight.
    B. varies with the rate of turn.
    C. is constant
  232. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport.Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as.

    A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility
    B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog
    C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence.
  233. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is

  234. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is

  235. Where are position reports required on an

    A. Over all designated compulsory reporting prints.
    B. Only request by ATC.
    C. When change altitude or advise of weather conditions.
  236. Which of the following is not correct?

    A. Solar radiation penetrates the atmosphere more readily than terrestrial radiation
    B.The amount of solar radiation absorbed at the earth surface is independent of the type of surface
    C. Water vapour and carbon dioxide are important absorbers of terrestrial radiation
  237. Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is

    A. Closer to the runway that is actuall
    B. Farther to the runway that is actuall
    C. The same distance from the runway as that is no restriction to visibility
  238. The support struts of the cone in the exhaust system

    A. Are sometimes used to straighten out the exhaust gases
    B. Give the exhaust gases a swirl effect
    C. Are fitted to support the cone only
  239. (243-247 = 239-243 为电报图题)
    After 2100UTC the visibility is expected to reduce as result of

    A. Windespread dust
    B. Raised sand
  240. (243-247 = 239-243 为电报图题)
    The maximum wind speed expected

  241. (243-247 = 239-243 为电报图题)
    The wind forecast to changes at what time?

  242. (243-247 = 239-243 为电报图题)
    The mean wind speed at the time of the report was

  243. (243-247 = 239-243 为电报图题)
    The tems “TEMPO” in this report apply to the occurrence

    A. Low cloud
    B. Thunderstorm with sand
    C. Reduced visibility
  244. As gross weight decreases during the cruise max range speed and specific airrange will respectively

    A. Decreases and increase
    B. Increase and decreases
    C. Decreases and decreases
  245. In a cla?? Shell door type thrust reversat system when reverse is select the exhaust gases

  246. What is the max pemrsible variation between the twe bearing indictors on a dual VOR system. When checking one VOR against the other?

    A. 6° in flight and 4° on the ground
    B. 4° on the ground and in flight
    C. 6° on the ground and in flight
  247. Assuring that appropriate Aero chart

    A. Airplane dispatcher
    B. Pilot in command
    C. Flight navigator
  248. Under what condition is the highest?

    A. Gross weight is at Max allowable value
    B. CG is at the most rearward
    C. CG is at the most forward
  249. A stopway most be

    A. Of sufficient strength to support the airplane weight and be clear of obstacle
    B. Of sufficient strength to support the airplane weight
    C. ………however is not required to be centrally located about the extend centerline of runway
  250. Inversion illusion:
    **An abrupt change from a climb to straight
  251. Coriolis illusion:
    **An abrupt head movement
  252. 飞行从目的机场飞到备降场还能飞多长时间备份燃油?

  253. 双发飞机一发停车,机长应采取哪些措施?

  254. 特别繁忙的机场空域仪表飞行,必须要有 接受机:

  255. 机场区域内最低安全高度:
    **平原+(300 米),丘陵、山区+(600 米)