EMS Total

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FFBRASS
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277158
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EMS Total
Updated:
2014-06-24 14:05:28
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JFRD
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  1. Newborn Stabilization/Resuscitation

    What size blanket roll do you position under the shoulders?
    1"
  2. Newborn Stabilization/Resuscitation

    What does the negative pressure need to be less than when using a bulb syringe or mechanical suction?
    less than 100cm H2O
  3. Newborn Stabilization/Resuscitation

    How many chest compressions  do you administer per minute when the HR is less than 60?
    120 per minute
  4. Newborn Stabilization/Resuscitation

    How many breaths/minute do you ventilate with 100% O2 when HR is less than 100 or when encountering Persistent Central Cyanosis/Apnea?
    40-60 breaths/min
  5. Pediatric Guidelines

    At what age do you routinely assess BPs in children?
    children older than 3 yrs
  6. Pediatric Guidelines

    What is the definition of neonate?
    birth to 1 month
  7. Pediatric Guidelines

    what is the definition of infant?
    greater than 1 month to 1 yr of age
  8. Pediatric Guidelines

    what is the definition of child?
    greater than 1 yr to 12 yrs of age
  9. Pediatric Guidelines

    What is the definition of adolescent?
    greater than 12 yrs to 15 yrs of age
  10. Pediatric Guidelines

    what is the definition of adult?
    greater than 15 yrs of age
  11. Pediatric Cardiac Arrest

    At what age can you apply AED?
    over 1 year of age
  12. Abandoned Neonate

    what florida statute allows for new parents to anonymously leave a neonate at a fire station or hospital?
    Florida Statute 383.50
  13. Consent and Competency Guidelines

    what determines if a patient is mentally competent?
    A+O x4

    awake, alert and fully oriented to person, place, time and situation
  14. Consent and Competency Guidelines

    What do you need to obtain and record per JFRD Refusal Protocol?
    • follow EMT assessment
    • at least 1 set of vital signs
    • any improvement from initial complaint
  15. Consent and Competency Guidelines

    Under JFRD Refusal Protocol, when you record that patient is A+O x4, what do you assess for?
    • trauma or medical illness (hypoxia, hypoglycemia, stroke)
    • psychiatric illness (suicidal/homicidal, hallucinations, delusions)
    • presence of a toxic ingestion or exposure
  16. Consent and Competency Guidelines

    When is a documented refusal valid?
    with an appropriate witness signature
  17. Cooperation with Law Enforcement

    Who handles discrepancies between JFRD transport protocol and law enforcement's destination decision?
    Rescue District/Battalion Chief
  18. Dealing with Behavioral Emergencies

    What position should restrained patients be placed in?
    supine, Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position
  19. Dealing with Behavioral Emergencies

    When restraints are in use, how often should circulation to the extremities be evaluated?
    at least every 10 min
  20. Patient Care Report

    When are patient care reports completed?
    as soon as the call is over
  21. Patient Care Report

    When are transport units patient care report completed?
    by the end of the shift
  22. Patient Care Report

    How often do completed refusals get forwarded to the Quality Improvement Office at HQ?
    every 6 months
  23. Reporting Abuse/Neglect of Children and the Elderly

    An employee who fails to report or prevents another employee from reporting abuse or discloses information relating to abuse cases or who makes a false report may be charged with what?
    2nd degree misdemeanor
  24. Resuscitation Protocol

    When will an Emergency-Pro Report be completed?
    when the rescue crew is on scene and is not canceled prior to patient contact.
  25. Transport and Destination Policy

    Who can elect to deviate from existing guidelines in determining destination of patients during situations where extraordinary circumstances exist (MCI, multiple pt, other environmental situations)?
    Incident Commander
  26. Transport and Destination Policy

    With the exception of which trauma center, patients will not be transported to facilities out of the county without the approval of the appropriate District/Battalion Rescue Chief?
    Orange Park Level II Trauma Center
  27. Transport and Destination Policy

    When can obstetric patients be taken directly to labor and delivery from the ED?
    • when accompanied by an: 
    • RN
    • PA
    • Physician
  28. Transport and Destination Policy

    Who do you need to consult with by radio to be able to take OB patients directly to Baptist Pavilion, Baptist Beaches OB or St Lukes Women's Ctr?
    ED
  29. Transport and Destination Policy

    Who can authorize inter-facility transfers?
    Rescue District/Battalion Chief
  30. Transport and Destination Policy

    When can STEMI alerts be taken directly to the cardiac catheterization lab?
    • when accompanied by
    • RN
    • PA
    • Physician
  31. Transport and Destination Policy

    Consult the Charge Nurse or Nurse Mgr if a pt is not assessed within how many min?
    15 min
  32. Transport and Destination Policy

    When transferring a pt to a hospital stretcher, how long of a delay should there be before you notify FRCC?
    more than 30 min
  33. Trauma Transport Protocols

    Where is the Trauma Scorecard Methodology outlined in for adults ?
    64 J-2.004 F.A.C.
  34. Trauma Transport Protocols

    Where is the Trauma Scorecard Methodology outlined in for pediatrics?
    64 J-2.005 FAC
  35. Trauma Transport Protocols

    Who are the only people authorized to change the trauma alert status?
    The Medical Director of the EMS provider that issues the trauma alert

    The Physician at the receiving trauma center/hospital

    (64 J-2.005 FAC)
  36. Abdominal Trauma

    What is the best treatment for the pt with severe abdominal trauma?
    rapid transport
  37. Traumatic Injury of the Pregnant Patient

    Immobilizing a pregnant pt in what trimester elicits Supine Hypotensive Syndrome?
    3rd trimester
  38. Crush Syndrome

    What is the most consistent clinical finding?
    loss of 2-point discrimination
  39. Acute Compartment Syndrome

    What kind of injury is acute compartment syndrome?
    localized
  40. Acute Compartment Syndrome

    What finding is the least reliable and rarely occurs?
    pulselessness
  41. Acute Compartment Syndrome

    Why do you not want to elevate or apply cold packs?
    Because ice increases vasoconstriction
  42. Burns

    Do not use water for chemical burns due to what?
    LCsss

    • lime
    • carbolic acid
    • sulfuric acid
    • solid potassium
    • sodium metals
  43. Burns

    What kind of burns are spinal immobilization for?
    electrical

    (430.3010)
  44. Burns

    For chemical burns, what do you irrigate eye exposures with?
    lukewarm NS or sterile water
  45. Electrical Injuries

    What type of triage shall be applied during a lightning strike scene with multiple patients?
    reverse triage
  46. Electrical Injuries

    During a lightning strike scene when there are multiple patients, what type of pt shall be worked first?
    patients in cardiac arrest
  47. Electrical Injuries

    When you administer supplemental O2, saturation needs to be maintained between what percentages?
    95-100%
  48. Eye Emergencies

    If blood is noted in anterior chamber, what angle do you elevate head of the patient's bed?
    40 degrees
  49. Eye Emergencies

    When would you elevate LSB to 40 degrees?
    if spinal immobilization is indicated
  50. Eye Emergencies

    What position do you place the pt in when being transported for treatment of diagnosed central retinal artery occlusion?
    shock position
  51. Chest Pain/Discomfort

    If SpO2 is less than 95%, administer O2 via nasal cannula at what lpm?
    2-4 lpm
  52. Acute Stroke

    The head of the bed should be elevated to what angle?
    30 degrees
  53. Acute Stroke

    What blood pressure is considered a stroke mimic and a Stroke Alert should not be issued?
    systolic less than 90 mmHG
  54. Acute Stroke

    When would you consider taking a pt to a Comprehensive Stroke Center?
    if time of onset is greater than 2 hours
  55. Acute Stroke

    When would you consider taking a pt to a Primary Stroke Center?
    if time of onset is 2 hours or less
  56. Acute Stroke

    When would you consider taking a pt to ATU?
    only if time will be saved 

    • -distance + travel exceeds 25 min
    • -helicopter can be launched prior to rescue arrival
  57. CHF/Pulmonary Edema

    What position should you place the pt in?
    full Fowler's position
  58. Hypertensive Urgency

    What should systolic BP be greater than?
    220 mmHG
  59. Hypertensive Urgency

    What should diastolic BP be greater than?
    120 mmHG
  60. Hypertensive Urgency

    What position do you place the pt in?
    semi-Fowler's position
  61. Cardiac Arrest

    What percentage of O2 do you ventilate with?
    100%
  62. Cardiac Arrest

    How many minutes of CPR do you perform for an unwitnessed arrest?
    • Unwitnessed Arrest
    • Perform 2min of CPR prior to any other intervention
  63. 430  EMS

    What position are "Restrained Patients" transported in?
    Supine, Fowlers or Semi-Fowlers
  64. 430 EMS

    What position is a "Shock/Trauma" patient transported in?
    Shock position (Trendelenburg position)
  65. 430 EMS

    What position is an "Immobilized Pregnant Patient" transported in?
    LSB elevated on right side approx. 15° or (6")

    If LSB cannot be elevated, manually displace uterus to the left as much as possible without causing spinal movement and maintain this throughout transport.
  66. 430 EMS

    What position is a "Crush Syndrome" patient transported in?
    Shock position- use caution with trauma PT, potential respiratory compromise.
  67. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport an "Eye Trauma" patient?
    If blood noted in anterior chamber elevate head or LSB to 40°
  68. 430 EMS 

    What do position do you transport an "Atraumatic, diagnosed central retinal artery occlusion" patient?
    Place them in the shock position
  69. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport the "Acute Stroke" patient?
    Place them in the position of comfort, with head of bed elevated to 30° if tolerated.
  70. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport the "CHF/Pulmonary Edema" patient?
    Full Fowlers position
  71. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport the "Hypertensive Urgency" patient?
    Semi-Fowlers or position of comfort
  72. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport the "Coma/Altered Consciousness" patient?
    Recovery position
  73. 430 EMS

    What position is the "Epistaxis" patient transported in?
    sitting position with head leaning forward
  74. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport the "Shock/Medical" patient in?
    Shock position
  75. 430 EMS

    What position should a "Heat Stroke" patient be transported in?
    Semi-Fowlers with the head elevated 30°
  76. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport "Vaginal Bleeding"?
    1st or 2nd trimester- position of comfort

    3rd trimester- recover position (left side)
  77. 430 EMS

    What position should you transport patients having "Complications of Deliver"?
    Breech Delivery - Knee-Chest position

    Limb or Brow presentation- Knee-Chest

    Prolapsed Cord- Knee-Chest or supine with hips elevated
  78. 430  EMS

    What position should the stretcher be in if you are transporting a patient while using the "Pediatric Stretcher Restraint Device" with the caregiver sitting on the stretcher?
    Head of the stretcher should be at least at a 45° angle
  79. 430 EMS

    What does APGAR stand for?
    • Apearance
    • Pulse
    • Grimmace
    • Activity
    • Respirations
  80. 430 EMS

    In APGAR what are you assessing and the score under "Appearance"?
    • Appearance
    • 0 Blue all over
    • 1 Acrocyanosis
    • 2 Pink all over
  81. 430 EMS

    When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under the "P"?
    • Pulse
    • 0 Absent
    • 1 Less than 100
    • 2 Greater or equal to 100
  82. 430 EMS

    When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under "G"?
    • Grimmace
    • 0 No Response
    • 1 Grimmace/Weak Cry
    • 2 Sneeze/Cough Vigorous Cry
  83. 430 EMS

    When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under "Activity"?
    • Activity/Muscle Tone
    • 0 Limp/Flacid
    • 1 Some Motion/Flexion
    • 2 Active Motion
  84. 430 EMS

    When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under "R"?
    • Respirations
    • 0 Absent
    • 1 Slow/irregulat
    • 2 Vigorous Cry/Normal Respirations
  85. 430 EMS

    On the GCS scale what is listed under EYE Opening and the scores?
    • EYE Opening
    • 4 Spontaneous
    • 3 To Speach
    • 2 To Pain
    • 1 None
  86. 430 EMS

    On the GCS scale what is listed under Best Verbal Response and the score?
    • Verbal Response
    • 5 Oriented
    • 4 Confused
    • 3 Inappropriate Words
    • 2 Incomprehensible sounds
    • 1 None
  87. 430 EMS

    On the GCS scale what is listed under Best Motor Response and the score?
    • Best Motor Response
    • 6 Obeys
    • 5 Localizes
    • 4 Withdraws
    • 3 Flexion
    • 2 Extension
    • 1 None
  88. 430.1013 Reporting Abuse

    JFRD personnel shall report abuse to?
    • Statewide #, obtain name and ID from contact person
    • Notify Rescue District/Batt Chief
    • Notify Division Chief of Rescue in writing within 24hrs that you've reported to Florida Abuse Regisry
  89. 430.1015 Risk Management

    What is the most common form of contamination to the health care provider?
    Sharps
  90. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the airway condition?
    Active airway assistance beyond beyond administration of oxygen
  91. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the circulation criteria?
    • Patient lacks a radial pulse with HR >120
    • or
    • Has systolic <90
  92. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the cutaneous criteria?
    • Pt. has 2nd or 3rd degree burns to 15% or more of the total body surface area
    • or
    • Amputation proximal to wrist/ankle
    • or
    • Penetrating injury to the head, neck or torso
  93. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the Best Motor Response criteria?
    • The PT exihibits a score or 4 or less on the GCS 
    • or
    • exhibits the presence of paralysis
    • or
    • there is suspicion of spinal cord injury
    • or
    • the loss of sensation
  94. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under Long Bone Fracture?
    Pt reveals signs or symptoms of two or more long bone fracture sites
  95. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria for airway?
    The patient as a resp rate of 30 or greater
  96. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under circulation?
    patient has a sustained HR of 120 or greater
  97. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert,  what is the criteria under BMR?
    BMR of 5 on GCS
  98. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert,  what is the criteria under cutaneous?
    Pt has soft tissue loss from either major degloving or a major flap avulsion 5" or greater.

    GSW to extremities
  99. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert,  what is the criteria under long bone fracture?
    Pt reveals signs or symptoms of a single longbone fracture from a MVC or a fall from 10' or greater
  100. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert,  what is the criteria under age?
    Pt is 55yrs or older
  101. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert,  what is the criteria under mechanism of injury?
    Pt has been ejected from a motor vehicle or driver of vehicle impacted with the steering wheel causing steering wheel deformity
  102. 430 Trauma transport protocol

    Who is authorized to change the trauma alert status?
    • Medical director of the EMS provider
    • or 
    • Physician at the the receiving trauma center or hospital
  103. 430 Hyperthermia
     
    At what temp is heat stroke?
    Greater than 104°
  104. 430 Hypothermia

    What temp does Shivering occur?
    89.6°F to 98.6°F
  105. 430 Hypothermia

    What temp is a significant finding?
    Rectal temp below 95°F
  106. 430 Pediatric Fever

    What temp should you apply cooling measures?
    • Oral or rectal temp is greater than 105°F
    • (tympanic greater than 104°F)
  107. 430 Respiratory Insufficiency

    What is one of the first signs of hypoxia?
    Pt anxiety
  108. 430 Consent and Competency

    What 4 conditions must be met for Implied Consent?
    Pt intoxicated or under influence or otherwise incapable of providing informed consent

    Pt experiencing an emergency medical condition

    The competent pt would normally give consent

    Unreasonable force shall not be used
  109. 430 Consent and Competency

    A Pt is considered to give informed consent when?
    Pt gives verbal permission to treat

    Pt gives written permission to treat

    Pt does not object as you begin assessment
  110. 430 Consent and Competency

    To give informed consent a pt must be mentally competent.  This means the pt must be?
    A&Ox4

    No significant mental impairment

    Not suicidal or homicidal and does not want to hurt themselves
  111. 430 Dealing with Behavioral Emergencies

    What needs to be documented when restraints are used?
    Pt behavior that necessitated restraints

    Type of restraint used

    Status of circulation distal to restraints
  112. 430 Consent and Competency

    Documented refusals are only valid with an appropriate witness signature.  In order of preference who are the appropriate witnesses?
    • 1.Spouses
    • 2.Relatives
    • 3.Law Enforcement
    • 4.Friends
    • 5.Other Fire/Rescue Personnel

    JFRD officer documenting may not sign as a witness
  113. 430 Risk Management

    How should all re-usable equipment be thoroughly disinfected after use?
    Wash with soap and water

    Cleanse with appropriate disinfecting agent

    Dry thoroughly before returning to storage
  114. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    What age pt is the PED Trauma criteria used for?
    Trauma pt with the anatomical and physical characteristics of a person 15yrs of age or less.
  115. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the single criteria under Airway?
    Airway-

    • pt is intubated 
    • or 
    • pt is assisted through such measures as jaw thrust
    • or
    • continuous suctioning
    • or
    • the use of adjuncts to assist vent efforts
  116. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the single criteria under Circulation?
    Circulation

    • Pt has a faint or non palpable 
    • carotid or femoral
    • or
    • systolic <50
  117. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the single criteria under Consciousness?
    Consciousness

    • Pt exhibits altered mental status
    • or
    • there is presence of paralysis, the suspicion of spinal cord injury
    • or 
    • loss of sensation
  118. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the single criteria under Fracture?
    Fracture

    • Evidence of open long bone fracture
    • or
    • multiple fracture sites (except isolated wrist/ankle)or 
    • multiple dislocations (except isolated wrist/ankle)
  119. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the single criteria under Cutaneous?
    Cutaneous

    • Pt has a major soft tissue disruption including major flap avulsion
    • or
    • 2nd or 3rd degree burns to 10% or more of the total body surface area.
    • or
    • Amputation proximal to wrist or ankle
    • or
    • Any penetrating injury to head, neck, torso
  120. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the criteria listed under "any two" for Consciousness?
    Consciousness

    • Pt has symptoms of amnesia
    • or 
    • there is a loss of consciousness
  121. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the criteria listed under "any two" for Circulation?
    Circulation

    • Carotid or femoral is palpable but radial or pedal are not.
    • or
    • systolic blood pressure is >90
  122. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the criteria listed under "any two" for Fracture?
    Fracture

    Pt reveals signs or symptoms of single closed long bone fracture
  123. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the criteria listed under "any two" for Size?
    Size

    • PED trauma pt weighing 11kilos or less
    • or
    • body length is equivalent to this weight on a PED length and weight emergency tape (33" or less)
  124. 430 Chest Trauma

    What is the best treatment for the Pt with severe chest trauma?
    Rapid transport
  125. 430 Abdominal Trauma

    What is the most important indicator of abdominal trauma?
    Mechanism of Injury

    The best treatment is rapid transport
  126. 430 Traumatic Injury of the Pregnant Pt

    Why might the onset of signs and symptoms of shock be delayed in a pregnant pt?
    Due to the increased maternal blood volume
  127. 430 Extremity Injuries

    When would you apply axial traction for open or closed dislocations or fractures?
    Asense of distal pulses

    Proper immobilization
  128. 430 Crush Syndrome

    What can cause a decrease in the fibrillatory threshold of the heart which makes ventricular fibrillation more likely in the crush syndrome pt?
    Severe metabolic acidosis
  129. 430 Crush Syndrome

    What can contribute directly and indirectly to kidney failure in a crush syndrome pt?
    the release of myoglobin, uric acid and other toxins into the blood
  130. 430 Crush Syndrome

    What is the primary cause of death from crush syndrome?
    • Hypvolemia
    • Dysrhythmia
    • Renal Failure
  131. 430 Crush Syndrome

    What is the most consistent clinical finding in a crush syndrome pt?
    Loss of two-point discrimination
  132. 430 Acute Compartment Syndrome

    What are the 5 "P's" (signs and symptoms) associated with acute compartment syndrome?
    • Pain
    • Paresthesia
    • Pressure
    • Passive Stretching
    • Pulselessness
  133. 430 Acute Compartment Syndrome

    During the treatment of Acute Compartment Syndrome, what do you not want to do?
    • Do Not
    • Elevate
    • Apply cold packs (ice increases vasoconstriction)
  134. 430 Head Trauma

    What is Diploplia?
    Double or blurred Vision
  135. 430 Head Trauma

    Why would a head trauma pt. present with shock?
    Look elsewhere for the cause
  136. 430 Extremity Injuries

    What is Ecchymosis?
    a bruise
  137. 430.2110

    What is Ecchymosis a sign and symptom of?
    An extremity injury
  138. 430.2116

    What is Hyphema?
    Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye
  139. 430 Eye Emergencies

    When treating Direct eye trauma what should you elevate the head of the pt's bed or LSB?
    40 degrees
  140. 430 Airway Protocol

    Comi-Tube- what do you fill the #1 and #2 cuff to?
    Cuff #1- 100mL of air

    Cuff #2- 15mL of air
  141. 430 Airway Protocol

    What is perhaps the most critical as well as the most basic of interventions practiced in emergency medicine?
    Management of the pt's airway
  142. 430 Airway Protocol

    What should you not use to determine if a pt should receive oxygen therapy?
    Oxygen Saturation Levels
  143. 430 Airway Protocol

    What is Homan's sign?
    Calf Pain
  144. 430 Airway Protocol

    When the mechanism of injury indicates possible spinal involvement, what is integral to proper airway management and must be given appropriate attention?
    Cervical Spine Considerations
  145. 430 Airway Protocol

    What do you set the flow at for a Nebulizer?
    • at least 6lpm (typically 8lpm)
    • Adjust flow to maintain a mist of the med
  146. 430.2401

    What is Melena and what is it a sign and symptom of?
    Melena- bloody, tarry stools

    Abdominal/Flank Pain
  147. 430.2403

    What is Uticaria and what is it a sign and symptom of?
    Urticaria- hives

    Allergic Reaction/Anaphylaxis
  148. 430.2404

    What is Nuchal Rigidity and what is it a sign and symptom of?
    Nuchal Rigidity- Stiff neck

    Coma/Altered Consciousness
  149. 430.2702

    What is oliguria and what is it a sign and symptom?
    Oliguria- diminished/infrequent urination

    Mild Pre-Eclampsia
  150. 430.2204

    What are the Neurologic Signs and Symptoms of Hypertensive Urgency?
    • Decreased LOC
    • Impaired Movement
    • Asymmetry of face and extremities
    • Seizures
    • Unequal pupils
  151. 430 Hypertensive Urgency

    What are the treatments for hypertensive urgency?
    Administer Oxygen as indicated

    • Pt in Semi-Fowlers
    • or
    • Position of comfort
  152. 430 CHF/Pulmonary Edema

    What is the treatment for CHF/Pulmonary Edema?
    Administer 100% oxygen

    Pt in Full-Fowlers position
  153. 430.2501

    What is Pleuritic chest pain and what is it a sign and symptom of?
    Pleuritic Chest Pain- chest pain exacerbated by forceful breathing

    Drowning/Near-Drowning Submersion
  154. 430 Decompression Sickness/Dysbarism

    What is the Etiology of Decompression Sickness/Dysbarism?
    • Dysbarism
    • Barotrauma
    • Decompression Sickness
  155. 430 Decompression Sickness/Dysbarism

    What are the skin signs and symptoms?
    • Tenderness
    • Mottling
    • Rash from bubble emboli
    • Subcutaneous Emphysema
  156. 430 Acute Stroke

    What is the treatment for Acute Stroke?
    Admin. Oxygen as indicated- SAT. below 95% admin 2-4lpm nasal canula

    Room air SAT. above 95%, no oxygen administered

    Pt in position of comfort with head of bed elevated 30°

    Obtain BP in both arms

    Florida Bureau of EMS Stroke Alert Checklist

    Dont administer any oral meds
  157. 430 Symptomatic Bradycardia

    What is the treatment for Symptomatic Bradycardia?
    Admin. 100% oxygen

    Assess for reversible causes
  158. 430 Respiratory Insufficiency

    What is a sign of Severe hypoxia/anoxia?
    Obtundation
  159. 430 Respiratory Insufficiency

    What is the treatment for Respiratory Insufficiency?
    Admin. supplemental oxygen, maintain saturation between 95 and 100%
  160. 430 Respiratory Arrest

    What should be performed to prevent arrest?
    Aggressive airway procedures and supplemental ventilation should be performed.
  161. 430 Respiratory Arrest

    If a pt has a foreign body airway obstruction and is unconscious, what should be done before beginning CPR?
    Reposition Airway

    Before vent and after opening airway, look for obstruction and remove if visible.

    Then begin CPR
  162. 430 Airway Protocol

    What determines Oxygen administration?
    Pathology of the complaint, differential (field) diagnosis and this protocol
  163. 430 Airway Protocol

    What technique should be used with a BVM?
    Use the E-C technique
  164. 430 Airway Protocol

    What is the flow set for a NRB mask?
    at least 10lpm

    adjust liter flow to maintain oxygen in the reservoir bag
  165. 430 Airway Protocol

    How do you size a NPA?
    Distance from the tip of the nose to the angle of the jaw
  166. 430 Airway Protocol

    What are the indications for Combi-Tube?
    Cardia, respiratory or traumatic arrest
  167. 430 Airway Protocol

    What are the contra-indications for a Combi-tube?
    • Less than 5' tall, Greater than 7'
    • Less than 16yrs old
    • Pt has esophageal disease
    • Ingested caustic substance
    • Foreign Body Airway Obstruction
    • Responsive or has gag reflex
  168. 430 Airway Protocol

    Where should you Auscultate to confirm Combi-tube placement?
    The epigastrum in the mid-line slightly inferior to the xiphoid process

    Then lungs while ventilating pt
  169. 430 EMS

    For Pt exhibiting signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, conscious and able to swallow, when do you administer Dextrose Past or sugar orally?
    For a BGL less than 70mg/dl
  170. 430 Epistaxis

    What position should you sit the pt in if other injuries do not exist?
    Prevent aspiration of blood by placing the pt in a sitting position with their head leaning forward.
  171. 430 Epistaxis

    How can you control the hemorrhage in an Epistaxis pt?
    Pinch nostrils and pack gauze between upper lif and gum to provide pressure.

    Tell pt not to sniff, blow or manipulate nasal passages
  172. 430 Headache

    What position should you place a pt with a decreased level of consciousness?
    Place pt in the recovery position to maintain aspiration prophylaxis
  173. 430 Shock/Medical

    What is the most important goal in the prehospital management of shock?
    Diagnosis and immediate treatment of Underlying Cause
  174. 430 Hyperthermia

    Under signs and symptoms of Heat Stroke what might the pt temp be and describe the pt skin.
    Greater than 104°

    Moist or dry skin (may be sweating)
  175. 430 Hyperthermia

    What position should you transport a Heat Stroke pt in?
    Semi-Fowlers with head elevated 30°
  176. 430 Hyperthermia

    What position should you transport a Heat Exhaustion pt in?
    Position of comfort
  177. 430 Hypothermia

    When does shivering occur?
    • Shivering
    • 89.6° to 98.6°
  178. 430 EMS

    What two resources should be used to properly identify the agents involved for a Exposure to Specific Hazardous Materials Pt?
    NIOSH Pocket Guide to Hazardous Chems

    ERG
  179. 430 Carbon Monoxide

    What is not a reliable sign of CO poisoning?
    Cherry-red skin
  180. 430 Vaginal Bleeding

    What position do you transport a Vaginal Bleeding pt in?
    1st or 2nd trimester or unknown preg status- allow pt to assume position of comfort

    3rd trimester- pt in recover position
  181. 430 Hypertensive state of Pregnancy

    What are the BP findings during the assessment of Mild Pre-Eclampsia?
    • Systolic Greater than 140
    • Diastolic greater than 90

    Systolic- greater than 30mmHg increase above baseline

    Diastolic-greater than 15mmHg increase above baseline
  182. 430 Hypertensive State of Pregnancy

    In the assessment portion of Mild Pre-Eclampsia, what is the weight gain?
    Greater than 2lb per wk
  183. 430 Hypertensive State of Pregnancy

    In the assessment portion of Severe Pre-Eclampsia what are the BP finding?
    Systolic greater than 160

    Diastolic greater than 110
  184. 430 Hypertensive state of Pregnancy

    What is the weight gain for Severe Pre-Eclampsia in the assessment?
    Greater than 6lb per wk
  185. 430 Hypertensive State of Pregnancy

    What indicates Eclampsia in the Pre-Eclampsia pt?
    Seizure activity

    Can occur postpartum (up to 6wks)

    Pt Hyperventilates after tonic/clonic seizure
  186. 430 Imminent Deliver

    What is the second stage of labor?
    Fetal head entering vaginal canal to expulsion of the fetus
  187. 430 Imminent Delivery

    As soon as the head delivers what do you suction first?
    Oropharynx first before nostrils
  188. 430 Imminent Deliver

    Where do you cut the cord?
    Clamp (2 to 3 inches apart) 7 to 10 inches from abdomen of the neonate

    Cut between clamps
  189. 430 Complications of Delivery

    During a Breech Deliver how long do you wait for the head to deliver before making an airway for the neonate and how?
    Does not deliver within 3min

    gloved hand to make an airway for neonate, using fingers to make airspace
  190. 430 Complications of Delivery

    What position do you place the mother in if there is a Prolapsed Cord?
    • Knee-chest position
    • or 
    • Supine with hips elevated
  191. 430 Newborn Stabilization

    When suctioning with a bulb syringe or mechanical suction what should the negative pressure be?
    Less than 100cmH2O
  192. 430 Newborn Stabilization

    If amniotic fluid is meconium stained and after delivery of the head but before delivery of the rest of the body you should suction?
    Hypopharynx and then the nostils
  193. 430 Newborn Stabilization

    What are the ventilation requirements with Persistent Central Cyanosis, Apnea or HR less than 100?
    Vent 100% oxygen at 40-60 breaths a min

    vent pressure may exceed 30 to 40 cmH2O, occlude the pop-off valve
  194. 430 Newborn Stabilization

    What do you do if the HR is less than 60?
    Admin chest compressions- 120 per min

    Re-assess every 30sec
  195. 430 Pediatric Cardia Arrest

    What are the most common PED rhythm disturbances?
    • Asystole
    • and 
    • BradyCardia

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