TBS 2-2

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ckeene91
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277328
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TBS 2-2
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2014-06-22 17:44:56
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tbs 2-2
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  1. what is offensive air support?
    air ops conducted against enemy to directly assist the attainment of magtf objectives by the destruction of enemy resources
  2. what is the difference between destruction and neutralization?
    destruction destroys and neutralization renders them ineffective for a specific time
  3. what is deep air support?
    air action against enemy targets at such a distance from friendly forces that detailed integration of each mission with fire and movement of friendly forces is not required
  4. what is air interdiction?
    air ops that disrupt the enemy potential before the can use it against us
  5. what is armed reconnaissance?
    to locate and attack targets of opportunity along general areas and not specific areas that have been briefed
  6. what is strike coordination and recon?
    a mission flown for the purpose of acquiring and reporting das targets and coordinating armed recon or air interdiction missions on those targets
  7. what are the two types of preplanned CAS?
    • scheduled
    • preplanned
  8. what are the two types of immediate missions CAS?
    • divert- using an aircraft thats already in use and changing their mission
    • on call- employment of air craft from a standby status
  9. what are the two types of anti-air warfare?
    • offensive AAW
    • air defense
  10. what is preemptive measures when talking about OAAW?
    objective is to weaken the enemy air threat before the enemy can make effective use of it
  11. what is suppression of enemy air defense in regards to OAAW?
    gain access to a defined zone of airspace that will allow MAGTF ops to proceed
  12. what is local air superiority measures in regards to OAAW
    prevent the enemys residual air threat from affecting the execution of friendly ops to the point of prohibitive interference in a specific zone of action
  13. what is active air defense?
    direct defensive action taken to destroy attacking enemy aircraft or missiles
  14. what is passive air defense?
    anything other then active air defense to minimize the effects of the enemy such as cover and concealment
  15. what is the primary purpose of AAW?
    is to gain and maintain air superiority
  16. what is combat assault transport?
    • provides mobility for the MAGTF
    • used rapidly to deploy forces
  17. what is the only platfrom the can do aerial refueling?
    kc 130
  18. what is air logistical support?
    performed by fixed wing when the range is beyond that of a rotor
  19. what platforms can conduct combat assault transport?
    • ch 46
    • ch 53
    • uh 1
    • kc 130
    • mv 22
  20. what platforms can conduct air delivery?
    • kc 130
    • mv 22
  21. what platforms can conduct air evac?
    • ch 46
    • ch 53
    • uh 1
    • kc 130
    • mv 22
  22. what platforms can conduct tactical recovery of aircraft and personnel?
    • ch 46
    • ch 53
    • uh 1
    • mv 22
  23. what platform can conduct air logistical support?
    • kc 130
    • mv 22
  24. what platforms can conduct battlefield illum?
    • kc 130
    • fa 18
    • av 8
    • uh 1
    • ah 1
  25. what is the difference between strategic and tactical recon?
    • strategic is used to gather info for a national level
    • tactical is used to gather info on mett tc
  26. what is visual air recon?
    the gathering of info by looking out the plane or through sensors and verbally passing to ground troops
  27. what is multi sensory imagery recon?
    passing of imagery from aircraft to ground
  28. what is electronic air recon?
    gathering of info on how the enemy is utilizing the electromagnetic spectrum
  29. what is the 1 UAS we have?
    RQ-7 shadow 200
  30. what different platforms can we use for air recon?
    • ea-6b
    • ah1
    • av8b
    • fa 18
    • uh1
  31. what is electronic attack?
    use of electromagnetic energy to determine or prevent hostile use of electromagnetic spectrum
  32. what is electronic warfare support?
    the search for sources of radiated electromagnetic energy for the purpose of immediate threat recognition
  33. what are the principle objectives of the marine air command and control systems?
    • enhance unity of effort
    • integrate the elements of the command and control systems
    • disseminate common situational awareness
  34. what is air direction?
    the authority to regulate the employment of air resources to maintain a balance between their availability and the priorities assigned for their use
  35. what is air control?
    authority to direct aircraft in flight to engage a target
  36. how do you accomplish air control?
    • positive control- positive identification, tracking, and direction of aircraft within a particular air space
    • procedural control- relies on a combo of previously agreed upon and promulgated orders and procedures
  37. what is type 1 CAS?
    when the risk assessment requires them to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target under attack
  38. what is type 2 of CAS?
    • the controller desires what is necessary and may request any of the three
    • visual acquisition of the attacking aircraft by the controller at weapons release is not possible
    • visual of target is not available
    • when aircraft can not acquire target prior to weapons lost
  39. what is type 3 CAS?
    • does not require controller to see aircraft or target
    • used for blanket attacks or multiple targets
  40.  what three conditions must be met for cleared hot?
    • attacking aircraft is tally the target or the mark
    • terminal controller is tally the target
    • terminal controller is visual the attacking aircraft
  41. what is are the purposes of a security patrol?
    • detect infiltration by the enemy
    • destroy infiltrators
    • protect against surprise and ambush
  42. what is a contact patrol?
    emplyoed to establish and/or maintain contact with an enemy force when the definite location is unknown
  43. what is the base unit for a patrol?
    support unit
  44. what unit searches the objective area?
    the assault unit
  45. what is an initial rally point?
    within friendly lines where a patrol can rally if it becomes separated before departing friendly lines 
  46. what is an en route rally point?
    • between initial rally point and objective rally point.
    • determined as patrol is passing through
  47. what is an objective rally point?
    • located nearest objective where patrol makes final preps
    • reassemble there after completing actions on the obj
  48. what is the sequence in projecting expeditionary forces?
    • pre-deployment actions
    • deployment
    • entry
    • enabling actions
    • decisive actions
    • redeployment
  49. What are the 4 main purposes for conducting amphibious operations?
    • persecute further combat operations ashore
    • obtain a sight for advanced naval land or airbase
    • deny use of an area or facilities to the enemy
    • fix enemy forces and attention providing opportunities for other combat operations
  50. What are the capabilities and strengths of amphibious operations?
    • stratigic mobility and flexibility
    • ability to strike at a point of our choosing
    • projections of power ashore
    • forcible entry
  51. What are the disadvantages of amphibious operations?
    • initial vulnerability
    • natural hazards
    • complexity
  52. What is an amphibious assault?
    • the principle type of amphibious operations.
    • involves establishing a force on hostile or potentially hostile shore
  53. What is an amphibious raid?
    temp. occupation of an objective followed by a planned withdrawal
  54. What is amphibious demonstration?
    conducted to deceive enemy by show of force
  55. What is amphibious withdrawal?
    operation involving the extraction of forces by sea and naval ships or craft from hostile shore.
  56. What are the phases of an amphibious operation?
    • planning
    • embarkation
    • rehearsal
    • movement
    • action
  57. Amphibious operations commence with what?
    initiating directive
  58. What are the characteristics of the landing craft utility?
    • hold 11 crew members
    • carry 180 tons of equipment
    • 400 combat quipped marines
    • 3 tanks
    • 1200 nautical mile range
    • requires 9ft draft underneath
  59. specifics of landing craft air cushion
    • 5 crew members
    • 24 troops
    • M1 tank
    • assault from 50 miles off shore
  60. What chip is replacing the LPD4 austin class?
    LPD17 san antonio class
  61. What are the specifications of the LPD17?
    • carries LCU or LCAC or LCM8
    • can carry CH46
    • carry 77 officer 535 enlisted
  62. Specifications for the LSD41 whidbey island class
    • carry LCPLs or LCACs
    • can carry 34 officers and 470 enlisted
  63. LPD4 austin class specifications?
    • carry LCU or LCACs
    • carry 68 officers 717 enlisted
  64. specifications on LHA1 tarawa class
    • carry LCU and LCAC
    • carry 1900+ marines
    • can land helos and AV8B
  65. what are the specifics on the LHD1 wasp class?
    • can carry all landing craft
    • carry 1900 marines
    • land helos and av8b
  66. what is the LCC19 blue ridge class?
    function as the command ship for joint task force
  67. what are the 5 stages of helo operation planning?
    • ground tactical plan: developed first
    • landing plan
    • air movement plan
    • loading plan
  68. WHAT CAN THE CH46 lift?
    12 combat loaded troops
  69. what can the ch53 lift?
    24 combat loaded
  70. what can the mv22 lift?
    24 combat loaded
  71. who is the air mission commander?
    senior marine aviator
  72. who is the helicopter born unit commander
    in charge of execution and accomplishment of the ground tactical plan
  73. who is the assault support flight leader?
    reports to the AMC assists in the planning of flight routes and LZs
  74. who is the escort flight leader?
    assists in planning of the LZ and threat mitigation
  75. at a minimum, how many ground units should be landed in the first wave?
    1/3
  76. what is L hour?
    when the first helicopter in the first lift is to touch down in the LZ
  77. what are the specifics of the ch 53d?
    • 37 pax/8000 ilbs internal cargo
    • 3 hours flight
    • ramp gun optional
  78. specifics on ch 53e
    • 37 to 55 pax 20,000 internal pounds
    • 4 hours or can be refuled
    • ramp gun optional
  79. specifics on mv 22
    • fastest
    • 24 pax 15,000 pounds internal 10,000 pounds external
    • 3 hours or refueled
  80. what does stress stand for?
    • search
    • tag
    • report
    • evacuate
    • segregate
    • safeguard
  81. what are the 3 types of searches?
    • hasty- quick pat down
    • detailed- more thorough and made in secure location or before transport of epw
    • strip- most indepth only qualified personnel can conduct
  82. what info goes on a tag?
    • name
    • rank
    • service number
    • dob
    • doc
    • unit
    • capturing unit
    • special circumastances of capture
    • description of weapons/documents
  83. what goes in the report part of epws?
    the 5 w's
  84. what are the 4 types of offensive operations?
    • movement to contact- seeks to gain or regain contact with an enemy whose general location is know but exact is not
    • attack
    • exploitation-follows a successful attack in attempt to disorganize enemy in depth
    • pursuit- cut off enemys trying to flee
  85. what are the two types of attacks?
    • hasty- prep time is traded for speed
    • deliberate- preplanned coordination
  86. what are the 3 phases of the attack?
    • preperation
    • conduct
    • exploitation
  87. what are the six forms of manuever?
    • frontal
    • flanking
    • envelopment
    • turning movement
    • infiltration
    • penetration
  88. what is attack by fire?
    destroying enemy from a distance
  89. what does feint mean?
    offensive action involving contact with enemy to deceive him about the actual attack
  90. what does neutralize mean?
    render enemy or his resources unusable
  91. what is rupture?
    create a gap in enemy defensive positions quickly
  92. what does occupy mean?
    move onto an area and take control without opposition
  93. when does the conduct phase start?
    when you cross the lod
  94. what does safe stand for?
    • security
    • automatic weapons
    • fields of fire
    • entrench
  95. what is the definition of ambush?
    surprise attack by fire from a concealed position upon moving or temporarily enemy target
  96. what is the main and secondary purpose of an ambush?
    • destroy enemy troops and equipment
    • harass enemy units
  97. what is a deliberate ambush?
    planned in detail with great amount of info
  98. what is an ambush of opprotunity?
    planned and rehearsed but detail of specific target is not known
  99. what is a hasty ambush?
    not planned but is rehearsed and conducted with hand and arm signals
  100. what is an ambush site?
    terrain on which is established comprised of killing zone and our staged area
  101. what is the orp?
    covered and concealed position short of the ambush site where patrol prepares before occupying ambush site
  102. what is the release point?
    position after orp and just before ambush site where patrol passes control to element and team leaders
  103. who moves forward to set up orp?
    • PL
    • security unit
  104. when do you use a hasty occupation?
    when speed is primary concernor pl's nav is off
  105. what signals does the pl have in the ambush site?
    • alert signals
    • signal to initiate fires
    • sig to cease fire/search kill zone

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