micro test

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sillychicken
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276558
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micro test
Updated:
2014-06-11 01:23:44
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fortis micro test
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micro test immunizations and pharm
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  1. the more people exposed to a pathogen the less likely the rest of the population will be to contract the disease is what
    herd immunity
  2. what are the five types of vaccines
    • live attenuated
    • inactivated killed
    • recombinant
    • toxoid
    • combination
  3. vaccine in which pathogen in alive but weakened. is not strong enough to cause an outbreak but will trigger an immune response to make memory
    live attenuated
  4. two examples of live attenuated vaccine
    • mumps 
    • rubella
  5. vaccine that has the actual pathogen that has been killed. requires booster memory does not last that long
    inactivated killed
  6. three examples of inactivated killed vaccine
    • influenza 
    • rabies
    • polio
  7. use only the parts of the pathogen that most effectivly stimulates the immune response
    recombinant vaccine
  8. what is an example of a recombinant vaccine
    hep B
  9. type of vaccine used to treat a toxin
    toxoid
  10. what are two examples of toxoid vaccine
    • tetnus
    • diptheria
  11. puts one vaccine that works well with one that does not work so well. the one that works well will stimulate the immune response to be more effective therby creating immunity against the vaccine that doesnt work well
    combination vaccine
  12. what is an example of a combination vaccine
    haemophilus influenza B
  13. compliment will bind to antibodies. measured amount of antibodies and compliment are added to solution if fixation occurs the solution will stay clear if not antibodies will bind to RBC and solution will turn pink
    compliment fixation
  14. how do antibodies neutralize threats
    antibodies bind to surface antigens
  15. the amount of antibody is constant and the antigen is added
    indirect agglutination
  16. -test patient serum sample to see if you get autoimmune agglutination-the amount of antigen carriers is constant and the antibody solution is diluted serially
    direct agglutination
  17. what are three reasons monoclonal antibodies are useful
    they are uniformhighly specificcan be produced in large quantities
  18. combine a healthy Bcell of intrest with a cancerous B cell (hybridoma) which will make antibodies indefinetly
    monoclonal
  19. uses antibodies for a specific surface antigen
    the antibody has a flourochrome that will flouresce when excited
    flourescent antibody technique
  20. uses a clinical specimen
    uses a slide with a fixed specimen and adds antibodies
    direct flourescent antibody
  21. fix antigen of intrest to a slide
    add serum to slide
    add second antibody with flourichrome
    indirect flourichrome
  22. what are the two kinds of ELISA (enzyme linked immunosorbent assay)tests
    direct and indirect
  23. bind to antibodies on a microtiter plate add solution of intrest if the antigen is present they will bind
    Direct ELISA (enzyme linked immunosorbent assay) testing
  24. antigens of a particular pathogen are fixed to a mictotitter plate and a soulution is added to see if antibodies are present
    indirect ELSA (enzyme linked immunosorbent assay)testing
  25. what are the four hypersensitivities
    • anaphylactic
    • cytotoxic
    • immune complex
    • delayed cell mediated
  26. happens when certain antigens bind with IgE antibodies
    can be mild like hives, hayfever or asthma or can be fatal with breathing difficulty and shock
    can be local or systemic
    anaphylaxis
  27. most common cause is blood transfusion
    involves activation of compliment by the combination of IgG or IgM with an antigen
    cytotoxic
  28. immune complex is not endocytosed so it moves freely through the blood vessel and gets trapped in the underlying tissue. causes damage to the basement membrane of endothelial cells
    rheumatoid arthritis
    glomerulnephritis
    immune complex type III
  29. involves tcells not bcells
    typically happens in organ transplant
    type IV delayed cell mediated
  30. immune complexes of IgG, complimentand IgM are deposited in the joints
    causes severe damage to articular cartilage and bone
    rheumatoid arthritis
  31. produces antibodies against the componants of their own cells
    deposits antibodies along the lining of the glomerulus
    lupus
  32. tcells damage islet cells that secrete insulin
    genetic susceptibility
    diabetes mellitus
  33. tcells and macrophages attack myelin shealth
    wide range of symptoms from fatigue to paralysis
    MS
  34. what are the three stages of cancer
    • initiation 
    • promotion
    • progression
  35. what phase of cancer is the mutation inherited or mutation from enviromental exposure
    initiation
  36. the reversible proliferation of mutated cells from exposure to promoting factors such as obesity, smoking, alcohol etc
    promotion
  37. increased growth rate, metastisis, increased  invasiveness
    progression
  38. what are the subtypes of HIV
    • Main
    • Outliers
    • Neither
  39. viral RNA will reach 10 million in the first week
    is present in cells, will not be in blood yet
    may be asypmtomatic
    phase I
  40. CD4 cells decrease
    start to see signs of supressed immune system
    alot of virus in latent form within tcells
    phase II
  41. CD4 tcell count is less than 350
    aids defined as tcell count less than 200
    start antiretrovirals
    phase III
  42. what are the medications used for Aids
    • chemotherapy 
    • vaccines
    • reverse transcriptase blocers
    • protease inhibitor
    • cell entry inhibitor
    • intagrase inhibitor
  43. kills microbes directly
    bactericidal
  44. prevents increased growth
    bacteriostatic
  45. what are the 5 mechanisms that antibiotics target
    • inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
    • injury to plasma membrane
    • inhibitors of protein synthesis
    • inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis
    • inhibitors of the synthesis of essential metabolites
  46. test for determining the minimum amount of medication that is needed
    broth dilution test
  47. microorganism is grown on a petri dish and little dots of antibiotics are placed to determine the right medication to use
    disk diffusion
  48. what are four ways that microbes resist antibiotic activity
    • prevent entry into the cell
    • alteration of drugs target site
    • rapid efflux
    • alter metabolic chemistry
  49. what are some ways to prevent antibiotic resistance
    • finish full regime
    • never use someone elses medication
    • never use left over meds
    • avoid unneccesary distribution
    • use appropriate dosage
    • use correct medication
  50. inhibit cell wall synthesis
    peptidoglycan
    used for bacteria
    • penecillin
    • augmentin
  51. destroy plasma membrane
    used on mycobacteria
    isoniazid
  52. inhibit protein synthesis
    ribosome/translation
    used on bacteria
    gentamicin
  53. inhibits nucleic acid sythesis
    used for bacteria
    ciprio ( ciprrofaloxin)
  54. destroy plasma membrane
    used on bacteria
    daptomycin
  55. destroys metabolic pathway
    used for bacteria
    tmp-smz bactrim
  56. destroys plasma membrane
    used for fungus
    amphotericin B
  57. inhibits nucleic acid synthesis( reverse transcriotase)
    used for a virus
    acyclovir
  58. protease inhibitor
    used for virus
    saquinovir
  59. integrase inhibitor
    used for virus
    raltegravir
  60. inhibits nucleic acid
    used for protozoan ( malaria)
    chloroquine
  61. disrupts plasma membrane
    used for helminths ( intestinal worms)
    praziquantel
  62. name a drug in the womens health category
    fosamex
  63. what is the generic form of fosamex
    aldendronate
  64. what are the indications of fosamex ( aldendronate)
    treat/prevent osteoporosis
  65. what are the contraindications of fosamex (aldendronate)
    • hypocalcemia
    • risk of aspiration
  66. what is the mechanism of fosamex (aldendronate)
    inhibits osteoclasts ( bone breakdown)
  67. what is a drug from the mens health category
    Viagra
  68. what is the generic form of Viagra
    sildenafil
  69. what are the indications of viagra
    erectile dysfunction
  70. what are the contraindications of Viagra (sildenafil)
    • hypertension
    • hypotension
  71. what is the mechanism of Viagra (sildenafil)
    enzyme (PDE5) inhibitor
  72. what is a drug from the CNS stimulant category
    ritalin ( methylpheniolate)
  73. what is the generic form of Ritalin
    methylpheniolate
  74. what are the indications of Ritalin ( methylpheniolate)
    • ADHD
    • narcolepsy
  75. what are the contraindications of ritalin (methylphenolate)
    • MAOI's
    • anxiety
  76. what is the mechanism of Ritalin (methylphenolate)
    reuptake of norepinepherine and dopamine increase energy and alertness
  77. what drug is from the opioids category
    MS Contin ( morphine)
  78. what is the generic form of MS Contin
    morphine
  79. what are the indications of MS Contin (morphine)
    long term pain
  80. what are the contraindications of Ms Contin (morphine)
    • respiratory problems
    • heart failure
    • depression
    • resp. distress
    • liver impairement
  81. what is the mechanism of Ms Contin (morphine)
    binds to opioid receptors in the cns to reduce brain function
  82. what is a drug in the CNS depressant category
    Valium ( diazapam)
  83. what is the generic version of valium
    diazapam
  84. what are the indications for valium (diazapam)
    • panic attacks
    • anxiety
    • insomnia
  85. what are the contraindications for valium(diazapam)
    • high BP 
    • heart attack
    • diabetes
  86. what is the mechanism for Valium (diazapam)
    bind to GABA neurotransmitter receptors to reduce brain function
  87. name a drug from the adrenergics category
    adrenaline ( epinepherine)
  88. what is the generic version of adreneline
    epinepherine
  89. what are the indications for adreniline (epinephrine)
    • cardiac arrest 
    • asthma
    • anaphylaxis
  90. what are the contraindications for adrenaline (epinepherine)
    • high bp
    • heart attack
    • diabetes
  91. what is the mechanism for adreneline (epinepherine)
    mimics sympathetic nervous response (increase HR, bronchiodilator,vasoconstrictor)
  92. what is a drug from the proton pump category
    protonix (pantroprazole)
  93. what is the generic form of protonix
    pantroprazole
  94. what are the indications for protonix ( pantroprazole)
    • treats GERD 
    • treats high levels of gastric acid
  95. what are the contraindications of Protonix (pantroprazole)
    • seizures
    • low Mg
    • osteoporosis
  96. what is the mechanism of protonix (pantroprozole)
    blocks hydrogen ion pumps
  97. what is a drug from the antiemetics catergory
    Zofran (ondansetron)
  98. what is the generic name of zofran
    ondansetron
  99. what are the indications of Zofran (ondansetron)
    • nausea
    • vomitting
    • cancer treatment
    • after surgery
  100. what are the contraindications of zofran(ondansetron)
    • CHF
    • liver diesease
  101. what is the mechanism of zofran (ondansetron)
    inhibits vomiting center by blocking seratonin levels
  102. what drug is from the ace inhibitors category
    vasotec (enalopril)
  103. what is the generic name of Vasotec
    enalopril
  104. what are the indications of vasotec (enalopril)
    • high bp
    • heart attack
    • CHF
  105. what are the contraindications of vasotec (enaporil)
    • pregnant
    • low BP
  106. what is the mechanism of Vasotec (enalopril)
    Block ace
  107. what is a drug from the cholinergics category
    aricept (donepezil)
  108. what is the generic name for aricept
    donepezil
  109. what are the indications for aricept (donepezil)
    • alzheimers 
    • parkinsons
    • relax bladder
  110. what are the contraindications for aricept (donepezil)
    • glaucoma
    • gi tract obstruction
  111. what is the mechanism for aricept (donepezil)
    mimics acetylcholine
  112. what is a drug from from the NSAID category
    asprin ( acetylsalicylic)
  113. what is the generic form of asprin
    acetylsalicylic
  114. what are the indications for asprin (acetylsalyclic)
    • pain releaver 
    • fever reducer
  115. what are the contraindications for asprin
    • pregnant
    • bleeding disorders
    • under 16
  116. what is the mechanism for asprin
    blocks cox
  117. what is a drug from the insulin category
    lantus (glargine)
  118. what is the generic form of lantus
    glargine
  119. what are the indications for lantus (glargine)
    diabetes
  120. what are the contraindications for lantus (glargine)
    • pregnancy
    • hypoglycemia
  121. what is the mechanism for lantus (glargine)
    binds to insulin receptors to re uptake sugar from the blood
  122. what is a drug from the coagulant modifier group
    heperin sodium
  123. what is the generic verison of heperin sodium
    heperin
  124. what are the indications for herperin
    blood clotting
  125. what are the contraindications for heperin
    • bleeding disorders
    • anemia
  126. what is the mechanism for heperin
    • turns off coagulation pathway
    • blocks clotting factors
  127. what is a drug from the diuretic category
    lasix (furosemide)
  128. what is the generic version of Lasix
    furosemide
  129. what are the indications for lasix
    • edema 
    • CHF

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