EMS 3

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Author:
FFBRASS
ID:
277512
Filename:
EMS 3
Updated:
2014-06-24 14:53:29
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JFRD
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6/25
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  1. 430 Trauma transport protocol

    Who is authorized to change the trauma alert status?
    • Medical director of the EMS provider
    • or 
    • Physician at the the receiving trauma center or hospital
  2. 430 Hyperthermia
     
    At what temp is heat stroke?
    Greater than 104°
  3. 430 Hypothermia

    What temp does Shivering occur?
    89.6°F to 98.6°F
  4. 430 Hypothermia

    What temp is a significant finding?
    Rectal temp below 95°F
  5. 430 Pediatric Fever

    What temp should you apply cooling measures?
    • Oral or rectal temp is greater than 105°F
    • (tympanic greater than 104°F)
  6. 430 Respiratory Insufficiency

    What is one of the first signs of hypoxia?
    Pt anxiety
  7. 430 Consent and Competency

    What 4 conditions must be met for Implied Consent?
    Pt intoxicated or under influence or otherwise incapable of providing informed consent

    Pt experiencing an emergency medical condition

    The competent pt would normally give consent

    Unreasonable force shall not be used
  8. 430 Consent and Competency

    A Pt is considered to give informed consent when?
    Pt gives verbal permission to treat

    Pt gives written permission to treat

    Pt does not object as you begin assessment
  9. 430 Consent and Competency

    To give informed consent a pt must be mentally competent.  This means the pt must be?
    A&Ox4

    No significant mental impairment

    Not suicidal or homicidal and does not want to hurt themselves
  10. 430 Dealing with Behavioral Emergencies

    What needs to be documented when restraints are used?
    Pt behavior that necessitated restraints

    Type of restraint used

    Status of circulation distal to restraints
  11. 430 Consent and Competency

    Documented refusals are only valid with an appropriate witness signature.  In order of preference who are the appropriate witnesses?
    • 1.Spouses
    • 2.Relatives
    • 3.Law Enforcement
    • 4.Friends
    • 5.Other Fire/Rescue Personnel

    JFRD officer documenting may not sign as a witness
  12. 430 Risk Management

    How should all re-usable equipment be thoroughly disinfected after use?
    Wash with soap and water

    Cleanse with appropriate disinfecting agent

    Dry thoroughly before returning to storage
  13. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    What age pt is the PED Trauma criteria used for?
    Trauma pt with the anatomical and physical characteristics of a person 15yrs of age or less.
  14. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the single criteria under Airway?
    Airway-

    • pt is intubated 
    • or 
    • pt is assisted through such measures as jaw thrust
    • or
    • continuous suctioning
    • or
    • the use of adjuncts to assist vent efforts
  15. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the single criteria under Circulation?
    Circulation

    • Pt has a faint or non palpable 
    • carotid or femoral
    • or
    • systolic <50
  16. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the single criteria under Consciousness?
    Consciousness

    • Pt exhibits altered mental status
    • or
    • there is presence of paralysis, the suspicion of spinal cord injury
    • or 
    • loss of sensation
  17. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the single criteria under Fracture?
    Fracture

    • Evidence of open long bone fracture
    • or
    • multiple fracture sites (except isolated wrist/ankle)or 
    • multiple dislocations (except isolated wrist/ankle)
  18. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the single criteria under Cutaneous?
    Cutaneous

    • Pt has a major soft tissue disruption including major flap avulsion
    • or
    • 2nd or 3rd degree burns to 10% or more of the total body surface area.
    • or
    • Amputation proximal to wrist or ankle
    • or
    • Any penetrating injury to head, neck, torso
  19. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the criteria listed under "any two" for Consciousness?
    Consciousness

    • Pt has symptoms of amnesia
    • or 
    • there is a loss of consciousness
  20. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the criteria listed under "any two" for Circulation?
    Circulation

    • Carotid or femoral is palpable but radial or pedal are not.
    • or
    • systolic blood pressure is >90
  21. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the criteria listed under "any two" for Fracture?
    Fracture

    Pt reveals signs or symptoms of single closed long bone fracture
  22. 430 PED Trauma Transport

    When assessing a PED for a trauma alert with the PED Trauma Scorecard, what is the criteria listed under "any two" for Size?
    Size

    • PED trauma pt weighing 11kilos or less
    • or
    • body length is equivalent to this weight on a PED length and weight emergency tape (33" or less)
  23. 430 Chest Trauma

    What is the best treatment for the Pt with severe chest trauma?
    Rapid transport
  24. 430 Abdominal Trauma

    What is the most important indicator of abdominal trauma?
    Mechanism of Injury

    The best treatment is rapid transport
  25. 430 Traumatic Injury of the Pregnant Pt

    Why might the onset of signs and symptoms of shock be delayed in a pregnant pt?
    Due to the increased maternal blood volume
  26. 430 Extremity Injuries

    When would you apply axial traction for open or closed dislocations or fractures?
    Asense of distal pulses

    Proper immobilization
  27. 430 Crush Syndrome

    What can cause a decrease in the fibrillatory threshold of the heart which makes ventricular fibrillation more likely in the crush syndrome pt?
    Severe metabolic acidosis
  28. 430 Crush Syndrome

    What can contribute directly and indirectly to kidney failure in a crush syndrome pt?
    the release of myoglobin, uric acid and other toxins into the blood
  29. 430 Crush Syndrome

    What is the primary cause of death from crush syndrome?
    • Hypvolemia
    • Dysrhythmia
    • Renal Failure
  30. 430 Crush Syndrome

    What is the most consistent clinical finding in a crush syndrome pt?
    Loss of two-point discrimination
  31. 430 Acute Compartment Syndrome

    What are the 5 "P's" (signs and symptoms) associated with acute compartment syndrome?
    • Pain
    • Paresthesia
    • Pressure
    • Passive Stretching
    • Pulselessness
  32. 430 Acute Compartment Syndrome

    During the treatment of Acute Compartment Syndrome, what do you not want to do?
    • Do Not
    • Elevate
    • Apply cold packs (ice increases vasoconstriction)
  33. 430 Head Trauma

    What is Diploplia?
    Double or blurred Vision
  34. 430 Head Trauma

    Why would a head trauma pt. present with shock?
    Look elsewhere for the cause
  35. 430 Extremity Injuries

    What is Ecchymosis?
    a bruise
  36. 430.2110

    What is Ecchymosis a sign and symptom of?
    An extremity injury
  37. 430.2116

    What is Hyphema?
    Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye
  38. 430 Eye Emergencies

    When treating Direct eye trauma what should you elevate the head of the pt's bed or LSB?
    Maintain pt in supine position to reduce leakage of fluids from the eye.

    If blood noted in the anterior chamber (Hyphema) elevate head of the pt bed or LSB 40°.
  39. 430 Airway Protocol

    Comi-Tube- what do you fill the #1 and #2 cuff to?
    Cuff #1- 100mL of air

    Cuff #2- 15mL of air
  40. 430 Airway Protocol

    What is perhaps the most critical as well as the most basic of interventions practiced in emergency medicine?
    Management of the pt's airway
  41. 430 Airway Protocol

    What should you not use to determine if a pt should receive oxygen therapy?
    Oxygen Saturation Levels
  42. 430 Airway Protocol

    What is Homan's sign?
    Calf Pain
  43. 430 Airway Protocol

    When the mechanism of injury indicates possible spinal involvement, what is integral to proper airway management and must be given appropriate attention?
    Cervical Spine Considerations
  44. 430 Airway Protocol

    What do you set the flow at for a Nebulizer?
    • at least 6lpm (typically 8lpm)
    • Adjust flow to maintain a mist of the med
  45. 430.2401

    What is Melena and what is it a sign and symptom of?
    Melena- bloody, tarry stools

    Abdominal/Flank Pain
  46. 430.2403

    What is Uticaria and what is it a sign and symptom of?
    Urticaria- hives

    Allergic Reaction/Anaphylaxis
  47. 430.2404

    What is Nuchal Rigidity and what is it a sign and symptom of?
    Nuchal Rigidity- Stiff neck

    Coma/Altered Consciousness
  48. 430.2702

    What is oliguria and what is it a sign and symptom?
    Oliguria- diminished/infrequent urination

    Mild Pre-Eclampsia

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