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Acute Stroke
The head of the bed should be elevated to what angle?
30 degrees
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Acute Stroke
What blood pressure is considered a stroke mimic and a Stroke Alert should not be issued?
systolic less than 90 mmHG
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Acute Stroke
When would you consider taking a pt to a Comprehensive Stroke Center?
if time of onset is greater than 2 hours
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Acute Stroke
When would you consider taking a pt to a Primary Stroke Center?
if time of onset is 2 hours or less
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Acute Stroke
When would you consider taking a pt to ATU?
only if time will be saved
- -distance + travel exceeds 25 min
- -helicopter can be launched prior to rescue arrival
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CHF/Pulmonary Edema
What position should you place the pt in?
full Fowler's position
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Hypertensive Urgency
What should systolic BP be greater than?
220 mmHG
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Hypertensive Urgency
What should diastolic BP be greater than?
120 mmHG
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Hypertensive Urgency
What position do you place the pt in?
semi-Fowler's position
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Cardiac Arrest
What percentage of O2 do you ventilate with?
100%
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Cardiac Arrest
How many minutes of CPR do you perform for an unwitnessed arrest?
- Unwitnessed Arrest
- Perform 2min of CPR prior to any other intervention
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430 EMS
What position are "Restrained Patients" transported in?
Supine, Fowlers or Semi-Fowlers
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430 EMS
What position is a "Shock/Trauma" patient transported in?
Shock position (Trendelenburg position)
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430 EMS
What position is a third trimester "Immobilized Pregnant Patient" transported in?
LSB elevated on right side approx. 15° or (6")
If LSB cannot be elevated, manually displace uterus to the left as much as possible without causing spinal movement and maintain this throughout transport.
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430 EMS
What position is a "Crush Syndrome" patient transported in?
Shock position- use caution with trauma PT, potential respiratory compromise.
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430 EMS
What position do you transport an "Eye Trauma" patient?
Maintain pt in supine position to reduce leakage of fluids from the eye.
If blood noted in anterior chamber elevate head or LSB to 40°
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430 EMS
What do position do you transport an "Atraumatic, diagnosed central retinal artery occlusion" patient?
Place them in the shock position
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430 EMS
What position do you transport the "Acute Stroke" patient?
Place them in the position of comfort, with head of bed elevated to 30° if tolerated.
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430 EMS
What position do you transport the "CHF/Pulmonary Edema" patient?
Full Fowlers position
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430 EMS
What position do you transport the "Hypertensive Urgency" patient?
Semi-Fowlers or position of comfort
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430 EMS
What position do you transport the "Coma/Altered Consciousness" patient?
Recovery position
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430 EMS
What position is the "Epistaxis" patient transported in?
sitting position with head leaning forward
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430 EMS
What position do you transport the "Shock/Medical" patient in?
Shock position
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430 EMS
What position should a "Heat Stroke" patient be transported in?
Semi-Fowlers with the head elevated 30°
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430 EMS
What position do you transport "Vaginal Bleeding"?
1st or 2nd trimester- position of comfort
3rd trimester- recover position (left side)
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430 EMS
What position should you transport patients having "Complications of Deliver"?
Breech Delivery - Knee-Chest position
Limb or Brow presentation- Knee-Chest
Prolapsed Cord- Knee-Chest or supine with hips elevated
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430 EMS
What position should the stretcher be in if you are transporting a patient while using the "Pediatric Stretcher Restraint Device" with the caregiver sitting on the stretcher?
Head of the stretcher should be at least at a 45° angle
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430 EMS
What does APGAR stand for?
- Apearance
- Pulse
- Grimmace
- Activity
- Respirations
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430 EMS
In APGAR what are you assessing and the score under "Appearance"?
- Appearance
- 0 Blue all over
- 1 Acrocyanosis
- 2 Pink all over
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430 EMS
When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under the "P"?
- Pulse
- 0 Absent
- 1 Less than 100
- 2 Greater or equal to 100
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430 EMS
When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under "G"?
- Grimmace
- 0 No Response
- 1 Grimmace/Weak Cry
- 2 Sneeze/Cough Vigorous Cry
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430 EMS
When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under "Activity"?
- Activity/Muscle Tone
- 0 Limp/Flacid
- 1 Some Motion/Flexion
- 2 Active Motion
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430 EMS
When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under "R"?
- Respirations
- 0 Absent
- 1 Slow/irregulat
- 2 Vigorous Cry/Normal Respirations
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430 EMS
On the GCS scale what is listed under EYE Opening and the scores?
- EYE Opening
- 4 Spontaneous
- 3 To Speach
- 2 To Pain
- 1 None
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430 EMS
On the GCS scale what is listed under Best Verbal Response and the score?
- Verbal Response
- 5 Oriented
- 4 Confused
- 3 Inappropriate Words
- 2 Incomprehensible sounds
- 1 None
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430 EMS
On the GCS scale what is listed under Best Motor Response and the score?
- Best Motor Response
- 6 Obeys
- 5 Localizes
- 4 Withdraws
- 3 Flexion
- 2 Extension
- 1 None
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430.1013 Reporting Abuse
JFRD personnel shall report abuse to?
- Statewide #, obtain name and ID from contact person
- Notify Rescue District/Batt Chief
- Notify Division Chief of Rescue in writing within 24hrs that you've reported to Florida Abuse Regisry
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430.1015 Risk Management
What is the most common form of contamination to the health care provider?
Sharps
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the airway condition?
Active airway assistance beyond beyond administration of oxygen
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the circulation criteria?
- Patient lacks a radial pulse with HR >120
- or
- Has systolic <90
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the cutaneous criteria?
- Pt. has 2nd or 3rd degree burns to 15% or more of the total body surface area
- or
- Amputation proximal to wrist/ankle
- or
- Penetrating injury to the head, neck or torso
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the Best Motor Response criteria?
- The PT exihibits a score or 4 or less on the GCS
- or
- exhibits the presence of paralysis
- or
- there is suspicion of spinal cord injury
- or
- the loss of sensation
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under Long Bone Fracture?
Pt reveals signs or symptoms of two or more long bone fracture sites
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria for airway?
The patient as a resp rate of 30 or greater
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under circulation?
patient has a sustained HR of 120 or greater
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under BMR?
BMR of 5 on GCS
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under cutaneous?
Pt has soft tissue loss from either major degloving or a major flap avulsion 5" or greater.
GSW to extremities
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under long bone fracture?
Pt reveals signs or symptoms of a single longbone fracture from a MVC or a fall from 10' or greater
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under age?
Pt is 55yrs or older
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430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard
Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under mechanism of injury?
Pt has been ejected from a motor vehicle or driver of vehicle impacted with the steering wheel causing steering wheel deformity
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