SF 5 level volume 3 URE

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  1. Range cards are a record of
    firing data
  2. How many range cards are prepared for each position?
  3. In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?
    M240B, MK19, .50 Cal
  4. What does FPL stand for?
    Final Protective Line
  5. Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fire weapons?
    Target Reference Point (TRP)
  6. Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
    Marginal Data Area
  7. What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
    Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
  8. The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
    Dead space
  9. When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
  10. The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
    observe and engage anyone within the field of your weapon
  11. What is the function of the forward assist?
    Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure
  12. Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of a
  13. SPORTS stands for
    slap, pull, observe, release, tap, shoot
  14. The primary purpose of preventative maintenance is to keep weapons
    clean and properly lubricated
  15. How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4?
  16. What cartridge, used in the M4 is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
  17. What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
    50 meters
  18. What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
    1800 meters
  19. If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
    Adjusted aiming point method
  20. On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
    loaded chamber indicator
  21. Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
  22. Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
  23. How many types of 9mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
  24. What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
  25. Which M9 ammunition round is only issued to security forces, OSI detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security duties?
    MK243 MOD 0
  26. In meters, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team sized area targets?
  27. In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team sized area targets?
  28. What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
    30 seconds
  29. Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
  30. What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
  31. Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing?
  32. Under what circumstances would you use the MK19 ammunition in the M203?
    Under no circumstances
  33. What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
    600 meters
  34. Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
    Receiver assembly
  35. An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
  36. How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
  37. What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
    M199 Dummy
  38. How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
    100 round bandoleer , split-link belt
  39. In meters, what is the maximum effective range  of the M240B for a point target with a tripod?
  40. From what position is the M240B loaded?
    bolt OPENED or CLOSED
  41. Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
  42. What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B?
    Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire
  43. At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
    900 to 1200 rounds
  44. What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
  45. What does the BFA stand for?
    Blank firing adaptor
  46. Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
  47. What is the standard round for the MK19?
  48. Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
  49. Searching fire most often used on
    level or evenly sloping ground
  50. What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
    2000 yards
  51. The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
  52. When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
  53. Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
    quickly and accurately
  54. Which of the following is an immediate available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?
    Final protective line
  55. Which of the following is a fixed in direction and elevation?
    a final protective line
  56. Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?
    Primary sector of fire
  57. Concerning machine guns in the offensive, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and
    hold the enemy position
  58. In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round?
  59. The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
    The close quarters battle role
  60. Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?
  61. Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include
    response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance
  62. Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
  63. The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of
    short recoil principle
  64. The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from
    concealed positions
  65. What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
    short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing
  66. How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
  67. How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?
  68. The claymore mine is used primarily as a
    defensive weapon
  69. When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a
    mine or booby trap
  70. In what year was the M18A, claymore mine standardized?
  71. When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
    one-shot weapon
  72. The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
    single or dual priming
  73. Before firing the light anti armor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
    Backblast area
  74. A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?
    High Explosive anti armor round
  75. The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal
    after-armor effects
Card Set:
SF 5 level volume 3 URE
2014-06-08 23:07:34
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5 lvl
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