EMS 2

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Author:
FFBRASS
ID:
277511
Filename:
EMS 2
Updated:
2014-06-24 14:49:17
Tags:
JFRD
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6/25
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  1. Acute Stroke

    The head of the bed should be elevated to what angle?
    30 degrees
  2. Acute Stroke

    What blood pressure is considered a stroke mimic and a Stroke Alert should not be issued?
    systolic less than 90 mmHG
  3. Acute Stroke

    When would you consider taking a pt to a Comprehensive Stroke Center?
    if time of onset is greater than 2 hours
  4. Acute Stroke

    When would you consider taking a pt to a Primary Stroke Center?
    if time of onset is 2 hours or less
  5. Acute Stroke

    When would you consider taking a pt to ATU?
    only if time will be saved 

    • -distance + travel exceeds 25 min
    • -helicopter can be launched prior to rescue arrival
  6. CHF/Pulmonary Edema

    What position should you place the pt in?
    full Fowler's position
  7. Hypertensive Urgency

    What should systolic BP be greater than?
    220 mmHG
  8. Hypertensive Urgency

    What should diastolic BP be greater than?
    120 mmHG
  9. Hypertensive Urgency

    What position do you place the pt in?
    semi-Fowler's position
  10. Cardiac Arrest

    What percentage of O2 do you ventilate with?
    100%
  11. Cardiac Arrest

    How many minutes of CPR do you perform for an unwitnessed arrest?
    • Unwitnessed Arrest
    • Perform 2min of CPR prior to any other intervention
  12. 430  EMS

    What position are "Restrained Patients" transported in?
    Supine, Fowlers or Semi-Fowlers
  13. 430 EMS

    What position is a "Shock/Trauma" patient transported in?
    Shock position (Trendelenburg position)
  14. 430 EMS

    What position is a third trimester "Immobilized Pregnant Patient" transported in?
    LSB elevated on right side approx. 15° or (6")

    If LSB cannot be elevated, manually displace uterus to the left as much as possible without causing spinal movement and maintain this throughout transport.
  15. 430 EMS

    What position is a "Crush Syndrome" patient transported in?
    Shock position- use caution with trauma PT, potential respiratory compromise.
  16. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport an "Eye Trauma" patient?
    Maintain pt in supine position to reduce leakage of fluids from the eye.

    If blood noted in anterior chamber elevate head or LSB to 40°
  17. 430 EMS 

    What do position do you transport an "Atraumatic, diagnosed central retinal artery occlusion" patient?
    Place them in the shock position
  18. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport the "Acute Stroke" patient?
    Place them in the position of comfort, with head of bed elevated to 30° if tolerated.
  19. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport the "CHF/Pulmonary Edema" patient?
    Full Fowlers position
  20. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport the "Hypertensive Urgency" patient?
    Semi-Fowlers or position of comfort
  21. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport the "Coma/Altered Consciousness" patient?
    Recovery position
  22. 430 EMS

    What position is the "Epistaxis" patient transported in?
    sitting position with head leaning forward
  23. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport the "Shock/Medical" patient in?
    Shock position
  24. 430 EMS

    What position should a "Heat Stroke" patient be transported in?
    Semi-Fowlers with the head elevated 30°
  25. 430 EMS

    What position do you transport "Vaginal Bleeding"?
    1st or 2nd trimester- position of comfort

    3rd trimester- recover position (left side)
  26. 430 EMS

    What position should you transport patients having "Complications of Deliver"?
    Breech Delivery - Knee-Chest position

    Limb or Brow presentation- Knee-Chest

    Prolapsed Cord- Knee-Chest or supine with hips elevated
  27. 430  EMS

    What position should the stretcher be in if you are transporting a patient while using the "Pediatric Stretcher Restraint Device" with the caregiver sitting on the stretcher?
    Head of the stretcher should be at least at a 45° angle
  28. 430 EMS

    What does APGAR stand for?
    • Apearance
    • Pulse
    • Grimmace
    • Activity
    • Respirations
  29. 430 EMS

    In APGAR what are you assessing and the score under "Appearance"?
    • Appearance
    • 0 Blue all over
    • 1 Acrocyanosis
    • 2 Pink all over
  30. 430 EMS

    When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under the "P"?
    • Pulse
    • 0 Absent
    • 1 Less than 100
    • 2 Greater or equal to 100
  31. 430 EMS

    When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under "G"?
    • Grimmace
    • 0 No Response
    • 1 Grimmace/Weak Cry
    • 2 Sneeze/Cough Vigorous Cry
  32. 430 EMS

    When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under "Activity"?
    • Activity/Muscle Tone
    • 0 Limp/Flacid
    • 1 Some Motion/Flexion
    • 2 Active Motion
  33. 430 EMS

    When using the APGAR chart what are you assessing and the score under "R"?
    • Respirations
    • 0 Absent
    • 1 Slow/irregulat
    • 2 Vigorous Cry/Normal Respirations
  34. 430 EMS

    On the GCS scale what is listed under EYE Opening and the scores?
    • EYE Opening
    • 4 Spontaneous
    • 3 To Speach
    • 2 To Pain
    • 1 None
  35. 430 EMS

    On the GCS scale what is listed under Best Verbal Response and the score?
    • Verbal Response
    • 5 Oriented
    • 4 Confused
    • 3 Inappropriate Words
    • 2 Incomprehensible sounds
    • 1 None
  36. 430 EMS

    On the GCS scale what is listed under Best Motor Response and the score?
    • Best Motor Response
    • 6 Obeys
    • 5 Localizes
    • 4 Withdraws
    • 3 Flexion
    • 2 Extension
    • 1 None
  37. 430.1013 Reporting Abuse

    JFRD personnel shall report abuse to?
    • Statewide #, obtain name and ID from contact person
    • Notify Rescue District/Batt Chief
    • Notify Division Chief of Rescue in writing within 24hrs that you've reported to Florida Abuse Regisry
  38. 430.1015 Risk Management

    What is the most common form of contamination to the health care provider?
    Sharps
  39. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the airway condition?
    Active airway assistance beyond beyond administration of oxygen
  40. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the circulation criteria?
    • Patient lacks a radial pulse with HR >120
    • or
    • Has systolic <90
  41. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the cutaneous criteria?
    • Pt. has 2nd or 3rd degree burns to 15% or more of the total body surface area
    • or
    • Amputation proximal to wrist/ankle
    • or
    • Penetrating injury to the head, neck or torso
  42. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the Best Motor Response criteria?
    • The PT exihibits a score or 4 or less on the GCS 
    • or
    • exhibits the presence of paralysis
    • or
    • there is suspicion of spinal cord injury
    • or
    • the loss of sensation
  43. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the one condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under Long Bone Fracture?
    Pt reveals signs or symptoms of two or more long bone fracture sites
  44. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria for airway?
    The patient as a resp rate of 30 or greater
  45. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert, what is the criteria under circulation?
    patient has a sustained HR of 120 or greater
  46. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert,  what is the criteria under BMR?
    BMR of 5 on GCS
  47. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert,  what is the criteria under cutaneous?
    Pt has soft tissue loss from either major degloving or a major flap avulsion 5" or greater.

    GSW to extremities
  48. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert,  what is the criteria under long bone fracture?
    Pt reveals signs or symptoms of a single longbone fracture from a MVC or a fall from 10' or greater
  49. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert,  what is the criteria under age?
    Pt is 55yrs or older
  50. 430.1017 Adult Trauma Scorecard

    Under the two condition criteria for trauma alert,  what is the criteria under mechanism of injury?
    Pt has been ejected from a motor vehicle or driver of vehicle impacted with the steering wheel causing steering wheel deformity

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