Home > Flashcards > Print Preview
The flashcards below were created by user
on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?
____________ individuals who study the effects of arthropods on humans throughout the world.
____________ individuals who study the effects of arthropods on domestic animals and human diseases.
- Medical Entomologist (MD)
- Veterinary Entomologist (DVM)
What is the category of species that are segmented creatures with jointed legs that makes up 3/4 of the species that inhabit the planet?
List 6 Harmful Effects that are caused by Arthropods
- 1. Blood Loss - Ex. Clinical anemia and Aplastic anemia
- 2. Immunity, Hypersensitivity and Toxicity; Example Tick Paralysis
- 3. Worry - Horn flies, face flies and back flies can bother the animal to the point it cannot feed. It losses weight and is economical a disaster
- 4. Secondary Infection
- 5. Vector Hosts - Mechanical and Biological
- 6. Myiasis - Infection by flies or fly larvae
Describe Tick Paralysis
Tick paralysis is generally caused by the _______________(Common name).
- Female tick attaches itself around the shoulders. The paralysis is ascending - it starts at the back legs and goes toward the head. This is unlike rabies that causes descending paralysis which starts at the head and goes to the back legs.
- Brown Dog tick, female tick
Hypersensitivity response to the toxin in a bee sting that causes the swelling on a dog's butt or face is called ________________.
Name three species that can cause worry to an animal to the point it results in weight loss due to not eating and causes the rancher economic distress.
- Horn flies (Haematobia irritans)
- Face flies (Musca autumnalis) and
- Back flies
What is the name that is applicable to any species for the 1st stage larvae?
______________ – no multiplication or molting of the etiological agent in the vector.
______________ – molting in the intermediate host.
- Mechanical vector
- Biological vector
What external parasite is the most common vector/arthropod for disease throughout the world? What is the most common in the U.S.?
____________ any infection caused by fly larvae where the diagnosis can be made based on the location. Give 2 examples.
- Gasterophilus intestinalis – lays its eggs on the front legs & shoulders
- Hypoderma in cattle – lays eggs in various areas causing lesions of boils on back which creates holes in the leather and destroys the hide.
What external parasite (include nickname) lays eggs that can hatch over night and larvae can be inside the host in 24 hours?
Cochliomyia hominivorax, the American Screwworm
List 5 Tick Borne Animal Plagues
- 1. Protozoan diseases - Bovine piroplasmosis and canine piroplasmosis
- 2. Rickettsial diseases - Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, Q Fever and Ehrlichiosis.
- 3. Viral Diseases - Louping ill and Western Equine Encephalitis
- 4. Bacterial Diseases - Tularemia and Canine Bartonellosis
- 5. Spirochetes - Lyme Disease
Bovine Piroplasmosis - Another name for Piroplasmosis is ______.
Means of transmission:
- Babesia bigemina and bovis – They live intracellular of the RBCs
- Boophilus annulatus (1 host tick)
- Means of transmission: Transovarian - only means of transmission for 1 host ticks
Etiological agents: ___________ US ___________ Australia & Europe
- Etiology: Protozoan (Trophozoite (pyriform) stage in the RBC)
- Etiological agents: Babesia canis (common in US) Babesia gibsoni – Australia & Europe
- Vector: Rhipicephalus sanguineus (3 host tick)
What are the 2 Primary Vectors for all 3 host ticks that cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, Q-Fever and Ehrlichiosis.
- Dermacentor andersoni (wood tick)
- Dermacentor variabilis (dog tick)
What is the Etiological agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
What is the mode of transmission?
- Rickettsia rickettsi
- Rickettsia utilize 2 and 3 host ticks so they are actively engaged in Interstadially transmission.
4 Intermediate Hosts:
1st brought to this country by:
- Common Name: Heart Water because of the fluid in the pericardial space
- Etiology: Rickettesia
- Etiological agent: Coxiella burnetii
- Intermediate Host: Dermacentor andersoni (wood tick); Dermacentor occidentalis (Pacific Coast tick); Rhipicephalus sanguineus (Brown dog tick); and Otobius megnini (spider/spinous tick)
- 1st brought to this country by: Australia 1937
What blood cells does it attack?
Common Disease Name:
4 Etiological agents:
2 primary signs:
1st symptom generally note is _______.
- Attacks: both RBCs and WBCs (most important rickettsial disease)
- Common Disease Name: Viet Nam Disease
- Etiology: Rickettsia
- 4 Etiological agents: Ehrlichia canis, E. chaffeensis, E. ewingii, and potentially E. ruminantium (for cattle).
- 2 primary signs: Thrombocytopenia (alot of bleeding) & pyrexia (as high as 106o F)
- 1st symptom: epistasis
What are 2 tick-borne rickettsial parasites that attack the RBC and WBC of cats?
Which etiology appears to occur in the southeastern United States?
- Anoplasma phagocytophila
- Ehrlichia canis
- Ehrlichia canis
Ehrlichia canis was first recognized in _______, and first reported in the U.S. in ____. The disease gained prominence because of the devastating losses of ____________ dogs stationed in Vietnam.
- Algeria in 1935
- military working
What is the vector associated with Ehrlichia canis infection?
tick- Rhipicephalus sanguineus, the “brown dog tick”
List 3 Clinical Hematologic Abnormalities seen in Ehrlichiosis
- Pancytopenia (reduced WBC counts)
- Aplastic anemia, or
- Thrombocytopenia - most consistent hematologic abnormality in both the acute and chronic stages of ehrlichiosis
What is the name of the condition that causes an ovine encephalomyelitis?
- Louping Ill
- Primary host: Sheep
- Vector: tick - Ixodes ricinus
- Came from: Australia
- Etiology: Virus
Western Equine Encephalitis spread by a ___ – (Eastern is transmitted by the __________). Western is tough on people, Eastern is tough on horses. The vector for Western is _____________.
- Rhipicephalus sanguineus
Primarily used by:
- Etiology: Bacteria
- Etiological agent: Francisella tularensis - a gram negative rod
- Primarily host: Sheep
- Vector/primary intermediate host: Dermacentors and Amblyomma species (3 host ticks)
- Primarily used by: terrorists.
Bartonella species are fastidious _______ bacteria that are highly adapted to a mammals red blood cell becoming a lifelong intraerythrocytic bacteremia.
List two gram negative bacteria species - include the year they were discovered and which is the most frequent species that causes disease in dogs.
What is the vector(s)?
- Bartonella henselae - 1992
- Bartonella vinsonii (berkhoffi) - 1993 - most frequent species that causes disease in dogs
- ticks - Rhipicephalus sanguineous & Ambylomma Americana (Lone Star tick).
What etiology is referred to as “Cat Scratch Disease”?
Is Bartonella zoonotic?
What are the modes of transmission for the cat and dog?
- Cats spread the disease through scratches.
- Dogs get the disease by way of the tick.
Diagnosis and Treatment of Bartonella
Clinical signs/hematologic abnormalities:
Drugs of choice:
- Clinical signs/hematologic abnormalities: Thrombocytopenia, anemia, and neutrophilic leukocytosis
- Treatment: Antibiotics for 30 days to 2 months.
- Drugs of choice: Macrolides (Erythromycin and Azithromycin) for 4 to 6 weeks. Can also use doxycycline (clindamycin).
___________ – known as _________ is a vector borne disease affecting people and animals; it is most commonly diagnosed in N. America, Europe, and Asia.
- Lyme Disease
- Lyme borreliosis
Borrelia are small ________ of a Genus that contains more than 20 species. The Lyme Borrelia have been divided into at least four genomic species groups.
What is the most common etiology in North America for Lyme Disease? What is the etiological agent?
- bacteria - spirochete
- Borrelia burgdorferi
_____ – the 1st outbreak of Lyme disease in Old Lyme, Connecticut.
_____ – the spirochete (bacteria) was discovered in the tick Ixodes scapularis (formerly I. dammini).
_____ – 1st canine disease of Lyme arthritis reported, followed by cardiac and renal cases.
_____ – Lyme disease reported in 45 of the lower 48 states and is endemic on the east and west coast as well as the upper midwest.
_____ – Lyme disease is reported in 48 adjourning states.
__________ complex contains two incriminating members as intermediate host for the bacteria
__________ is the intermediate host on the East coast.
__________ is the intermediate host on the West coast.
- Ixodes ricini
- Ixodes scapularis
- Ixodes pacificus
What are 3 Symptoms & 1 Clinical sign of Lyme Disease?
What is the number of humans in the U.S. annually who have Lyme disease?
What is the treatment for Lyme Disease?
- 1. Verified tick bite
- 2. Flulike symptoms (fever) for People
- 3. A positive blood test Immunoblot
- 4. Bruise like rash know as Erythema migrans (Nicknamed “bulls eye”)
- Antibiotic - Doxycycline (Clindamycin -np) – often for extended periods of time.
What are 3 Mosquito Borne Animal Plagues?
- 1. Protozoa carried by mosquitos - Ex malaria
- 2. Eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis (EEE) - Nickname Sleeping Sickness
- 3. Filariids (Filarids) - Ex. Heartworm Disease – Dirofilaria immitis
Condition that means “Bad Air”:
Primary intermediate host:
- Plasmodium malariae
What is the life cycle of malaria?
Sporozoites go directly to the liver because it has been injected into the blood by the mosquito. In the liver it develops a cyst, becomes a merozoite in the liver, enter the RBCs and feed on the hemoglobin. It is a hemoprotozoa not a mucoprotozoan. One of the side effects is the RBCs being lysed and the malaria patients have jaundice appearance – usually seen in the eyes.
Name a Mosquito Borne Plague that the uses the horse as a dead in host.
What is another mosquito borne plague that the horse can transmit the disease to another horse?
- Eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis (EEE) - Nickname Sleeping Sickness
- Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis
Name 3 Flea Borne Animal Plagues
- 1. Bubonic Plague
- 2. Acanthocheilonema reconditum (blood filarid) Fleas primary and lice
- 3. Dipylidium caninum (Cestode)
All true flies discussed are of the order __________. All adult flies, except _____________ (family) have a pair of well developed wings located midway on the body at the mesothoracic area. The anterior pair on the metathoracic area are nothing more than halters (like feelers on the end).
- Diptera (“Two Winged”)
What are 2 forms of flies that exist?
- a. Aquatic – primitive
- b. Terrestrial – highly adaptive
- Class – Insecta
- Order – Diptera
- Sub-Order – Orthorrhapha
Orthorrhapha Suborder is broken down into 3 diff groups. List in the order of least to most developed. Include Group Name/Family Name and what species are included.
- 1. Group – Nematocera shortest most simplistic lifestyles & life cycles. Family – Culicidae – mosquitoes, sandflies, blackflies, and midgies.
- 2. Group – Brachycera – more developed life cycle. Family – Tabanidae – horseflies, deerflies. Not pathogenic
- 3. Group - Cyclorrhapha – Most developed group/Most important. This is where we have our bots, heel flies, grubs and all the flies that are going to present problems.
What 8 Families are included in the Group – Cyclorrhapha – “Most Important”
- Oestridae (Bots) Primarily in sheep
- Cuterebridae (Bots)
- Calliphoridae (Blow flies)
- Sarcophagidae (Flesh flies)
- Hypodermatidae (Bots & Heel flies, Grub)
- Gasterophilidae (Bots) Most imp from economical purpose
- Muscidae (House flies)
Group __________ – the most primitive of the sub-order Orthorrhapha, antennae are long, many segmented, and hairy. Made up of the gnats and the primary pathogen, the mosquito. This Group also includes the sandfly responsible for Leishmania
Group __________ – somewhat more advanced than the primitive Nematocera, they are stout and heavy built. Noteworthy members of the Family _______ are comprised of horseflies and deerflies, neither of which bear heavily on the pathology of our domestic patients.
Group __________ is the primary pathological transport artist of the Orthorrhaphas. Bearing an Arista on the distal segment of the antennae, this group has branched into two directions
Musca domestica is known as the common ____________. This external parasite spreads ____________.
What is the external parasite whose mouth parts project from the head at a right angle when they are at rest in the environment?
Stomoxys calcitrans, the common stable fly
Glossina, the __________, is the vector of ___________ in domestic animals and humans in Africa. Species of this fly reach up to 14 mm in length. Like stable flies, the mouthparts of the fly project forward from the head, but the wings of tsetse flies lie across the back like scissors.
- Tsetse fly
- Trypanosomiasis (Trypanosoma brucci/Nagana)
List the common names for the following:
- Musca domestica: House fly
- Musca autumnalis: Face fly
- Stomoxys calcitrans: Stable fly
- Haematobia irritans: Horn fly
- Glossina: Tsetse fly
Thelazia Common ______ parasite (classification)
____________ – cattle and horses
____________ – cattle and horses
____________ – cattle
____________ – dogs, sheep and wild mammals.
- Flies (Musca)
- Thelazia lacrymalis
- Thelazia skrjabini
- Thelazia gulosa
- Thelazia californiensis
Based on a survey conducted, what is the percentage of horses in Kentucky that were found to be infected with T. lacrymalis?
slightly less than 50%
Life cycle of Family Culicidae?
1. Egg is laid on ______ . Hatch in a ______ . These mosquitos have ____________.
2. Larvae molts ______ in less than ______ ending in ______.
3. ______ develops into ______.
- water; few days; breathing pores which allows them to breathe in water
- 4 times; 2 weeks; pupae stage
- Pupae; adult mosquitoes
What are the 3 stages of Mosquitoes?
- a. larvae,
- b. pupae (pre-adult), and
- c. imago (adult) Term imago only used for flies.
List 4 diseases that mosquitoes are considered the biological vectors
- Dirofilaria immitis - falarid
- Eastern equine encephalitis - viral
- Malaria - protozoan
- Yellow fever - Virus (?)
What is the Life cycle of the Musca domestica?
- 1. Egg is laid on manure or organic material like fruit in the house.
- 2. Maggots, which are the 1st stage larvae emerge is 1-2 days.
- 3. Maggots will molt twice into 3rd stage
- 4. 3rd stage moves to dry medium and pupates
- 5. Pupae (4th stage) will molt to imago (adult) in 2-3 wks.
Stomoxys calcitrans and Musca domestica are considered mechanical vectors for what condition?
summer sores of gastric worms like Habronema muscae
Life Cycle of Musca autumnalis
Fly crawls on the ______ and feeds on ______ .
1. Eggs are deposited in ______.
2. Eggs hatch and larvae emerge.
3. The larvae molt to ______.
4. ______ fly away and continue life cycle
- horses face; ocular and nasal discharges.
- cattle droppings.
- pupae and imago.
- Imago (adult)
M. autumnalis serve as a mechanical vectors for ____________ in cattle and especially horses.
Life Cycle of Stomoxys calcitrans (stable flies)
1. Flies feed primarily on ______.
2. They lay eggs in the ______ that hatch and molt to the imago (adult form)
- horse’s blood (numerous feedings can spread blood borne viruses).
Stomoxys calcitrans serves as a biological vector for ________________ like Musca domestica.
Life Cycle of Haematobia irritans?
1. Flies live on ______ and ______ leaving their host only to lay eggs in the ______.
2. Larvae hatch ______ and feed on ______.
3. Pupation occurs in ______.
4. Imago (Adult ) develops in about ______.
- back; suck blood; feces.
- immediately; feces
- 4-5 days
- 2 weeks
- Because the “horn fly”remains on the animals back most of its life, and its eggs take less than 2 weeks to hatch, insecticide applications are very effective.
What are 3 treatments used for Horn flies?
pyrethrins, organophosphate or avermectins.
What is the Microfilariae etiological agent that is considered the counter part of Onchocerca cervicalis?
Both commonly called (Nickname):
- Onchocerca gutterosa
- Haematobia irritans
- “Heartworm Disease in the Cow and the Horse.”
What external parasite is famous to the World Health Organization (WHO) for the transmission in both animals and man mainly in Africa? (Genus only)
Causes a condition known as
- Genus: Glossina
- Common name: Tsetse fly
- Etiological agent: Trypanosoma brucci
- Causes a condition known as: Nagauna
- Nickname: Sleeping sickness
What are the 2 most common nicknames used for diseases of animals in the world?
- 1. Sleeping sickness
- 2. Red Water – anything that turns the urine red
What is the Life Cycle of the Families Sarcophagidae (Flesh flies) and Calliphoridae (Blow flies)?
- 1. Female lays eggs on wounds or moist tissue (mouth, eyes, penis etc)
- 2. Eggs hatch in one day, and maggots (1st stage larvae) feed
- 3. Larvae fall off host and pupate in 5-7 days
- 4. Imago (adults) emerge in 1-3 weeks and reproduce
- 5. Female start laying eggs - can be on the same host or a different host.
The most common external parasite of the Sarcophagidae family?
Where are they Common?
- Cochliomyia hominivorax “American screwworm” Flesh fly
- United States & Canada
What is the Etiological agent and nickname of the external parasite that came to Boston via Singapore in plane infecting a dog in Norwell, Massachusetts on November 1, 2007?
- Chrysomya bezzian
- "old world screw worm"
List 6 things that could attact Cochliomyia hominivorax
- Docking wound
- Castration wounds
- Wire cuts
- The navels of newborn animals
- Tick bites,
A nationwide control program releasing billions of sexual sterilized adult screwworms flies has almost succeeded in elimination of this _________ from the US. The adult flies are sterilized by Gamma radiation, which induces dominant lethal mutation in the sperm. Because female breeds once and the population is small the addition of sterile males reduces the population especially in the SW
What is the name of the family that has the most advanced parasitic larvae?
This Family contains what external parasites?
What is the Nickname for the larvae?
What species of animal does it affect?
- Bots & Heel flies
- cattle and sheep
What is the Life Cycle of Hypodermatidae (Hypoderma lineatum)?
- Occurs early in the spring (Feb/March)
- 1. Cow consumes the eggs or larvae, the larvae penetrates the intestines, and migrates for 5 months ending up esophagus.
- 2. Larvae is in esophagus for 3 months
- 3. Larvae migrate to the subcutaneous tissues of the back, open breathing holes and molt twice.
- 4. Larvae (now called Grubs) mature, enlarge breathing holes, escape and fall to the ground to pupate.
- 5. Adult flies emerge and reproduce to lay eggs.
What is the Life Cycle of Hypodermatidae (Hypoderma bovis)
- Occurs in Summer to Fall
- 1. Eggs are laid on cow’s skin and they hatch.
- 2. The larvae burrow into the skin and begin migration to the spinal canal. (undet time)
- 3. Larvae move to the back of the cow (undet time) to punch holes in the hide for air, molt 2 times, escape through the holes falling to the ground and pupate.
- 4. Adult flies emerge and begin to reproduce and lay eggs on the back of the cow.
What are the Similarities and Differences between the life cycle of Hypoderma lineatum and Hypoderma bovis?
- Similarities: Both eventually migrate to the back of the cow and open breathing holes causing a condition known as "grubby back" then molt twice, escape through the holes - fall to ground and pupate.
- Hypoderma lineatum occurs in the Spring, Cow consumes the egg or larvae, penetrates the intestines and migrates to the espohagus.
- Hypoderma bovis occurs Summer to Fall and flies lay their eggs on the cows hide. They burrow into the skin and migrate to the spinal canal.
Damage Due to Hypodermatidae
Cow hide is damaged due to the holes punched by the grubs lessening the value of the cow at auction. This development is referred to as “__________”. What can happen if the grubs are ruptured by accident? What is the Treatment for Hypodermatidae?
- grubby back
- They can release a histamine which causes vasodilatation resulting in vascular collapse, shock (Shock is vasodilatation and reduced cardiac output) and death of the animal within minutes to seconds.
- Ivomec administered in the fall and/or organophosphate chemicals can be apply prior to entry of H. bovis
Life Cycle of the Family Oestridae – Oestrus ovis?
1. 1st stage larvae or egg is deposited in __________.
2. The larvae crawls into the __________.
3. After __________ it molts in the __________ & the bots crawl out and drop to the ground to pupate
4. Adults emerge in __________, mate, lay eggs, die
5. If weather is bad __________.
- the nostril of sheep
- nasal passages & sinus
- a few weeks; nasal passages
- 4 to 6 wks.
- 1st stage remains dormant in the nasal area
Oestrus ovis “____________”
Where does it lay its eggs?
- Sheep Nasal Fly
- nasal canal of sheep
List the Family/Genus and species that is considered is one of the most common and disturbing of the Cyclorrhaphas that we see in veterinary medicine. List a 2nd genus and species that looks that looks the same
- Cuterebra palpebrae
- Cuterebra maculata
What is the Life Cycle of the Family Cuterebra (Cuterebra palpebrae)
1. Eggs are laid on _____________.
2. Animal runs by picking up egg on the fur it hatches and molts usually see these __________.
3. Larvae crawls to __________ and __________
4. Larvae will stay in self-limiting area for __________
5. Larvae will emerge, metamorphosis into __________ occurs and it flys away
6. Males and females breed laying eggs along runs - Mostly during the __________.
- plants along rabbit trails
- around the head/face
- moist area (mouth, nose, eyes) and penetrates
_______ are external parasites that are very host specific and spend their entire lifes on in the hairs or feathers of their host (off the host they die), with transmission almost entirely by means of host contacts.
Exception is ___________ which clings to the clothing instead of the body hairs during feeding. When people are not able to bath or change clothes, ___________ can be transmitted - Lice are the intermediate host.
- Pediculus corporis (Pediculus humanus humanus) which is the human body louse
- Epidemic Typhus
What are the 2 Orders of lice?
- Order Anaplura – Sucking Lice, Larger, More Pathogenic, Slower Moving.
- Order Mallophaga – Biting/Chewing Lice, Mouth is Mandible Like Parts.
The Life Cycle of lice is described as having what type of Metamorphosis?
Incomplete - Several molts occur with only minor changes - they basically stay the same.
The most common (chewing or biting) lice:
____________ – dogs, coyotes, & wolves (most common of dog)
____________ – dogs and coyotes
____________ – cats, bobcats, large cats
____________ – horse (can include bovis, ovis and caprae)
- Order - Mallophaga
- Trichodectes canis – dogs, coyotes, & wolves most common of dog
- Heterodoxus spiniger – dogs and coyotes
- Felicola subrostrata –cats, bobcats, large cats
- Damalinia equi – horse (bovis, ovis and caprae)
The most common (sucking) lice:
_____________ – dogs, foxes, coyotes, rabbits, ferrets, wolves, & cats.
- Linognathus setosus – dogs, foxes, coyotes, rabbits, ferrets, wolves, & cats. Imp can render the animal anemic
___________ is lice infection
List four things that produce pathogenic pruritus (itching).
- Food allergies
- Sarcoptic mange (dx with skin scraping).
- Atopy (inhalant allergy).
Flea bite allergies are the result of sensitizing the dog or cat to flea bites by periodic repeats. Bites infrequent as _____ could produce constant pruritus in a fleabite allergy - hypersensitization. The bite secrete anticoagulant that causes swelling. Flea sensitivity generally occurs when the animals is __________ and it is generally due to exposure to the flea saliva and that is a T-cell response.
- 10-14 days
- 18 months or older
Fleas are vectors for what 5 parasites?
- 1. Bubonic Plaque (bacteria = Yersinia pestis),
- 2. Endemic Typhus (Rickettsia prowazeki & lice),
- 3. Dipylidium caninum (tapes is the primary but fleas are the intermediate host),
- 4. Anoplocephala,
- 5. Acanthochelonema Dipetalonema reconditum (heartworm falarid that is spread by fleas), etc.
Fleas show little host specificity as __________ is the most universally common flea parasite.
__________ makes up only 5% of the ones that we see.
- Ctenocephalides felis
- Ctenocephalides canis
Copulation in fleas occurs after a blood meal. Egg to egg can be as little as 16 days under ideal temperature _______ and ___% humidity.
Flea larvae feed on ____ and ____ which contains digestive blood giving the developmental larvae a reddish coloration. ______ species of fleas, only two or three will affect our domestic animals. List 2 effecting mammals and 1 for humans.
- sebum and flea feces
- Ctenocephalides canis and felis
- Pulex irritans
What is the name of lice in man?
What is the name of fleas in man?
- Pediculus corporus
- Pulex irritans
Mating occurs after the fleas have fed. Egg production begins within _________ after the females have taken their first meal almost immediately after acquiring a host. (Nearly all fleas feed within one hour on new host)
Blood meals are for females are about ____ and for males are about ____ .
- 24 – 48 hours
- 25 minutes
- 11 minutes
In clinical trials, ____% of fleas were engorged after five minutes and ____% were engorged after one hour. The study also showed that ____% of the cats treated with imidacloprid or fipronil topically had fleas that were engorged with blood one hour after infestation.
What is the Life Cycle of Ctenocephalides?
- 1. The Nits (White Eggs) can be laid on ground or body and they will hatch in 3 - 4 weeks.
- 2. The Larvae will turn a Yellowish White color and molt in about 1 wk.
- 3. Larvae then turns a Reddish Brown color based on their feeding material and will molt in about 1 wk.
- 4. Larvae then returns to an Opaque White color in about 1 wk and Spins a cocoon where it will stay dormant until it is stirred or the temperature is between 65-80o F.
- 5. Cocoons that are stirred and in ideal weather will erupt in 2 weeks and produce Pupa. Cocoon can stay dormant for approximately 6 months
- 6. The Pupa will be in a resting stage for 3-4 weeks and then molt
- 7. Adults will live off and on the host for 6 months
What are 3 conditions that mean death to flea eggs & larvae?
- 1. Water – they will actually drown – Mosquitos have to have H2O to survive
- 2. Light – bright sun light
- 3. Humidity below 50% (altitudes above 5,000 feet)
List the Percentage of each stage of the flea off the host
- Eggs: 50%
- Larvae: 35%
- Pupae: 10%
- Adults: 5%
1980 – Ovitrol Plus – ______ (apply) with the chemical _____, the first Insect Growth Regulator (IGR)
1995 – Program – _________ with the IGR called _________(flea has to bite animal) Made by _________.
1996 – Frontline ______ with _______ by _______ and Advantage ______ with _________ by ________ introduced as spot on products.
1999 – Revolution _____ with __________ by ______– first internal and external functional anti-parasitic spot on. Flea and heartworm, ascrids, ancylostoma, sacroptic mange, ovitrol prol interrupt the flea life cylce
- topical spray; Precor
- oral and injectable; Lufenuron; Novartis
- topical; Fipronil; Merial; topical; Imidacloprid; Bayer
- topical; Selamectin; Pfizer
2003 – Capstar (__________) by _______ – single day treatment. This was strictly for fleas and would kill all the fleas that were on the dog & cat in one day in a matter of hours. Used at Tomball
2007 – ProMeris ________ (apply) with _____________ – by _________ This product fell on hard times because it smelled bad.
2007 – Advantage Multi (_______) by ____ mimics Revolution in benefits (ascarids, ancylostoma, ovitrol product etc.– and approved for Demodectic mange in Europe.
2008 – Comfortis ___________ with ______ by _______ – lasts for 30 days
2011 – Trifexis _______ with ________ by _________
2013 – Seressto _______ with _______ by _______
2014 - Bravecto _______ with _______ by _______
- Nitenpyram; Novartis
- topical; Metaflumizone & Amitraz (Amitraz is drug of choice for demodectic mange); Fort Dodge
- Imidacloprid w/Moxidectin; Bayer
- chewable tablets; Spinosad; Elanco
- oral and topical; Spinosad & Milbemycin oxime; Eli Lilly/Elanco
- collar; Imidacloprid & Flumethrin; Bayer
- chewable tablet; Fluralaner; Merial
Frontline - "_________" __________ by _______
Frontline Plus – _________ IGR ingredient added to the _______ which makes it an ovitrol. Ovitrols do one of 2 things – they will not allow the egg to hatch or they kill the larvae inside the egg so when the larvae hatches it is dead.
- Top Spot - with fipronil; Merial
- methoprene; fipronil
Fipronil inhibits the ______ transmission by blocking the Glutamate-gated Cl- channels. Fipronil was developed and formulated to kill _______ in ___________ on plants. It basically prevents the stimulation of the muscles, inhibit respiration and the animals die of hypoxia. The addition of the Methoprene allows us to kill the ____ and ______ instead of the adult alone.
- GABA (helps to differentiate diff sounds)
- fruit flies; California and Italy
- egg; larvae
Frontline – “Tritak” for Dogs and Cats – control for 30 days
List the ingredients for dogs.
List ingredients for cats. - Why are they different?
What does the product kill?
- Dogs = Fipronil, (S) – methoprene and cyphenothrin (pyrethrin)
- Cats = Fipronil, (S) – methoprene and Etofenprox
- Pyrethrins are contraindicated in cats.
- Kills fleas, ticks and contains an IGR (Insect Growth regulator)
What flea/tick product is contraindicated for rabbits and ferrets and why?
What product can you use?
- DO NOT use Frontline on rabbits and ferrets because fipronil will kill them.
- Use Advantage on rabbits and ferrets.
Advantage – Bayer Corporation Designed for dogs and cats distributed by wt. Like Frontline, apply between scapulas. This product kills _________. Effective for 25 days, recommended every 30 days. Ingredients: _________ – was the first commercialized member of a new class of insecticides, called _______ or ______. Prevents synaptic binding of acetylcholine. Animal unable to breathe – dies of hyoxia. Can be used in ferrets/rabbits at 10mg/kg.
- adult fleas only with no effect on ticks. Kills fleas by affecting the nervous system - paralyzing them.
- chloronicotinyls; neonicotinoids
Advantage Multi by _____
Dogs start at _____ For cats and kittens ____ of age and older as well as 5.1 to 9 lbs. Never use on any kitten less than ______. Note: safety has not been established in breeding, pregnant, or lactating cats. Not recommend for geriatric.
- imidacloprid (40mg) and moxidectin (4 mg)
- topical every 30 days
- Kills adult fleas, ovitrol product, kills and controls Otodectes cynotis (ear mites), kill Ancylostoma tubaeformae and Toxocara cati/Toxascaris leonina.
- 7 wks
- 9 weeks; 2 pounds
What is the name of the product that was approved in Europe for the treatment of Demodectic mange?
The Advocate same as Advantage Multi – once a week for 4 to 6 weeks until skin scrapings return negative.
Treatment of Demodicosis
Demodicosis caused by:
- Etiological agent: Demodex canis, D. cati, D. gatoi
- Demodicosis caused by: mange mite and suppressed immune system
- 2 Treatments: Advantage Multi 1 time p/wk for 4-6 weeks or Amitraz (Mitaban – Proprietary name).
What is the Treatment of Sarcoptic Mange?
- Advantage Multi – once every 2 weeks until skin scrapings return negative.
- Note: this usage is approved for Advocate in Europe
TriForce – another 30 day spot on for Canine
Lethal for cats – Why?
Do not use on puppies under ____ of age
List the what the product is effective against.
- Contains Pyrethrin (extract from chrysanthemums) is lethal to cats. Pyrethroid is a synthetic pyrethrin
- 12 weeks
- Fleas – kills and repels fleas up to 4 weeks; kills flea eggs and larvae for 9 weeks
- Ticks – kills and repeals ticks up to 4 weeks; kills and detaches ticks
- Mosquitoes – kills and repels mosquitoes.
TriForce for the feline
Do not use on feline under ____ of age
Do not use on feline under _____
Do not use more often than every 30 days
List the what the product is effective against.
- 12 weeks
- 2.2 pounds
- Kills: Fleas – adults, eggs and larvae; Ticks (Deer and Black-legged) – for Lyme disease
- Repels Mosquitoes – that transmit West Nile Virus from feeding on cats for up to 1 month.
Sentinel is a combination of ________ and an ____________. The later ingredient kills egg by contact – Fleas have to bite to kill them.
- Milbemycime oxime (a heartworm preventative sold as Interceptor)
- ovitrol - Lufenuron
What is the difference between the ingredients Luferuron and Methoprine with respect to flea control?
With Lufenuron the flea has to bite the dog with methoprine it doesn’t.
Flea Allergy Dermatitis - In cats this is often referred to as ____________.
Capstar – by _________
___% effectiveness against fleas on dogs within 4 hours and 6 hours in cats. Can be re-dosed everyday if desired.
Can be given to pregnant and nursing females.
Safe for puppies and kittens ____
Excellent for pets suffering from
- Novartis Animal Health
- adult fleas, used prior to 1 mo.
- 4 weeks & older and 2 # up
- Nitenpyram – adult fleas only!
- Maggots (American Screwworm)
Parastar Plus – New
- fipronil and cyphenothrin
K9 Advantix – by ___________
Prevention and treatment of:
Designed to apply every 30 days
Kills 98-100% of fleas within 12 hours plus the larval flea stages in the dog’s surroundings
Effective after bathing and swimming
- Bayer Corporation
- Imidacloprid and Permethrins (for ticks - kills cats)
- ticks, fleas, and mosquitoes.
What is a tick ingredients that is toxic to cats and why?
Pyrethrins, Permethrins, or Pyrethroids because cats lack the liver enzymes necessary to breakdown the metabolites and excrete them via the kidneys.
K-9 Advantix II by
Prevention & treats:
Kills fleas within 12 hrs of application
Prevents development of all stages of the fleas, including flea eggs, pupae and larvae for 1 month. Not to use in puppies under 7 wks
- Bayer Corporation
- Ingredients: Imidacloprid, Permethrin and Pyriproxyfen (kills any kind of flies)
- Application: Topical
- Prevention & treats: ticks, fleas, mosquitos including biting flies and lice.
Apply every 30 days. Can be used with ferrets/rabbits at 10mg/kg like Advantage.
- Ingredient: Selamectin (an Avermectin)
- Application: topical
- Actions: Kills adult fleas and prevents flea eggs from hatching; Also prevents or controls Dirofilaria immitis, Otodectes cynotis, Sarcoptes scabiei, Dermacentor variabilis (ticks), and Ancylostoma (hooks) and Toxocara (ascrids) in cats.
- Apply every 30 days. Can be used with ferrets/rabbits at 10mg/kg like Advantage.
Vectra 3D - by
Vectra (for cats) has no permethrin.
- Summit -Vet Pharm Corporation
- Active Ingredients: dinotefuran, pyriproxyfen, permethrin. Permethrin will kill the cats.
- Application: topical
- Actions: Kills fleas, ticks, and mosquitoes for one month.
ProMeris by ___________ (now off the market 2011)
- Fort Dodge
- Application: topical
- Ingredients: Metaflumizone (fleas) & Amitraz (ticks) Dogs – have both chemicals for fleas and ticks; Cats – have only metaflumizone for fleas only (8 wks and older)
Why was ProMeris discontinue in June 2011?
Based on an article published in the Journal of Vet Dermatology ProMeris could trigger an autoimmune/autozonal skin reaction known as pemphigus foliaceus in dogs. Most reaction of an inflammatory nature were at the site of application. Skin starts to peel off/exfoiliate around the mouth, ears, eyes.
Comfortis by __________ Dogs only!
Vomiting is a constant sign originally and so has to be given with food. For dogs and puppies 14 weeks of age and older, no CATS.
Comfortis is given once a month and starts killing fleas in _______ (100% kill within _____).
- Ely Lilly
- Active ingredient: Spinosad
- Application: chewable tablet.
- 30 minutes; 4 hours
What was the first oral flea product approved by the FDA in 1976?
Proban & Ectoral – organophosphates
What should consumers be aware of when using Comfortis as a flea control?
What are the Clinical signs of adverse reaction?
What is the Treatment?
- Adverse events can occur when using Comfortis with high extra-label doses of livestock formulations of ivermectin (¼ mL per 40lbs) prescribed for the treatment of demodectic mange.
- ataxia, salivation, lethargy, dilated pupils and isolated seizures.
- stop ivermectin, provide supportive therapy (fluids) and typically animals will recover in 24 to 72 hours.
Trifexis by __________
For use in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age and older and 5 lbs of body weight or greater
Starts killing fleas in ________. Use every 30 days. Can be given w/food or alone. Use with caution in breeding females. Puppies less than 14 wks may experience vomiting.
- Active ingredients: Spinosad & milbemycin oxime
- Application: chewable tablet
- Actions: Prevents Dirofilaria immitis; Kills fleas and prevents infections; Treats and controls Ancylostoma, Ascarids & Trichuris
- 30 mins on oral admin
Bravecto by _______ NEW 2014
Delivers up to ______ of flea and tick protection
Starts killing fleas within _______. Kills 3 tick (American, Blacklegged and Brown Dog
tick) species for ______ Lone Star for ______
- Merck Animal (Merial)
- Active ingredient: Fluralaner
- Application: chewable tablet
- 12 full wks
- 2 hrs
- 12 wks
- 8 wks
To be given once a month
- Frontline Vet Labs– Division of Merial Limited
- Active ingredient: afoxolaner
- Application: chewable tablet - 4 beef flavors
- Actions: Treats and controls fleas and ticks (Blacklegged, American and Lone Star)
Kiltix – from _______ No Longer Available
To be used in dogs only over _____ of age.
Dogs less than 33 pounds - Apply one tube (1.5 mL) of KILTIX. Over 33 pounds – apply a second tube
- Bayer No Longer Available
- Ingredient: Permethrin – 45% (this is the strongest pyrethrin) product available.
- 12 weeks
- kills fleas and ticks up to 4 weeks
- Ingredients: emodepside/praziquantel (for tapeworms)
- Application: Topical
- Indications: Treats and controls hookworm infections caused by Ancylostoma tubaeformae (adult, immature adults, and 4th stage larvae), roundworm infections caused by Toxocara cati (adults and 4th stage larvae), and tapeworm infections caused by Dipylidium caninum (adults) and Taenia taeniaeformis (adults) in cats.
1st flea collar called _____ by _____ out of Dallas. 1st ovitrol – flea/egg collar.
2013 Seresto - New flea collar by _____ that provides _______ of tick and flea prevention in an innovative collar form.
After day 2, 97.7 – 100% efficacy against:
- Ovitrol; Vet kem
- Bayer; 8 months
- Ingredients: imidacloprid and flumethrin in low concentration.
- Indications: Kill fleas within 24 hrs. and ticks within 48 hrs. after initial application. Re-infesting fleas are killed within 2 hrs. and re-infesting ticks are killed as quickly as 6 hrs.
- C. felis, Ixodes scapularis (East Coast version for intermediate host for Lyme disease) and Amblyomma americanum (nickname Lone Star Tick) was achieved for 8 months
Ivermectin Topically for Ears ______ (0.01% ivermectin) Otic suspension
Indications for reduced concentration of ivermectin:
- heartworm prevention, sarcoptic mange, demodectic mange and Otodectes cynotis – different concentrations.
Cockroaches – Order ________ & Family ________. The only concern is biological vectors & mechanical vector of human and animal born filth diseases. Spread filth
Beetles – order ________ - importance in that they are intermediate host for ________.
- Orthoptera; Blattidae
- Spirocerca lupi Life cycle is Egg - Coprophagic Beetle - Facultative Host - Host (dog) penetrate stomach wall - arterial system - esophagus.
Characteristics of Larval Stages:
1. _______ legs in the larvae stage
2. Then molt into a ______ and then molt to ______ both have ______ legs. Only way to tell the difference is the 2nd stage looks fairly clean and the 3rd stage has ridges.
3. Head, thorax and abdomen of ticks and mites are ______
4. Antennae and mandibles are not present
5. Mouth parts are covered by
- 3 pair of
- Nymphs; adults; 4 pair of
- fused together
- false head (capitulum)
Taxonomy of the Class Arachnida
2 Familes: ___________ (Hard Tick) shield or scutum covers the entire dorsal surface - The capitulum (head piece) projects anteriorly & ___________ (Soft Tick) no scutum and the capitulum is subterminal or ventral in adults.
- Class: Arachnida
- Order: Acarina
- Suborder: Metastigmata (all of the ticks)
- 2 Familes: Ixodidae (Hard Tick) & Argasidae (Soft Tick)
Describe the Tick Life Cycle
- 1. Egg
- 2. Six Legged Larvae (Called the “Seed Tick”)
- 3. Eight Legged Larvae (“Nymph”)
- 4. Eight Legged Larvae – Mature Form - Adult – Sexually Mature
Ixodid Ticks Characteristics includes a __________ that covers the entire dorsal surface and a __________ that projects anteriorly
What is the life cycle of the Ixodid Tick?
- shield or scutum; capitulum (head piece)
- Ixodid Tick Molts Twice - 1. Larvae “Seed Tick” to Nymph & 2. Nymph to Adult
__________ – tick completes both molts common to the Ixodid tick without leaving its host.
List 1 example
- One Host Tick
- Boophilus annulatus “Texas Fever” This tick can spend from larvae to nymph and nymph to adult without leaving it’s host.
Describe the life cycle of Two Host Tick & Three Host Tick.
What is the mode of transmission for Two and Three Host ticks?
- Two Host Tick – Seed Tick larvae will molt to the Nymph, Nymph will drop off 1st host, molt to Adult, and then the Adult will locate to 2nd host.
- Three Host Tick – Larvae drops to molt to Nymph, Nymph find a 2nd host, Nymph drops off 2nd host to molt to Adult, Adult then locates on the 3rd host.
- Interstadially (AKA Transtadially)
Describe Texas Fever including discovered by, etiology, etiological agent, actions of etiology, future research
In 1893 Kilbourne D.V.M & Smith MD proved the transmission of piroplasmosis (babesiosis) commonly referred to as Texas Cattle Fever was by means of the vector/intermediate host Boophilus annulatus (1 host tick). Etiology was determined to be the protozoan parasite now recognized as Babesia bigemina or Babesia bovis which lyse the RBC . The term 1 host tick meant that the tick could harbor the protozoan and pass it along to it's offspring as well as the next host. This was the 1st time that an arthropod was linked to transmission of an infectious disease and resulted in Smith's future work at Baylor which linked the mosquito as the vector for the viral disease Yellow Fever.
Two and Three Host Ticks - Disease is transmitted ___________ instead of ___________, that is infection is acquired by a larval tick and carried through the molt to the nymphal stage and then conveyed to the host on which the nymph feeds, or infection acquired by a nymph is carried through the molt and conveyed to the host on which the adult tick feeds.
Equine Babesiosis (AKA _________)
Etiology: ________– horses, mules, and donkeys
___________ – horses, mules, donkeys and zebras – Group 4
- Equine Piroplasmosis
- Babesia caballi – horses, mules, and donkeys
- Babesia equi – horses, mules, donkeys and zebras – Group 4
- Intermediate Host: Boophilus annulatus
Which animals may be more susseptible to Canine piroplasmosis?
Animals that have been splenectomized because they have a reduced ability to produce lymphocytes and thus have reduced antibodies to combat the trophozoites in the RBCs.
- Etiology: Rickettsia
- Etiological agent: Cowdria ruminatium
- Disease Name: “Heartwater”
- Characteristic Lesion: Hydropericardium produces fluid in the pericardial space of the heart. Causes cardiac tamponade.
- Intermediate Host: Amblyomma
What IDEXX test is used for screening dogs for 3 vector borne infectious diseases like heartworm, Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme Disease) and Ehrlichia canis?
What is the new IDEXX test the for Anaplasma species?
- Snap #DX test
- Snap #4DX test
Family Ixodidae – Hard Tick
List 7 species including nicknames
- Ixodes scapularis (dammini) - Lyme Disease
- Amblyomma americanum - Lone Star Tick
- Amblyomma maculatum - Gulf Coast Tick
- Dermacentor variabilis - Am Dog Tick/Wood Tick
- Rhipicephalus sanguineus - Brown Dog Tick
- Boophilus annulatus - Texas Cattle Fever Tick
- Haemaphysalis leporispalustris - “Continental Rabbit Tick”
Family Argasidae – “Soft Tick”
List 4 species
- Argas persicus - “Fowl Tick”
- Otobius megnini - “Spinous Ear Tick”
List 3 Suborders of Mites
What is a Stigma?
- It is a respiratory pore in the middle of the body.
Suborder Mesostigmata Members
______________ – harmless in ear of cattle
______________ – yellow nodules of monkeys lungs of monkeys
______________ – nasal and paranasal sinuses of dogs. Epistaxis and sneezing is profound.
______________ – adult mite can survive for extended periods of time in bird nest and chicken houses. Most common and important of all that causes the most zoonotic problems in man.
______________ species – rodents, snakes, and birds.
- Family Railletidae
- Raillietia auris – harmless in ear of cattle
- Pneumonyssus simicola – yellow nodules of monkeys lungs of monkeys
- Pneumonyssus caninum – nasal and paranasal sinuses of dogs. Epistaxis and sneezing is profound.
- Dermanyssus gallinae – adult mite can survive for extended periods of time in bird nest and chicken houses. Can migrate down to house and feed on man as they are exceptional blood suckers – most common and important of all that causes the most zoonotic problems in man.
- Ornithonyssus species – rodents, snakes, and birds.
Suborder ________ has no traditional respiratory pore, this includes mange mites, clasping hair mites, internal parasites found in chickens and the grain mites. Note: Mange mites of the Families ________ and ________ collectively cause skin associated problems known as Scabies, with pruritus, alopecia, epidermal hyperplasia, and epidermal hyperpigmentation.
Mange mites are identified in what 2 ways?
- 1. Host and distribution of the lesions
- 2. Characteristic jointed or unjointed legs
- We use 1 because we don’t have dissection scopes
Family ___________ – scabies mites
Definitive Host Sarcoptes:
Definitive Host of Notoedres:
- Family: Sarcoptidae
- Definitive Host Sarcoptes: dog (swine, horse, cattle, and man) Dog is the definitive host can occur in others
- Lesions: margin of ears
- Definitive Host of Notoedres: cat (rats, rabbits, and man)
- Lesions: margins of ears, head, on to paws.
Definitive host for Psoroptes:
Definitive host for Chorioptes:
Definitive host for Otodectes:
- Definitive host for Psoroptes: sheep, cattle, and horses
- Lesions: Hair loss Starts at withers and becomes generalized
- Definitive host for Chorioptes: horse (cattle, sheep and goats)
- Lesions: Hair loss Starts at pasterns, later moves up the leg
- Definitive host for Otodectes: dogs, cats, and pocket pets.
- Lesions: Ear canal and face
What is the most common mange mite of omnivores and carnivores?
Where do they live?
What is the development time and treatment?
- Otodectes cynotis
- outer ear canal (surface skin)
- about 3 weeks. Treated with 0.01 ivermectin (Acarexx) once a week for 3 weeks to insure all development stages from hatching eggs (typically hatch in 21 days) have been illuminated.
List 5 things you can find in the ear canal
- Trombicula larvae
- Otobius megnini
Demodicosis - Suborder Prostigmata
Family: _________ – live in the skin and in glandular ducts.
______________ – canine
- Demodex canis
Differentiate between Demodex and Sarcoptes
1. Location of early lesions:
2. Cause of the disease:
3. Age predilection:
4. Treatment protocol:
5. Contagious or not:
6. Drug contraindication and indications:
7. Surgical recommendations:
8. Public health indications:
- 1. Location of early lesions: Demodex - face, Sarcoptes – margins of the ears
- 2. Cause of the disease: Demodex – mite and immune system, Sarcoptes - just the mite
- 3. Age predilection: Demodex - pediatric/geriatric because it is suppressed immune system, Sarcoptes – any age because it just involves the mite
- 4. Treatment protocol: Demodex - Amitraz, Sarcoptes – ivermectin or any dip
- 5. Contagious or not: Demodex - not, Sarcoptes - yes
- 6. Drug contraindication and indications: Demodex – contraindication no corticosteroids, Sarcoptes – indication is corticosteroids to stop itching
- 7. Surgical recommendations: Demodex – yes castration because it is hereditary, Sarcoptes – none not hereditary
- 8. Public health indications: Demodex – not contagious, Sarcoptes – yes contagious
____% with generalized demodicosis under 1 yr will recover spontaneously w/o intervention.
Cause of Demodex canis and D. cati:
- "Red Mange” due to the concurrent staphylococcus bacteria seen with demodex.
- Mite and supressed Immune System
Adult onset canine demodicosis was reported to be associated with what 4 situations?
- 32% - corticosteroid administration - can use for other sacoptic mange etc. just not demodex.
- 20% - hypothyroidism
- 12% cytotoxic drugs (cancer treatment drugs)
- 8% - hyperadrenocortism (Cushing’s Syndrome)
List 5 treatments for demodicosis
- 1. Amitraz (Mitaban) by Pfizer – a diamide compound - Dip every 2 weeks for 5 treatments or at least twice after multiple skin scrapings are negative. 85% success rate
- 2. Milbemycin oxime (Interceptor) by Novartis - twice a day every 30 days for 3 months. (6 doses for 3 mo.) 96% remission in the 3 months, 29% relapsed within 1 yr
- 3. Ivermectin (Ivomec 1%) by Merial
- 4. Lufenuron (Program) by Novartis
- 5. Advantage Multi (Moxidectin & Imidacloprid) by Bayer - Oral 1 cc /60# daily until 2 negative scrapings are noted OR Topical – 1 time a week for 4 weeks
What are 7 possible Causes of Demodicosis Treatments?
- 1. Premature suspension of treatment
- 2. Failure to treat skin bacterial infections
- 3. Stress with environment and family
- 4. Heat cycle
- 5. Iatrogenically induced glucocorticoids
- 6. Underlying concurrent diseases (hyperthyroidism, hypercorticism)
- 7. Idiopathic problems with the patient
In the early 70s, what was the 1st and only treatment for demodicosis?
Scott’s Solution (created by Dr. Danny Scott) contained 5 parts propylene glycol (oil based antibiotic) with 1 part ectoral (organophosphate) applied to 1/3 of the dog’s body everyday for as long as it took for remission to become complete.
____________ – pus nodules on the head
____________ – lesions on the eyelids in sheep
____________ – lesions all over the body goats
____________ – around eyes and snout
____________ – hair loss starts on the head
____________ – lesions on the head and ear canal
- Demodex bovis
- Demodex ovis
- Demodex caprae
- Demodex phyllodides
- Demodex equi
- Demodex cati/gatoi
____________ – dogs “_______” (nickname)
____________ – cats
____________ – domestic rabbits
- Family Nickname: “Big Claw”
- Cheyletiella yasguri “Walking Dandruff” or "mealy dandruff"
- Cheyletiella blakei
- Cheyletiella parasitivorax
____________ the “sheep itch mite”. Is this a reportable disease?
____________ the “dog itch mite”
____________ the “cat itch mite”
- Psorobis ovis - will result in pruritis and alopecia effecting the wool industry and entire countries economy so it is reportable.
- Sarcoptes scabei
- Notoedres cati
____________ are known as “chiggers” and are the pathogenic members of this developmental stages. The nymphs and the adults are all free living are not known to be effectively involved with man.
Describe Chiggers - apperance & where they are found.
- Trombiculid larvae
- tiny bright red - six legged larvae found in the ear canal of mammals, under wings of birds and around the vent openings of birds. They cause severe itching and dermatitis