Green Belt Six Sigma Practice test

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Green Belt Six Sigma Practice test
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2014-07-05 13:46:40
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Green Belt Six Sigma Practice test
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  1. The use of station warning lights, tool boards and jidohka devices in the application of Lean accomplish which of these principles?

    A. Pilferage Minimization
    B. Visual Factory
    C. Management Awareness
    D. Operator Attentiveness
    Answer:B. Visual Factory
  2. A Lean Principle that addresses efficiency by the process worker is called____________________?

    A. Visual Factory
    B. Supervising
    C. Training
    D. Standardizing
    Answer:D. Standardizing
  3. While management of a company must set the stage for all improvement efforts, which of these 5 S’s is primarily driven by management?

    A. Straighten
    B. Sort
    C. Shine
    D. Sustain
    Answer:D. Sustain
  4. As part of a Visual Factory plan __________ cards are created and utilized to identify areas in need of cleaning and organization.

    A. Kanban
    B. Kaizen
    C. Poke-Yoke
    D. WhoSai
    Answer:A. Kanban
  5. The use of Kanbans work best with pull systems for determining the timing of which products or services are produced.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer:A. True
  6. When a Belt applies the practice of Poka-Yoke to a project challenge she is attempting to make certain the activity is _______________ .

    A. Well documented
    B. Removed from the line
    C. Mistake proofed
    D. Highly visible
    Answer:C. Mistake proofed
  7. The Lean Principle action in the 5S approach that deals with having those items needed regularly at hand and those items need less regularly stored out of the way is known as ___________.

    A. Shining
    B. Standardizing
    C. Sustaining
    D. Sorting
    Answer:D. Sorting
  8. SPC on the outputs is more preferred than SPC on the inputs when implementing SPC for your process.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer:B. False
  9. Significant variation in process performance is a consequence of several causes that can be classified using which of the terminologies shown. (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

    A. Common
    B. Random
    C. Uneducated
    D. Special
    E. Vital
    • Answer: A,D
    • A. Common
    • D. Special
  10. When it comes to Control one of the most effective means of eliminating defects is to_________________ .

    A. Train personnel often and thoroughly
    B. Keep a Six Sigma project going on the process at all times
    C. Design defect prevention into the product
    D. Have each process consist of no more than five steps
    Answer: C. Design defect prevention into the product
  11. A periodic time frame can be used to arrange for Control Limit and Center Line calculations with good SPC implementation in a process.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  12. The data on SPC charts are typically constructed such that they have the most recent data pointon the right hand side.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  13. Which statement(s) describe an undesirable situation when implementing SPC?

    A. The lower Control Limit for the R chart is equal to zero
    B. Attempt to use SPC for tracking transaction times at a warehouse
    C. A process is in Statistical Control before implementation of SPC
    D. The Control Limits are wider than the customer specification limits
    Answer: D. The Control Limits are wider than the customer specification limits
  14. If a process has Outliers which pair of charts is most preferable if subgroups will exist for the Continuous Data?

    A. Individual—Moving Range
    B. Xbar-R Charts
    C. Xbar-S Charts
    D. nP and P Charts
    Answer: B. Xbar-R Charts
  15. After a Belt has put data through the smoothing process which chart would be used to look for trends in the data?

    A. Moving Average Chart
    B. Multi-Vari Chart
    C. X bar Chart
    D. Pareto Chart
    Answer: A. Moving Average Chart
  16. A Belt concludes a Lean Six Sigma project with the creation of a Control Plan. At what point can the Control Plan be closed?

    A.Never, a Control Plan is a living document
    B. As soon as the Champion signs off
    C. Within 30 days of the LSS project review team meeting
    D. After the project has been presented at the recognition event
    Answer: A.Never, a Control Plan is a living document
  17. When analyzing a data set we frequently graph one metric as a function of another. If the slope ofthe Correlation line is -2.5 we would say the two metrics are ___________ correlated?

    A. Positively
    B. Not
    C. Negatively
    D. None
    Answer: C. Negatively
  18. Multiple Linear Regressions (MLR) is best used when which of these are applicable? (Note: Thereare 3 correct answers).

    A. Non-linear relationships between the inputs X’s and output Y
    B. Uncertainty in the slope of the linear relationship between an X and a Y
    C. Relationships between Y (output) and more than one X (Input)
    D. Preventing the use of a Designed Experiment if unnecessary
    E. We assume that the X’s are independent of each other
    • Answer: C,D,E
    • C. Relationships between Y (output) and more than one X (Input)
    • D. Preventing the use of a Designed Experiment if unnecessary
    • E. We assume that the X’s are independent of each other
  19. Fractional Factorial designs for an experimental approach are used when ____________ about the multiple metric interaction in a process.

    A. Much is known
    B. Little is known
    C. We don’t care
    D. Data exists
    Answer: B. Little is known
  20. A Belt will occasionally do a quick experiment referred to as an OFAT which stands for____________________.

    A. Only a Few Are Tested
    B. Opposite Factors Affect Technique
    C. One Factor At a Time
    D. Ordinary Fractional Approach Technique
    Answer: C. One Factor At a Time
  21. Which statement(s) are correct for the Regression Analysis shown here? (Note: There are 2correct answers).
    A. This Regression is an example of a Multiple Linear Regression.
    B. This Regression is an example of Cubic Regression.
    C. %Cu explains the majority of the process variance in heat flux.
    D. Thickness explains over 80% of the process variance in heat flux.
    E. The number of Residuals in this Regression Analysis is 26.
    Answer: A,D

    • A. This Regression is an example of a Multiple Linear Regression.
    • D. Thickness explains over 80% of the process variance in heat flux.
  22. The Regression Model for an observed value of Y contains the term ?o which represents the Y axis intercept when X = 0.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  23. Which statement(s) are true about the Fitted Line Plot shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

    A. When Reactant increases, the Energy Consumed increases.
    B. The slope of the equation is a positive 130.5.
    C. The predicted output Y is close to -18 when the Reactant level is set to 6.
    D. Over 85 % of the variation of the Energy Consumed is explained by the Reactant via this Linear Regression.
    Answer: C,D

    • C. The predicted output Y is close to -18 when the Reactant level is set to 6.
    • D. Over 85 % of the variation of the Energy Consumed is explained by the Reactant via this Linear Regression
  24. After reviewing the Capability Analysis shown here select the statement(s) that are untrue.
    A. The process is properly assumed to be a Normal process
    B. The Mean of the process moving range is 1.78
    C. The process is out of Control
    D. This Capability Analysis used subgroupsE. Majority of the dimensional values are outside of the tolerance than within
    Answer: A. The process is properly assumed to be a Normal process
  25. The actual experimental response data varied somewhat from what a Belt had predicted them to be. This is the result of which of these?
    A. Inefficiency of estimates
    B. Residuals
    C. Confounded data
    D. Gap Analysis
    Answer: B. Residuals
  26. Multiple Linear Regressions (MLR) is best used when which of these are applicable? (Note: Thereare 3 correct answers).
    A. Non-linear relationships between the inputs X’s and output Y
    B. Uncertainty in the slope of the linear relationship between an X and a Y
    C. Relationships between Y (output) and more than one X (Input)
    D. Preventing the use of a Designed Experiment if unnecessary
    E. We assume that the X’s are independent of each other
    • Answer: C,D,E
    • C. Relationships between Y (output) and more than one X (Input)
    • D. Preventing the use of a Designed Experiment if unnecessary
    • E. We assume that the X’s are independent of each other
  27. The generation of a Regression Equation is justified when we _____________. (Note: There are4 correct answers).

    A. Expect the relationship to be Linear between the output and inputs
    B. Know that there is a non-linear relationship between output and input(s)
    C. Need to understand how to control a process output by controlling the input(s)
    D. Experience several process defects and have no other way to fix them
    E. When it is very expensive or too late to measure the output
    Answer: A,C,D,E

    • A. Expect the relationship to be Linear between the output and inputs
    • C. Need to understand how to control a process output by controlling the input(s)
    • D. Experience several process defects and have no other way to fix them
    • E. When it is very expensive or too late to measure the output
  28. Which statement(s) are correct for the Regression Analysis shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

    A. This Regression is an example of a Multiple Linear Regression.
    B. This Regression is an example of Cubic Regression.
    C. %Cu explains the majority of the process variance in heat flux.
    D. Thickness explains over 80% of the process variance in heat flux.E. The number of Residuals in this Regression Analysis is 26.
    Answer: A,D

    A. This Regression is an example of a Multiple Linear Regression.

    D. Thickness explains over 80% of the process variance in heat flux.E. The number of Residuals in this Regression Analysis is 26.
  29. The Regression Model for an observed value of Y contains the term ?o which represents the Yaxis intercept when X = 0.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  30. Which statement(s) are true about the Fitted Line Plot shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

    A. When Reactant increases, the Energy Consumed increases.
    B. The slope of the equation is a positive 130.5.
    C. The predicted output Y is close to -18 when the Reactant level is set to 6.
    D. Over 85 % of the variation of the Energy Consumed is explained by the Reactant via this Linea Regression.
    Answer: C,D 

    C. The predicted output Y is close to -18 when the Reactant level is set to 6.

    D. Over 85 % of the variation of the Energy Consumed is explained by the Reactant via this LinearRegression.
  31. Select all the statements that are true after reviewing the Capability Analysis shown here. (Note:There are 4 correct answers).

    A. The process is out of Control.
    B. The process is properly assumed to be a Normal process.
    C. The Mean of the process moving range is 1.78.
    D. This Capability Analysis used subgroups.
    E. Majority of the dimensional values are outside of the tolerance than within.
    Answer: B,C,D,E

    • B. The process is properly assumed to be a Normal process.
    • C. The Mean of the process moving range is 1.78.
    • D. This Capability Analysis used subgroups.
    • E. Majority of the dimensional values are outside of the tolerance than within.
  32. A Six Sigma tool that helps to screen factors by using graphical techniques to logically subgroupmultiple discrete X's plotted against a continuous Y is known as a _____________Chart.

    A. SIPOC
    B. Multi-Vari
    C. Box Plot
    D. Whisker
    Answer: B. Multi-Vari
  33. A primary benefit of using a Multi-Vari Chart is it provides a visual presentation of two-way interactions.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  34. __________ Distributions occur when data comes from several sources that are supposed to bethe same yet are not.

    A. Skewed
    B. Bimodal
    C. Gaussian
    D. Tri-peaked
    Answer: A. Skewed
  35. Bias in Sampling is an error due to lack of independence among random samples or due to systematic sampling procedures.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  36. To draw inferences about a sample population being studied by modeling patterns of data in a waythat accounts for randomness and uncertainty in the observations is known as____________________.

    A. Influential Analysis
    B. Inferential Statistics
    C. Physical Modeling
    D. Sequential Inference
    Answer: B. Inferential Statistics
  37. For a Normal Distribution the Mean, Median and Mode are the same data point.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  38. When two Inputs have an impact on the Output together yet seem to have no or little impact on their own this is called a/an ________________.

    A. Interaction
    B. Oddity
    C. Coincidence
    D. Impossibility
    Answer: A. Interaction
  39. Hypothesis Testing can save time and help avoid high costs of experimental efforts by using existing data.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  40. It is a Type II error if we decide to reject the Null Hypothesis when it is actually true.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  41. A Belt experienced an Alpha of .05 and a Beta of .10 and knew these are the most common risk levels when running a Statistical test.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  42. Inferential Statistics is largely about Significance. There are both Practical and _______________Significance to consider during an analysis of data in a Lean Six Sigma project.

    A. Problematic
    B. Impractical
    C. Usable
    D. Statistical
    Answer: D. Statistical
  43. The Central Limit Theorem helps us understand the ___________ we are taking and is the basis for using sampling to estimate population parameters.
    A. Analysis
    B. Kurtosis
    C. Risk
    D. Route
    Answer: C. Risk
  44. Hypothesis Tests determine the probabilities of differences between observed data and the hypothesis being solely due to _________ based on the result of the P-values.

    A. Human error
    B. Measurement error
    C. Shift differences
    D. Chance
    Answer: D. Chance
  45. The Alpha level of a test (level of significance) represents the yardstick against which P-values are measured and the Null Hypothesis is rejected if the P-value is which of these?

    A. Less than the Alpha level.
    B. Greater than the Alpha level.
    C. Greater than the Beta and Alpha level.
    D. Less than one minus Alpha.
    E. Less than the power of one minus Beta.
    Answer: A. Less than the Alpha level.
  46. A 1-Sample t-test is used when you want to compare the Median of one distribution to a target value.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  47. When a Belt is analyzing sample data she should keep in mind that 95% of Normally Distributed data is within +/- 2 Standard Deviations from the Mean.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  48. The Standard Deviation for the distribution of Means is called the ___________ and approaches zero as the sample size reaches 30.

    A. Standard Error
    B. Mean Deviation
    C. Mean Spread
    D. Mean Error
    Answer: A. Standard Error
  49. Due to excessive pollution, GREEN Solutions Inc. is considering subsidizing public transportationto work for its employees. According to the manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they usetheir personal vehicles for their office commute while the management set a policy of not morethan 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employeesshowed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation systemwith a Standard Deviation of 21 minutes. Assuming a Normal Distribution for the commute times by either personal or public transportation, which of these is true?

    A. The probability that they would arrive on time using personal vehicles is much higher than usingthe metro public transportation system (MPTS)
    B. The probability that they would arrive on time using the MPTS is much higher than using their personal vehicles
    C. The two probabilities are about the same excepting in one case the consistency is higher than the other
    D. We need to compile more data around weekends to incorporate for traffic differences
    E. When Standard Deviation is higher the probability goes down and so the MPTS is worse
    Answer: B. The probability that they would arrive on time using the MPTS is much higher than using their personal vehicles
  50. According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work when they use their personal vehicles for their office commute while management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of21 minutes. For the employees choosing to increase their chances to come on time using personal transportation their variation should be reduced to ___________?

    A. 1 minute
    B. 6 minutes
    C. 3.5 minutes
    D. Eliminate it to 0.0 minutes
    Answer: C. 3.5 minutes
  51. According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a StandardDeviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they use their personal vehicles fortheir office commute while the management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their dailyone-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of21 minutes. If the Standard Deviation is uncontrollable then the other option to increase the probability of coming in on time via personal vehicles to work could be ____________?

    A. Increase the average time of commute
    B. Maintain the average time of commute and change route to work
    C. Reduce average commute time to work by departing earlier
    D. Change policy at work and request for flexible times based on location
    Answer: C. Reduce average commute time to work by departing earlier
  52. Which of the following is used to test the significance for the analysis of a Variance Table?

    A. t Test
    B. F Test
    C. Chi Square Test
    D. Acid Test
    Answer: B. F Test
  53. Non-parametric testing is done when which of these are applicable? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).

    A. When the traditional t tests don’t produce the results we need
    B. A Hypothesis Test for the Median of the population is in question 
    C. It does not require data to come from Normally Distributed populations
    D. They look at the Median rather than the Mean of populations
    E. When there are no parameters to measure in the process
    Answer: B,C,D

    • B. A Hypothesis Test for the Median of the population is in question 
    • C. It does not require data to come from Normally Distributed populations
    • D. They look at the Median rather than the Mean of populations
  54. The Mann-Whitney Test is used to test if the Means for two samples are different.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  55. Contingency Tables are used to perform which of these functions?

    A. Illustrate one-tail proportions
    B. Analyze the "what if" scenario
    C. Contrast the Outliers under the tail
    D. Compare more than two sample proportions with each other
    Answer: D. Compare more than two sample proportions with each other
  56. For the data shown here a Belt suspects the three grades are supplying the same results. Which statement(s) are true for proper Hypothesis Testing?

    A. The most appropriate Central Tendency to test is the Means
    B. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Levene’s test
    C. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the ANOVA test
    D. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Mood’s Median test
    Answer: D. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Mood’s Median test
  57. A Six Sigma tool that helps to screen factors by using graphical techniques to logically subgroup multiple discrete X's plotted against a continuous Y is known as a________________________Chart.

    A. SIPOC
    B. Multi-Vari
    C. Box Plot
    D. Whisker
    Answer: B. Multi-Vari
  58. A primary benefit of using a Multi-Vari Chart is it provides a visual presentation of two-way interactions.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  59. Skewed, or Mixed, Distributions occur when data comes from several sources that are supposed to be the same yet are not.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  60. When two Inputs have an impact on the Output together yet seem to have no or little impact on their own this is called a/an ________________.

    A. Interaction
    B. Oddity
    C. Coincidence
    D. Impossibility
    Answer: A. Interaction
  61. To draw inferences about a sample population being studied by modeling patterns of data in a waythat accounts for randomness and uncertainty in the observations is known as____________________.

    A. Influential Analysis
    B. Inferential Statistics
    C. Physical Modeling
    D. Sequential Inference
    Answer: B. Inferential Statistics
  62. The perfect sample size is the minimum number of data points required to provide exactly 6%overlap or risk if one wants a 95% confidence level.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  63. Bias in Sampling is an error due to lack of independence among random samples or due to systematic sampling procedures.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  64. The Central Limit Theorem helps us understand the ___________ we are taking and is the basis for using sampling to estimate population parameters.

    A. Analysis
    B. Kurtosis
    C. Risk
    D. Route
    Answer: C. Risk
  65. Hypothesis Testing can help avoid high costs of experimental efforts by using existing data.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  66. Hypothesis Tests determine the probabilities of differences between observed data and the hypothesis being solely due to chance. This is determined based on the result of the______________.

    A. Random acts
    B. P-values
    C. Standard Deviations
    D. R-values
    Answer: B. P-values
  67. It is a Type I error if we reject the Null Hypothesis when it is actually true.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  68. Inferential Statistics is largely about Significance. There are both Practical and _______________Significance to consider during an analysis of data in a Lean Six Sigma project.

    A. Problematic
    B. Impractical
    C. Usable
    D. Statistical
    Answer: D. Statistical
  69. Having an Alpha of .05 and a Beta of .10 are the most common risk levels when running a Statistical test.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  70. The Alpha level of a test (level of significance) represents the yardstick against which P-values are measured and the Null Hypothesis is rejected if the P-value is which of these?

    A. Less than the Alpha level.
    B. Greater than the Alpha level.
    C. Greater than the Beta and Alpha level.
    D. Less than one minus Alpha.
    E. Less than the power of one minus Beta.
    Answer: A. Less than the Alpha level.
  71. A 1-Sample t-test is used when you want to compare the Median of one distribution to a target value.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  72. A 1-Sample t-test is used to compare an expected population Mean to a target.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  73. Unequal Variances can be the result of differing types of distributions.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  74. Due to excessive pollution, GREEN Solutions Inc. is considering subsidizing public transportationto work for its employees. According to the manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they usetheir personal vehicles for their office commute while the management set a policy of not morethan 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employeesshowed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation systemwith a Standard Deviation of 21 minutes. Assuming a Normal Distribution for the commute times by either personal or public transportation, which of these is true?

    A. The probability that they would arrive on time using personal vehicles is much higher than using the metro public transportation system (MPTS)
    B. The probability that they would arrive on time using the MPTS is much higher than using their personal vehicles
    C. The two probabilities are about the same excepting in one case the consistency is higher than the other
    D. We need to compile more data around weekends to incorporate for traffic differences
    E. When Standard Deviation is higher the probability goes down and so the MPTS is worse
    Answer: B
  75. According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a StandardDeviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work when they use their personal vehicles fortheir office commute while management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their dailyone-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of21 minutes. For the employees choosing to increase their chances to come on time using personal transportation their variation should be reduced to ___________?

    A. 1 minute
    B. 6 minutes
    C. 3.5 minutes
    D. Eliminate it to 0.0 minutes
    Answer: C. 3.5 minutes
  76. According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a StandardDeviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they use their personal vehicles fortheir office commute while the management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their dailyone-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of21 minutes. If the Standard Deviation is uncontrollable then the other option to increase theprobability of coming in on time via personal vehicles to work could be ____________?

    A. Increase the average time of commute
    B. Maintain the average time of commute and change route to work
    C. Reduce average commute time to work by departing earlier
    D. Change policy at work and request for flexible times based on location
    • Answer: C
    • C. Reduce average commute time to work by departing earlier
  77. Which of the following is used to test the significance for the analysis of a Variance Table?
    A. t Test
    B. F Test
    C. Chi Square Test
    D. Acid Test
    Answer: B. F Test
  78. Non-parametric testing is done when which of these are applicable? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).

    A. When the traditional t tests don’t produce the results we need
    B. A Hypothesis Test for the Median of the population is in question
    C. It does not require data to come from Normally Distributed populations
    D. They look at the Median rather than the Mean of populations
    E. When there are no parameters to measure in the process
    Answer: B,C,D

    • B. A Hypothesis Test for the Median of the population is in question
    • C. It does not require data to come from Normally Distributed populations
    • D. They look at the Median rather than the Mean of populations
  79. The Mann-Whitney Test is used to test if the Means for two samples are different.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  80. Contingency Tables are used to do which of these? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

    A. Illustrate one-tail proportions.
    B. Compare more than two sample proportions with each other.
    C. Contrast the Outliers under the tail.
    D. Analyze the "what if" scenario.
    E. Applicable to data that is Attribute in nature
    Answer: B,E

    B. Compare more than two sample proportions with each other.

    E. Applicable to data that is Attribute in nature
  81. For the data shown here a Belt suspects the three grades are supplying the same results. Which statement(s) are true for proper Hypothesis Testing?

    A. The most appropriate Central Tendency to test is the Means
    B. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Levene’s test
    C. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the ANOVA test
    D. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Mood’s Median test
    • Answer: D
    • D. An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Mood’s Median test
  82. The higher the sigma level of a process the better the performance.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  83. The Six Sigma methodology had its origins at __________________ in the late 1980’s when William Smith coined the name for quality related work being done there.

    A. Motorola
    B. Allied Signal
    C. General Electric
    D. Honeywell
    Answer: A. Motorola
  84. Training cost is $4,000 and a project required an initial investment of $30,000. If the project yields monthly savings of $2,000 beginning after 3 months, what is the payback period in months (before money costs and taxes)?

    A. 10
    B. 20
    C. 27
    D. 33
    Answer: B. 20
  85. Lean Six Sigma’s general approach to solving significant challenges related to a process is called_________________.
    A. DOE
    B. SIPOC
    C. DMAIC
    D. FMEA
    Answer: C. DMAIC
  86. Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine ____________________attributes of a product or service.

    A. At least 6
    B. The profitable
    C. Critical-to-Quality
    D. The majority of the
    Answer: C. Critical-to-Quality
  87. Those who are trained to the skill levels of a Black Belt are typically utilized to apply Lean Six Sigma methodologies what percentage of their time?

    A. 25%
    B. 50%
    C. 75%
    Answer: D. 100%
  88. A process can be defined as a repetitive and systematic series of steps or activities where inputs are modified or assembled to achieve a customer desired result.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  89. Customers make a purchase decision based on a number of factors. In Lean Six Sigma we refer to these decision points as CTQ’s or as ____________________.

    A. Critical-to-quality
    B. Conscious thought qualities
    C. Conspicuous time quandaries
    D. Cost of the quantity
    Answer: A. Critical-to-quality
  90. Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) can be classified as Tangible (Visible) Costs and Hidden Costs.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  91. An employee of ACME Corporation noticed that every loan application that gets approved is copied four times and is stored in different locations in the company for no apparent reason. This would be an example of __________________.

    A. Internal Failure Costs
    B. Appraisal Costs
    C. External Failure Costs
    D. Prevention Costs
    Answer: A. Internal Failure Costs
  92. The 80:20 rule is associated with which of these tools?

    A. Pareto Chart
    B. Simon's Cross-Functional Tool
    C. SIPOC
    D. Framing Tool
    Answer: A. Pareto Chart
  93. One of the metrics commonly used in Lean Six Sigma is DPU. This acronym stands for___________________.

    A. Deferred planned usage
    B. Defects per unit
    C. Decreased production utilization
    D. Downtime per unit
    Answer: B. Defects per unit
  94. According to the definition of Rolled Throughput Yield which of these items best describe the purpose of RTY?

    A. A function of Y=f(x)
    B. Accounts for losses due to rework and scrap
    C. Isolates the increase throughput
    D. Determines incremental Growth
    Answer: B. Accounts for losses due to rework and scrap
  95. What is the Cycle Time, in seconds, for a process having a Throughput of 7,200 units per hour?

    A. 0.5
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 10
    Answer: A. 0.5
  96. The following Business Case is constructed properly.“In business unit A there are too many flashlight returns and flashlight sales have decreased by 25 percent.”

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  97. To create standardization of financial benefit calculations project savings are typically based on savings over what period of time?

    A. 6 months
    B. 12 months
    C. 24 months
    D. The remainder of the calendar year
    E. The remainder of the fiscal year
    Answer: B. 12 months
  98. The essence of Lean is to concentrate effort on removing waste while improving process flow to achieve speed and agility at lower cost.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  99. Lean had its origins in the development and practice of the ___________ Production System.
    A. Honda
    B. Toyota
    C. Ford
    D. Motorola
    Answer: B. Toyota
  100. Lean removes many forms of ______________ so Six Sigma can focus on reducing_______________.

    A. Waste, variability
    B. Inventory, defects
    C. Waste, cost
    D. Movement, variation
    Answer: A. Waste, variability
  101. Which element of waste best describes "the unnecessary movement of materials and/or goods"?

    A. Over processing
    B. Motion
    C. Conveyance
    D. Correction
    Answer: C. Conveyance
  102. Which element of waste best describes "the cost of an idle resource"?

    A. Waiting
    B. Motion
    C. Inventory
    D. Correction
    Answer: A. Waiting
  103. The proper functioning of a Visual Factory is dependent upon which of these?

    A. Technically skilled workers
    B. Work space with active 5S
    C. Availability of visual tools
    D. Breakthrough projects
    Answer: C. Availability of visual tools
  104. Lean focuses on the sequence of activities and work required to produce a product or a service.This flow is called a ___________________.

    A. Value-add Flow
    B. Production Map
    C. Value Stream
    D. Operating Procedure
    Answer: C. Value Stream
  105. Lean Enterprise is based on the premise that anywhere work is being done which of these is also occurring?

    A. Money is being spent
    B. Waste is being generated
    C. People are producing value added product
    D. Waste is being eliminated
    Answer: B. Waste is being generated
  106. When constructing a Fishbone Diagram using the ________ approach is the most classic arrangement.

    A. 6M
    B. 4M
    C. 5M
    D. Alphabetical
    Answer: A. 6M
  107. The 5 Why Analysis is only useful if the possible independent variable can be broken down into five possible causes.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  108. The purpose of a Process Map is to identify the complexity of the process and to assist in identifying critical steps in the process.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  109. The very best way to begin an effort to map a process is to do which of these?

    A. Interview the process owner
    B. Interview the manager of the department
    C. Walk the actual process from beginning to end
    D. Take pictures of the factory floor at each shift
    Answer: C. Walk the actual process from beginning to end
  110. The X-Y Diagram is a tool used to identify/collate potential X's and assess their relative impact on multiple Y's.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  111. The term FMEA is an abbreviation for Failures Measure Effective Automation.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  112. When utilizing Statistics the population is defined as a collection of all the individual data points of interest.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  113. Which of these is Discrete data?

    A. Train arrived at 4:17 pm.
    B. Race car consumed 23 gallons of fuel.
    C. Of the 42 people on the bus, 12 went into the station.
    D. It took 3 hours and 32 minutes to complete the marathon.
    • Answer: C
    • C. Of the 42 people on the bus, 12 went into the station.
  114. Nominal Scale data consists of names, labels or categories and cannot be arranged in any mathematical ordering scheme. Complex arithmetic functions cannot be easily applied to Nominal Data:

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  115. When looking at a distribution graph, the Mean is defined as the __________.

    A. Average based on the sample size
    B. Aggression measured
    C. Total sample size
    D. Measurement based off a quarter of the sample size
    Answer: A. Average based on the sample size
  116. The difference between the largest observation and the smallest observation in the data set is known as the _______________.

    A. Breadth
    B. Range
    C. Spread
    D. Median
    Answer: B. Range
  117. The Empirical Rule is important because it provides an estimate of the probability of an event occurring depending on the Standard Deviation from the Mean.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  118. The Z score is a measure of the distance in Standard Deviations of a sample data point from the Median of the sample population.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  119. Long-term Data represents all the variation that one can expect within the subject process.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  120. A Belt gathered the following defect data for a shoe production line and wanted to assemble it into a Pareto Chart. The correct order from left to right in the chart would be:

    Data:
    Cutting 38
    Forming 17
    Stitching 56
    Sealing 42

    A. Forming, Sealing, Cutting, Stitching
    B. Sealing, Stitching, Forming, Cutting
    C. Stitching, Sealing, Cutting, Forming
    D. Forming, Cutting, Sealing, Stitching
    Answer: C. Stitching, Sealing, Cutting, Forming
  121. Measurement error is defined as the effect of all sources of measurement variability that caused an observed or measured value to deviate from the __________.

    A. Standard Deviation
    B. Mean
    C. Median
    D. True value
    Answer: D. True value
  122. Measurement System Analysis is a procedure used to quantify variation of the method or system used for taking measurements.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  123. The Accuracy of a Measurement System addresses _________________.

    A. Stability, Bias & Linearity
    B. Repeatability & Reproducibility
    C. Stability & Sensitivity
    D. Precision & Sensitivity
    Answer: A. Stability, Bias & Linearity
  124. As a type of measurement error, Linearity describes a change in accuracy through the expected operating range of the measurement instrument.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  125. The deviation of the measured value from the actual value is known as _____________.

    A. Bias
    B. Linearity
    C. Repeatability
    D. Movement
    Answer: A. Bias
  126. The ability to repeat the same measurement obtained with one measurement instrument used several times by one appraiser while measuring the identical characteristic on the same part is known as ____________.

    A. Repeatability
    B. Bias
    C. Linearity
    D. Reproducibility
    Answer: A. Repeatability
  127. If a Histogram displays two peaks the distribution would likely be _____________.

    A. Transformed
    B. Multi-skewed
    C. Bimodal
    D. Bi-attribute
    Answer: C. Bimodal
  128. Process Capability is a function of which of these?

    A. Customer requirements
    B. Process performance
    C. Output over time
    D. All of these answers are correct
    Answer: D. All of these answers are correct
  129. Which of these are correct if Cpk Upper is 2.0 and Cpk Lower is 1.0?

    A. The process is not stable.
    B. The process is shifted to the left.
    C. Cpk must be reported as 1.0.
    D. The process Mean is 1.5.
    Answer: C. Cpk must be reported as 1.0.
  130. A Stable process is a process whose output is consistent over time. A primary tool used to analyze Stability would be a ________________.

    A. Data Forward Plot
    B. Bag Plot
    C. Min/Max Plot
    D. Time Series Plot
    Answer: D. Time Series Plot
  131. Conducting a viable Capability Analysis using Attribute Data one must obtain a fairly large sample set to be statistically sound.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  132. This output is what type of advanced Capability Analysis?

    A. Continuous
    B. Binomial
    C. Poisson
    D. Discreet
    E. DPU
    Answer: B. Binomial
  133. Fractional Factorial designs for an experimental approach are used when ____________ about the multiple metric interaction in a process.

    A. Much is known
    B. Little is known
    C. We don’t care
    D. Data exists
    Answer: B. Little is known
  134. Some of the approaches used in Lean include station warning lights, tool boards and jidohka devices in order that which of these apply?

    A. Workers do not utilize individual methods of cleaning
    B. Problems are made highly visible
    C. Work stoppages are documented properly
    D. Lessen the amount of employee pilferage
    Answer: B. Problems are made highly visible
  135. Examples of a Visual Factory include which of these? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

    A. White outlines on floor for proper inventory placement
    B. Documented procedures with a numerical outline
    C. Bad/Good indications of gauge readings with red and green outlines
    D. Implementing a defect inspection device
    Answer: A,C

    A. White outlines on floor for proper inventory placement

    C. Bad/Good indications of gauge readings with red and green outlines
  136. While management of a company must set the stage for all improvement efforts, which of these 5S’s is primarily driven by management?

    A. Straighten
    B. Sort
    C. Shine
    D. Sustain
    Answer: D. Sustain
  137. As part of a Visual Factory plan Kanban cards are created and utilized to identify areas in need of cleaning and organization.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  138. Kanbans work best with pull systems for determining the timing of which products or services are produced.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  139. The practice of utilizing Poka-Yoke is also known as ________________.

    A. Thorough integration
    B. Mistake proofing
    C. On site inspection
    D. Lean controls
    Answer: B. Mistake proofing
  140. Standardized work instructions apply to which resource in the process of interest?

    A. People
    B. Machines
    C. Supervision
    D. Engineering
    Answer: A. People
  141. Examples of Mistake Proofing for a laptop computer include which of these? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

    A. USB connection for a mouse
    B. Open/Close button for CD Drive
    C. Battery alignment pins
    D. On/Off switch for computer
    Answer: A,C

    • A. USB connection for a mouse
    • C. Battery alignment pins
  142. Significant variation in process performance is a consequence of several causes that can be classified using terminologies shown here. (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

    A. Common
    B. Random
    C. Uneducated
    D. Special
    E. Vital
    Answer: A,D

    • A. Common
    • D. Special
  143. The reason(s) for not marking the customer Specification Limits (SL) on a Control Chart is which of these? (Note: There are 4 correct answers).

    A. Process control teams should not control a process based on SLs
    B. Displaying the SLs on a Control Chart sends a wrong signal toward process control
    C. Marking the SLs on a Control Chart is against the principle of charting
    D. By marking the SLs, one can confuse the operator as to what limits are critical
    E. By using mere Control Limits the process only needs to be in Statistical Control
    Answer: A,B,D,E

    • A. Process control teams should not control a process based on SLs
    • B. Displaying the SLs on a Control Chart sends a wrong signal toward process control
    • D. By marking the SLs, one can confuse the operator as to what limits are critical
    • E. By using mere Control Limits the process only needs to be in Statistical Control
  144. A periodic time frame can be used to arrange for Control Limit and Center Line calculations with good SPC implementation in a process.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  145. SPC charts typically have the most recent data point on the right hand side.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  146. Which of these statements describe an undesirable situation when implementing SPC? (Note:There are 2 correct answers).

    A. The lower Control Limit for the R chart is equal to zero
    B. The Control Limits are wider than the customer specification limits
    C. A process is in Statistical Control before implementation of SPC
    D. Attempt to use SPC for tracking transaction times at a warehouse
    E. Indication of the specification limits on the Control Chart
    Answer: B,E

    • B. The Control Limits are wider than the customer specification limits
    • E. Indication of the specification limits on the Control Chart
  147. If a process has Outliers which pair of charts is most preferable if subgroups will exist for the Continuous Data?

    A. Individual-Moving Range
    B. Xbar-R Charts
    C. Xbar-S Charts
    D. nP and P Charts
    Answer: B. Xbar-R Charts
  148. After a Belt has put data through the smoothing process which chart would be used to look for trends in the data?

    A. Moving Average Chart
    B. Multi-Vari Chart
    C. X bar Chart
    D. Pareto Chart
    Answer: A. Moving Average Chart
  149. A Belt concludes a Lean Six Sigma project with the creation of a Control Plan. At what point can the Control Plan be closed?

    A. Never, a Control Plan is a living document
    B. As soon as the Champion signs off
    C. Within 30 days of the LSS project review team meeting
    D. After the project has been presented at the recognition event
    Answer: A. Never, a Control Plan is a living document
  150. Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 80% of its data points within +/- 6 Standard Deviations from the Mean.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  151. In the late 1980’s William Smith coined the name Six Sigma for a methodology that had its origins at __________________ for quality related work being done there.

    A. Honeywell
    B. Allied Signal
    C. General Electric
    D. Motorola
    Answer: D. Motorola
  152. Training cost $6,500 and a project required an initial investment of $47,500. If the project yields monthly savings of $3,500 beginning after 4 months, what is the payback period in months, before money costs and taxes?

    A. 9.7
    B. 15.4
    C. 19.4
    D. 23.7
    • Answer: C. 19.4
  153. The acronym for the defined approach taken by Lean Six Sigma to solve significant challenges related to a process is which of these?

    A. DOE
    B. DMAIC
    C. SIPOC
    D. FMEA
    Answer: B. DMAIC
  154. Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine __________________attributes of a product or service.

    A. At least 6
    B. The profitable
    C. Critical-to-Quality
    D. The majority of the
    Answer: C. Critical-to-Quality
  155. Typically a person who is trained to the skill level of a Black Belt is nearly 80% dedicated to applying Lean Six Sigma methodologies towards process solutions.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  156. A process can be defined as a repetitive and systematic series of steps or activities where inputs are modified or assembled to achieve a _______________ result.

    A. Revenue total
    B. Month end
    C. Customer desired
    D. Budgeted
    Answer: C. Customer desired
  157. Customers make a purchase decision based on a number of factors. In Lean Six Sigma we refer to these decision points as CTQ’s which stands for __________.

    A. Cost of the quantity
    B. Conscious thought qualities
    C. Conspicuous time quandaries
    D. Critical-to-quality
    Answer: D. Critical-to-quality
  158. Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) can be classified as either Tangible (Visible) Costs or Hidden Costs.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  159. The Purchase Orders for Glenn Manufacturing Company were being copied by an employee and sent to four different departments yet only one department took an action based on the information in the PO. This is an example of ____________.

    A. External Failure Costs
    B. Appraisal Costs
    C. Internal Failure Costs
    D. Prevention Costs
    Answer: C. Internal Failure Costs
  160. According to the definition of Rolled Throughput Yield which of the following items best describe the purpose of RTY?

    A. A function of Y=f(x)
    B. Determines incremental Growth
    C. Isolates the increase throughput
    D. Accounts for rejects and reworks
    Answer: D. Accounts for rejects and reworks
  161. One of the metrics commonly used in Lean Six Sigma is DPU. This acronym stands for___________________.

    A. Deferred planned usage
    B. Defects per unit
    C. Decreased production utilization
    D. Downtime per unit
    Answer: B. Defects per unit
  162. The 80:20 rule is associated with which of these tools?

    A. Pareto Chart
    B. Simon's Cross-Functional Tool
    C. SIPOC
    D. Framing Tool
    • Answer: A. Pareto Chart
  163. What is the Cycle Time, in minutes, for a process having a Throughput of 360 units per hour?

    A. 0.167
    B. 0.333
    C. 0.667
    D. 1.333
    Answer: A. 0.167
  164. “During fiscal year 2008 the warranty returns for electric razor Model 312 were 1.3%. This represents a gap of 0.5% over target costing the company $18,500 per month.”

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  165. In order to standardize project savings financial calculation such project benefits can be compared the financial savings are typically calculated over what period of time?

    A. 12 months
    B. 24 months
    C. The remainder of the calendar year
    D. The remainder of the fiscal year
    Answer: A. 12 months
  166. The essence of Lean is to concentrate effort on removing waste while improving process flow to achieve speed and agility at lower cost.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  167. Which element of waste best describes "the unnecessary movement of materials and/or goods"?

    A. Over processing
    B. Motion
    C. Conveyance
    D. Correction
    Answer: C. Conveyance
  168. Lean removes many forms of ______________ so Six Sigma can focus on reducing_______________.

    A. Waste, variability
    B. Inventory, defects
    C. Waste, cost
    D. Movement, variation
    Answer: A. Waste, variability
  169. Lean had its origins in the development and practice of the ___________ Production System.

    A. Honda
    B. Toyota
    C. Ford
    D. Motorola
    Answer: B. Toyota
  170. Which element of waste best describes the cost of a resource being in the queue?

    A. Waiting
    B. Motion
    C. Inventory
    D. Correction
    Answer: A. Waiting
  171. Lean Enterprise is based on the premise that anywhere work is being done which of these is also occurring?

    A. Money is being spent
    B. Waste is being generated
    C. People are producing value added product
    D. Waste is being eliminated
    • Answer: B. Waste is being generated
  172. Lean focuses on the sequence of activities and work required to produce a product or a service.This flow is called a ___________________.

    A. Value-add Flow
    B. Production Map
    C. Value Stream
    D. Operating Procedure
    Answer: C. Value Stream
  173. The proper functioning of a Visual Factory is dependent upon which of these?A. Technically skilled workers
    B. Work space with active 5S
    C. Availability of visual tools
    D. Breakthrough projects
    Answer: C. Availability of visual tools
  174. Use of the ________ approach is the most classic arrangement when constructing a Fishbone Diagram.

    A. Chronological
    B. 6M
    C. 5M
    D. Alphabetical
    Answer: B. 6M
  175. When creating a Cause and Effect Diagram the team needs to continually broaden their view as well as drill down until they identify all the potential ______________ impacting their process.

    A. Line operators
    B. Root Causes
    C. Inventory issues
    D. Customer requests
    Answer: B. Root Causes
  176. The purpose of a Process Map is to identify the complexity of the process and to record all actions and decision points in the process.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  177. The very best way to begin an effort to map a process is to do which of these?

    A. Interview the process owner
    B. Interview the manager of the department
    C. Walk the actual process from beginning to end
    D. Take pictures of the factory floor at each shift
    • Answer: C. Walk the actual process from beginning to end
  178. The X-Y Diagram is a tool used to identify/collate potential X's and assess their relative impact on multiple Y's.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  179. The FMEA is used to analyze potential source of defects in the process of interest and stands for________________________.

    A. Failure Measure for Effective Automation
    B. Failure Modes and Effect Analysis
    C. Focused Mental Efforts Analyze
    D. Failed Manufacturing Efforts Analyzed
    Answer: B. Failure Modes and Effect Analysis
  180. With the use of Statistics we define the population to be a large enough sample set of data such that you can analyze it and draw conclusions as to all of the data.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B. False
  181. Which of these is Discrete data?

    A. Train arrived at 4:17 pm.
    B. Race car consumed 23 gallons of fuel.
    C. Of the 42 people on the bus, 12 went into the station.
    D. It took 3 hours and 32 minutes to complete the marathon.
    Answer: C. Of the 42 people on the bus, 12 went into the station.
  182. Nominal Scale data consists of names, labels or categories and cannot be arranged in any mathematical ordering scheme. Complex arithmetic functions cannot be easily applied to Nominal Data:

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  183. When looking at a distribution graph, the Mean is defined as the __________.

    A. Average based on the sample size
    B. Aggression measured
    C. Total sample size
    D. Measurement based off a quarter of the sample size
    Answer: A. Average based on the sample size
  184. When constructing a Fishbone Diagram using the ________ approach is the most classic arrangement.

    A. 6M
    B. 4M
    C. 5M
    D. Alphabetical
    • Answer: A. 6M
  185. The ____________ is important because it provides an estimate of the probability of an event occurring depending on the Standard Deviation from the Mean.

    A. Shewhart Principle
    B. Pareto Rule
    C. Mean/Mode Spread
    D. Empirical Rule
    Answer: D. Empirical Rule
  186. If the data displayed in a Histogram displays two peaks the distribution would likely be_____________.

    A. Transformed
    B. Multi-skewed
    C. Bi-attribute
    D. Bimodal
    Answer: D. Bimodal
  187. Long-term Data represents all the variation that one can expect within the subject process.

    A. True
    B. False
    • Answer: A. True
  188. The Z score is a measure of the distance in Standard Deviations of a sample data point from the Median of the sample population.

    A. True
    B. False
    • Answer: B. False
  189. A Belt gathered the following defect data for a shoe production line and wanted to assemble it into a Pareto Chart. The correct order from left to right in the chart would be:

    Data:
    Cutting 38
    Forming 17
    Stitching 56
    Sealing 42

    A. Forming, Sealing, Cutting, Stitching
    B. Sealing, Stitching, Forming, Cutting
    C. Stitching, Sealing, Cutting, Forming
    D. Forming, Cutting, Sealing, Stitching
    Answer: C. Stitching, Sealing, Cutting, Forming
  190. Measurement error is defined as the effect of all sources of measurement variability that caused an observed or measured value to deviate from the __________.

    A. Standard Deviation
    B. Mean
    C. Median
    D. True value
    Answer: D. True value
  191. Measurement System Analysis is a procedure used to quantify all ____________ in the method or system used for taking measurements.

    A. Totals
    B. People involved
    C. Variation
    D. Summations
    Answer: C. Variation
  192. The Accuracy of a Measurement System addresses _________________.

    A. Stability, Bias & Linearity
    B. Repeatability & Reproducibility
    C. Stability & Sensitivity
    D. Precision & Sensitivity
    Answer: A. Stability, Bias & Linearity
  193. As a type of measurement error, Linearity describes a change in accuracy through the expected operating range of the measurement instrument.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  194. The deviation of the measured value from the actual value regardless of the operator is known as______________.

    A. Linearity
    B. Bias
    C. Repeatability
    D. Movement
    Answer: B. Bias
  195. The ability to repeat the same measurement obtained with one measurement instrument used several times by one appraiser while measuring the identical characteristic on the same part is known as ____________.

    A. Repeatability
    B. Bias
    C. Linearity
    D. Reproducibility
    Answer: A. Repeatability
  196. Process Capability is a function of which of these?
    A. Customer requirements
    B. Process performance
    C. Output over time
    D. All of these answers are correct
    Answer: D. All of these answers are correct
  197. The reported Cpk for a process with an average of 94 units, a spread of 22 units and upper and lower specification limits of 125 and 80 units would be?

    A. 0.64
    B. 1.27
    C. 1.84
    D. 2.12
    Answer: B. 1.27
  198. A Stable process is a process whose output is consistent over time. A primary tool used to analyze Stability would be a ________________.

    A. Data Forward Plot
    B. Bag Plot
    C. Min/Max Plot
    D. Time Series Plot
    Answer: D. Time Series Plot
  199. Conducting a viable Capability Analysis using Attribute Data one must obtain a fairly large sample set to be statistically sound.

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A. True
  200. This output is what type of advanced Capability Analysis?

    A. Continuous
    B. Binomial
    C. Poisson
    D. Discreet
    E. DPU
    Answer: B. Binomial

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