CAAC ATPL from 1500 questions

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CAAC ATPL from 1500 questions
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2014-07-11 22:39:24
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ATPL ATP China CAAC Pilot Chinese
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Chinese Pilot ATPL study questions
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  1. (1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DMERWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours.

    A.(􀀳􀀴􀁇􀀢􀀞􀀅Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREFapproach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m.
    B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.
    C.MDH100m,VIS1600m.
    A
  2. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767,while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, asPIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.

    A.(􀀳􀀴􀁇􀀢􀀞􀀅What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach atChengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m.
    B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.
    C.MDH100m,VIS1600m.
  3. (Refer to Figure 1-2)
    The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.

    A.(􀀳􀀴􀁇􀀢􀀞 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK,for the PIC?)_DH95m􀀅VIS1600
    B.DH65m􀀅RVR600
    C.DH65m􀀅RVR550
    B
  4. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121.

    A.(􀀳􀀴􀁇􀀢􀀞 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_D
    A63m,RVR550m.
    B.DA93m,VIS1600m.
    C.DA110m,VIS1600m
    B
  5. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA?

    A.DH20',VIS800m.
    B.DH200',RVR550m.
    C.DH300',VIS1600m.
    C
  6. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimumsand TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to thealternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for

    A.(􀀳􀀴􀁇􀀢􀀞 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landingminimums?)_DH20',VIS800m.
    B.DH200',RVR550m.
    C.DH300',VIS1600m.
    C
  7. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normallylimited to

    A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.
    B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.
    C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.
    A
  8. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test iscompleted in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilotprivileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?

    A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747.
    B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737.
    C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.
    C
  9. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completedfor an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may beexercised?

    A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9.
    B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3.
    C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.
    C
  10. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular typeairplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?

    A.Upgrade training.
    B.Recurrent training.
    C.Initial training.
    A
  11. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or haveattached to it

    A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
    B.trip number and weight and balance data.
    C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
    A
  12. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z.The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is

    A.1945Z.
    B.1915Z.
    C.1845Z.
    B
  13. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?

    A.Not more than 1 hour.
    B.Not more than 2 hours.
    C.More than 6 hours.
    A
  14. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least

    A.3 months.
    B.6 months.
    C.30 days.
    A
  15. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is

    A.2005Z.
    B.1905Z.
    C.0005Z.
    C
  16. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructingpassengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabindepressurization, prior to flight conducted above

    A. FL200
    B. FL240
    C. FL250
    C
  17. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articlesand/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an establishedand approved training program within the preceding

    A. 6 calendar months.
    B. 12 calendar months.
    C. 24 calendar months.
    B
  18. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have receiveda proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding

    A.6 calendar months.
    B.12 calendar months.
    C.24 calendar months.
    C
  19. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator trainingwithin the preceding

    A.6 calendar months.
    B.12 calendar months.
    C.24 calendar months.
    A
  20. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes theinstrument competency check. How long does this pilot remain current if nofurther IFR flights are made?

    A.12 months.
    B.90 days.
    C.6 months.
    C
  21. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport whichhas no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?

    A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.
    B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.
    C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.
    B
  22. An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendarmonth, for no more than

    A.80hours
    B.90 hours
    C.100hours
    B
  23. An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year,for no more than

    A.800hours
    B.900 hours
    C.1000hours
    C
  24. An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including asecond-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24consecutive-hour period for not more than

    A.17 hours
    B.24 hours
    C.25 hours
    A
  25. An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including asecond-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24consecutive-hour period for not more than

    A.10 hours
    B.14 hours
    C.16 hours
    A
  26. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated

    A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.
    B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer.
    C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.
    A
  27. An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during

    A.every 7 consecutive days
    B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent(􀀰􀀎) thereof within any calendar month
    C.each calendar week
    B
  28. An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?

    A.Four
    B.Three
    C.Two
    B
  29. An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard?

    A.Two
    B.One
    C.Zero
    B
  30. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is

    A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.
    B.not required to have a medical certificate.
    C.required to have a first-class medical certificate.
    B
  31. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is

    A.required to have a first-class medical certificate.
    B.required to have a second-class medical certificate.
    C.not required to have a medical certificate.
    C
  32. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?

    A.The aircraft dispatcher.
    B.Air route traffic control center.
    C.Director of operations.
    A
  33. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has

    A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121.
    B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.
    C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.
    C
  34. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaininginformation on meteorological (􀀣􀀽) conditions?

    A.Aircraft dispatcher.
    B.Pilot in command.
    C.Director of operations or flight follower.
    B
  35. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority?

    A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority.
    B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time.
    C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis.
    B
  36. Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember

    A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.
    B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.
    C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.
    A
  37. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on eachflight a

    A. key to the flight deck door.
    B. certificate holder's manual.
    C. flashlight􀀃􀀛􀀫􀀱􀀄 in good working order.
    C
  38. Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?

    A. When cleared for an IFR approach
    B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft.
    C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis.
    C
  39. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly

    A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
    B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption􀀃􀀦􀀵􀀄.
    C. back to the departure airport.
    A
  40. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least

    A.3000m.
    B.3,600m.
    C.2,800m.
    B
  41. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least

    A.220m.
    B.150m.
    C.160m.
    A
  42. For an airport without air corridor􀀃􀀾􀀘􀀄, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of

    A.40 kilometers.
    B.50 kilometers.
    C.46 kilometers.
    B
  43. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter

    A.G.
    B.S.
    C.R.
    B
  44. Group II aircraft are

    A.Propeller driven aircraft
    B.Turbojet aircraft
    C.3/4 engine aircraft
    B
  45. How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is

    A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots.
    B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators.
    C.not considered to be part of a rest period.
    C
  46. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?

    A.1 month.
    B.3 months.
    C.12 months.
    B
  47. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training?

    A. 6 calendar months.
    B. 12 calendar months.
    C. 24 calendar months
    C
  48. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport maybe located from the departure airport?

    A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.
    B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating.
    C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engineinoperative.
    C
  49. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?

    A.1945Z.
    B.2015Z
    C.0045Z.
    C
  50. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989,the latter check is considered to have been taken in

    A.November 1988.
    B.December 1988.
    C.January 1989.
    B
  51. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?

    A.The second in command only.
    B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
    C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
    B
  52. If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?

    A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13hours
    B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty
    C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours
    B
  53. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft,the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within

    A. 10 days.
    B. 24 hours.
    C. 5 days.
    C
  54. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command

    A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
    B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
    C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
    C
  55. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?

    A.6 hours.
    B.8 hours.
    C.10 hours.
    B
  56. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision􀀃􀀊􀀯􀀄 as a result of proximity􀀃􀀝􀁂􀀄 of at least

    A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft.
    B. 500feet or less to another aircraft.
    C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.
    B
  57. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flightplan and

    A.reached the cruising IAS.
    B.entered VFR weather conditions.
    C.received an ATC clearance.
    C
  58. person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

    A.8 hours.
    B.12 hours.
    C.24 hours.
    A
  59. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to

    A.any required pilot crewmember.
    B.any flight crewmember.
    C.the pilot in command only.
    A
  60. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on,the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant,and designated pilot in command are

    A.supplemental and commercial.
    B.supplemental and domestic.
    C.flag and commercial.
    A
  61. The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include

    A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121operations are conducted.
    B. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position.
    C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
    C
  62. The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include

    A.only pilots
    B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants.
    C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
    C
  63. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the

    A.weather reports and forecasts.
    B.names of all crewmembers.
    C.minimum fuel supply.
    B
  64. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct a respecified in the

    A.certificate holder's operations specifications.
    B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant.
    C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
    A
  65. The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot)without a rest period is

    A.19hours
    B.20 hours
    C.21hours
    B
  66. The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot)without a rest period is

    A.16hours
    B.17 hours
    C.18 hours
    A
  67. The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is

    A.12hours
    B.13 hours
    C.14 hours
    C
  68. The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is

    A.8 hours
    B.10 hours
    C.12 hours
    A
  69. The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is

    A.12hours
    B.10hours
    C.8hours
    B
  70. The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is

    A.35 hours
    B.32 hours
    C.30 hours
    A
  71. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the

    A. pilot in command.
    B. air carrier's chief pilot.
    C. certificate holder.
    C
  72. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g.,turbojet powered) is

    A.upgrade training.
    B.transition training.
    C.initial training.
    C
  73. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is

    A.difference training.
    B.transition training.
    C.upgrade training.
    B
  74. To be eligible(􀀍􀀡) for the practical test for the renewal􀀃􀀚􀀒􀀄 of aCategory II authorization, what recent 􀀃 􀀟 􀁂 􀀭 􀀄 instrument approach experience is required?

    A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may beflown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
    B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH.
    C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.
    A
  75. To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold

    A.a third-class medical certificate.
    B.a second-class medical certificate.
    C.a first-class medical certificate.
    C
  76. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations,a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least

    A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.
    B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.
    C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.
    A
  77. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations?

    A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard.
    B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.
    C.If required by the airplane's type certificate.
    C
  78. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?

    A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.
    B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.
    C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.
    A
  79. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?

    A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation.
    B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number.
    C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.
    B
  80. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?

    A.Cargo and passenger distribution information.
    B.Copy of the flight plan.
    C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.
    B
  81. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of anaircraft requiring two pilots?

    A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.
    B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
    C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
    A
  82. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot tore-establish recency of experience?

    A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach.
    B.At least one full stop landing must be made.
    C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.
    B
  83. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard?

    A.Five
    B.Four
    C.Two
    A
  84. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard?

    A.Six
    B.Five
    C.Two
    B
  85. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?

    A.Seven
    B.Six
    C.Five
    A
  86. What minimum condition is suggested for declaring􀀃􀀔􀀕􀀄 an emergency?

    A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful􀀃􀀬􀁅􀀄 of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.
    B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.
    C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
    A
  87. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?

    A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.
    B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use ofan approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.
    C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
    C
  88. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?

    A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit.
    B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.
    C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.
    B
  89. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z,what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?

    A.1922Z.
    B.1952Z.
    C.0022Z.
    C
  90. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for

    A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency.
    B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.
    C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.
    C
  91. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?

    A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m.
    B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).
    C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).
    C
  92. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000meters?

    A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots.
    B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots.
    C. Not less than 250 knots
    B
  93. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?

    A.60 days.
    B.90 days.
    C.120 days.
    C
  94. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?

    A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.
    B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach mustbe VFR.
    C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.
    A
  95. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is

    A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.
    B.is not required to have a medical certificate.
    C.required to have a first-class medical certificate.
    B
  96. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?

    A.Four
    B.Three
    C.Two
    A
  97. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?

    A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-footdecision height and landing.
    B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months.
    C.120 days after issue or renewal.
    A
  98. When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?

    A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP).
    B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more.
    C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.
    C
  99. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment?

    A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications
    B.International Aeronautical Information Manual
    C.International Notices To Airmen
    A
  100. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?

    A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m.
    B.An alternate airport is required.
    C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.
    B
  101. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?

    A. Airplane Flight Manual.
    B. Certificate holder's manual.
    C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.
    B
  102. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?

    A.Operations Specifications.
    B.Operating Certificate.
    C.Dispatch Release.
    A
  103. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic aircarrier flight?

    A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release.
    B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release.
    C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.
    C
  104. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?

    A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release.
    B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release.
    C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.
    C
  105. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?

    A.An alternate airport is required.
    B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m.
    C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.
    A
  106. Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?

    A.Radar and RVR.
    B.RCLS and REIL
    C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.
    C
  107. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?

    A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number.
    B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.
    C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight.
    A
  108. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?

    A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
    B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
    C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
    B
  109. Which is a definition of the term "flight crewmember"?

    A.a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight time.
    B.Any person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
    C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
    A
  110. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?

    A.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine.
    B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach.
    C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.
    B
  111. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
    A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight.
    B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
    C.Some passengers may be carried.
    A
  112. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?

    A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.
    B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas
    C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
    B
  113. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff?
    A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.
    B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated.
    C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.
    B
  114. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?

    A.Company meteorologist.
    B.Aircraft dispatcher.
    C.Director of operations.
    B
  115. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?

    A.ARINC
    B.Any FSS
    C.Appropriate dispatch office
    C
  116. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"?

    A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight.
    B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL.
    C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters,excluding cruise flight.
    C
  117. 􀀠􀀠􀀠􀀠􀀿􀀿􀀿􀀿􀀼􀀼􀀼􀀼􀀑􀀑􀀑􀀑􀀅􀀅􀀅􀀅􀀐􀀐􀀐􀀐􀁆􀁆􀁆􀁆􀀼􀀼􀀼􀀼􀀑􀀑􀀑􀀑
    TCAS I provides

    A.Traffic and resolution advisories
    B.Proximity warning
    C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic
    B
  118. Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?

    A. 0000 through 1000.
    B. 7200 and 7500 series.
    C. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.
    C
  119. Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived

    A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude.
    B. Position is not affected
    C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed
    A
  120. What functions are provided by ILS?

    A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle.
    B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle.
    C. Guidance, range, and visual information
    C
  121. To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on

    A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level
    B.the standard air pressure of the local station
    C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level
    A
  122. What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?

    A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red.
    B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red.
    C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red.
    A
  123. What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?

    A.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-green, low-pulsing red.
    B.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low-pulsing red.
    C.High-pulsing white, on course and on glidepath-steady white, off course buton glidepath-pulsing white and red; low-pulsing red.
    B
  124. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?

    A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.
    B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.
    C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.
    A
  125. What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum?

    A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
    B.RVR 1,000 feet
    C.RVR 700 feet.
    C
  126. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?

    A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
    B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
    C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
    A
  127. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?

    A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.
    B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude
    C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents
    A
  128. What does the tri-color VASI consist of?

    A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber.
    B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber.
    C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber.
    B
  129. What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?

    A.ASR and PAR.
    B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.
    C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.
    B
  130. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?

    A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.
    B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb.
    C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.
    A
  131. What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?

    A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green.
    B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white.
    C.One light projector with two colors; red and white.
    B
  132. What does the pulsating VASI consist of?

    A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady.
    B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady.
    C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.
    C
  133. What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?

    A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.
    B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
    C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
    B
  134. What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?

    A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles
    B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.
    C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.
    B
  135. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to aVFR runway?

    A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights
    B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone
    C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone
    B
  136. What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?

    A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.
    B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.
    C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.
    A
  137. What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position

    A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data.
    B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.
    C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers.
    C
  138. What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service?

    A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude
    B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports.
    C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings.
    A
  139. When is DME required for an instrument flight?

    A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required
    B.In terminal radar service areas
    C.Above 12,500 feet MSL
    A
  140. When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scaledeflection?

    A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa.
    B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.
    C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.
    B
  141. When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach

    A.attitude may be higher than it appears.
    B.attitude may be lower than it appears.
    C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
    B
  142. When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency

    A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach.
    B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach.
    C.to fly a normal approach.
    B
  143. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped?

    A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations.
    B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required
    C.For flights at or above FL 180
    B
  144. When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that

    A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance
    B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger
    C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents
    B
  145. Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication?

    A.Red
    B.Amber
    C.Green.
    B
  146. Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication?

    A.Red
    B.Amber
    C.Green
    C
  147. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?

    A.Inner marker.
    B.Middle compass locator.
    C.Outer compass locator.
    C
  148. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________.

    A. the commencement of final approach
    B. enter TMA
    C. the commencement of initial approach
    A
  149. Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path?

    A.5 times groundspeed in knots.
    B. 8 times groundspeed in knots.
    C.10 times groundspeed in knots.
    A
  150. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?

    A.All turbine powered airplanes
    B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only
    C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only
    A
  151. Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?

    A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units.
    B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
    C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.
    C
  152. Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?

    A.VOR/DME FIX
    B.Surveillance radar
    C.Compass locator
    C
  153. which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?

    A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.
    B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased
    C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.
    B
  154. Which pressure is defined as station pressure?

    A.Altimeter setting.
    B.Actual pressure at field elevation.
    C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.
    B
  155. Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?

    A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ
    B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ
    C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ.
    B
  156. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of

    A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign
    B.A runway Boundary Sign
    C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign
    C
  157. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9?

    A.1,000 feet
    B.1,500 feet
    C.2,000 feet
    A
  158. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?

    A.1,000 feet
    B.2,000 feet
    C.2,500 feet
    B
  159. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?

    A.2,000 feet
    B.2,500 feet
    C.3,000 feet
    C
  160. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?

    A.2,000 feet
    B.2,500 feet
    C.3,000 feet
    C
  161. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?

    A.500 feet
    B.1,000feet
    C.1,500 feet
    B
  162. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?

    A.2,000 feet
    B.3,000 feet
    C.3,500 feet.
    B
  163. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?

    A.1,000 feet
    B.2,000 feet
    C.2,500 feet.
    B
  164. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?

    A.1,000 feet
    B.1,500 feet
    C.1,800 feet.
    A
  165. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?

    A.1,500 feet
    B.2,000 feet
    C.2,500 feet
    B
  166. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation"A" respond?

    A.1
    B.8
    C.11
    A
  167. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation"C" respond?

    A.6
    B.7
    C.12
    C
  168. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation"D" correspond?

    A.4
    B.15
    C.17
    C
  169. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E"or respond?

    A.5
    B.5
    C.15
    B
  170. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1NAV?

    A.R-175
    B.R-165
    C.R-345
    C
  171. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV?

    A.1?
    B.-2?
    C.-4?
    C
  172. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV?

    A.5.0NM
    B.7.5NM
    C.10.0NM
    A
  173. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?

    A.166
    B.346
    C.354
    C
  174. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4?

    A.285
    B.055
    C.235
    B
  175. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?

    A.1
    B.2
    C.3
    A
  176. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20knots)

    A.2
    B.3
    C.4
    B
  177. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates

    A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower
    B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway
    C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.
    B
  178. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation"B" correspond?

    A.11
    B.5 and 13
    C.7and 11
    B
  179. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation"H" correspond?

    A.8
    B.1
    C.2
    B
  180. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation"I" correspond?

    A.4
    B.12
    C.11
    C
  181. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation"A" correspond?

    A.9and6
    B.9 only
    C.6 only
    A
  182. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glideslope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?

    A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glideslope.
    B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glideslope.
    C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glideslope.
    B
  183. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated?

    A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.
    B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
    C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
    C
  184. A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which

    A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.
    B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.
    C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.
    C
  185. A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts:

    A.Must be adhered to.
    B.Does not preclude rejected landing.
    C.Precludes a rejected landing.
    B
  186. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall

    A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received.
    B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.
    C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
    C
  187. A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in

    A. A hard landing.
    B. Increased landing rollout.
    C. Landing short of the runway threshold.
    B
  188. Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have

    A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background
    B.White inscriptions on a black background
    C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background
    C
  189. An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be

    A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route
    B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo"
    C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather
    A
  190. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?

    A.VOR
    B.VOR and ILS
    C.VOR and DME
    A
  191. An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight?

    A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units.
    B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS.
    C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
    B
  192. Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on

    A.122.1MHz
    B.122.0MHZ
    C.123.6MHz
    B
  193. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?

    A.Increase in indicated airspeed.
    B.Decrease in indicated airspeed.
    C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing
    B
  194. En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?

    A.585feet
    B.1.300feet
    C.Sea level
    C
  195. For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.

    A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a validtest
    B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased
    C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased
    B
  196. GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by

    A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement
    B. A sovereign country or government unit
    C. The FAA Administrator only
    B
  197. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway,These lines are

    A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway
    B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway
    C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway
    B
  198. Holding position signs have

    A.White inscriptions on a red background
    B.Red inscriptions on a white background
    C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background
    A
  199. How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?

    A.Green yellow and white beacon light
    B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white
    C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white
    A
  200. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?

    A.60days
    B.90days
    C.30days
    A
  201. Identify REIL.

    A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
    B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway.
    C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
    C
  202. Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems

    A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end
    B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end
    C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway
    B
  203. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL)

    A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runwaycenterline
    B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone
    C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone
    A
  204. Identigy the runway distance remaining markers

    A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining
    B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end
    C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end
    A
  205. If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route?

    A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.
    B. Original dispatch release.
    C. Certificate holder's manual.
    C
  206. If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to

    A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system.
    B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation
    C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.
    A
  207. If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only

    A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route
    B.In VFR conditions
    C.In day VFR conditions
    C
  208. If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations,the maximum bearing error permissible is

    A.Plus or minus 6
    B.Plus 6 or minus 4
    C.Plus or minus 4
    A
  209. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice,what airspeed indication can be expected?

    A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made
    B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb
    C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent
    A
  210. If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should

    A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured
    B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception issatisfactory ,
    C. Select another type of navigation aid.
    C
  211. In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available:

    A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport.
    B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing.
    C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing,plus the forecast winds.
    A
  212. One purpose of high-lift devices is to

    A.- increase the load factor.
    B.delay stall.
    C.increase airspeed.
    B
  213. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?

    A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.
    B. Descending to the surface and then outward.
    C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.
    B
  214. The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its

    A.angle of attack
    B.camber
    C.energy
    B
  215. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .

    A. warm front.
    B. stationary front.
    C. cold front.
    C
  216. The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the

    A.-L/Dmax.
    B.-Lift at low speeds.
    C.-Drag and reduce airspeed.
    B
  217. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilots hould

    A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path.
    B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path.
    C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.
    B
  218. Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?

    A.Rate of turn
    B.Angle of bank
    C.True airspeed
    B
  219. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?

    A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.
    B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise
    C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.
    B
  220. What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?

    A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.
    B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
    C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.
    B
  221. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shutdown one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?

    A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time.
    B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.
    C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit.
    B
  222. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation?

    A.Request a clarification from the ATC.
    B.Read the clearance back entirely.
    C.Do not accept the clearance.
    A
  223. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance?

    A.Do not accept the clearance.
    B.Request a clarification from the ATC.
    C.Read the clearance back entirely.
    B
  224. What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?

    A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land
    B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event
    C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining
    B
  225. What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?

    A. Notify ATC immediately.
    B. Squawk 7600.
    C. Monitor the VOR receiver
    A
  226. What affects indicated stall speed?

    A. Weight, load factor, and power
    B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power
    C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed
    A
  227. What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?

    A. Decrease profile drag.
    B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle.
    C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.
    B
  228. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?

    A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
    B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
    C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
    A
  229. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?

    A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.
    B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
    C.An increase in dynamic stability.
    A
  230. What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?

    A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater.
    B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater.
    C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.
    A
  231. What is a purpose of flight spoilers?

    A.-Increase the camber of the wing.
    B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.
    C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
    B
  232. What is load factor?

    A.Lift multiplied by the total weight.
    B.Lift subtracted from the total weight.
    C.Lift divided by the total weight.
    C
  233. What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first?

    A.inward and aft
    B.inward and forward
    C.outward and forward
    B
  234. What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design?

    A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.
    B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.
    C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.
    B
  235. What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other?

    A.Porpoise.
    B.Wingover.
    C.Dutch roll
    C
  236. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?

    A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
    B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
    C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
    A
  237. What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?

    A.prevent flow separation.
    B.decrease rate of sink.
    C.increase profile drag.
    A
  238. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design?

    A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly.
    B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.
    C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.
    A
  239. What is the purpose of a control tab?

    A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
    B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
    C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
    A
  240. What is the purpose of a servo tab?

    A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
    B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
    C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
    B
  241. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?

    A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight.
    B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces.
    C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures.
    C
  242. What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotorblade?

    A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
    B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight.
    C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when incruising flight.
    A
  243. what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?

    A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag
    B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag
    C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.
    B
  244. What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?

    A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.
    B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.
    C.Rate and radius will increase.
    A
  245. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft?

    A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up
    B.A severe moment or "tuck under"
    C.-Severe porpoising
    B
  246. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?

    A. continue taxiing in the landing direction.
    B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.
    C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.
    C
  247. What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?

    A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack
    B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
    C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack
    B
  248. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be

    A.The same.
    B.Two times greater.
    C.Four times greater.
    C
  249. When are inboard ailerons normally used?

    A.Low-speed flight only.
    B.High-speed flight only.
    C.Low-speed and high-speed flight.
    C
  250. Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease?

    A. Sudden increase in a headwind component.
    B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component.
    C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity.
    A

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