Parasitology Lec part IV; Vet Tech

____________ individuals who study the effects of arthropods on humans throughout the world.
____________ individuals who study the effects of arthropods on domestic animals and human diseases.

What is the category of species that are segmented creatures with jointed legs that makes up 3/4 of the species that inhabit the planet?

List 6 Harmful Effects that are caused by Arthropods

Describe Tick Paralysis
Tick paralysis is generally caused by the _______________(Common name).

Hypersensitivity response to the toxin in a bee sting that causes the swelling on a dog's butt or face is called ________________.

Name three species that can cause worry to an animal to the point it results in weight loss due to not eating and causes the rancher economic distress.

What is the name that is applicable to any species for the 1st stage larvae?

______________ – no multiplication or molting of the etiological agent in the vector. 
______________ – molting in the intermediate host.

What external parasite is the most common vector/arthropod for disease throughout the world? What is the most common in the U.S.?

____________ any infection caused by fly larvae where the diagnosis can be made based on the location. Give 2 examples.

What external parasite (include nickname) lays eggs that can hatch over night and larvae can be inside the host in 24 hours?

List 5 Tick Borne Animal Plagues

Bovine Piroplasmosis - Another name for Piroplasmosis is ______.
Etiology:
Etiological agent: 
Vector:
Means of transmission:

Canine Piroplasmosis
Etiology:
Etiological agents: ___________ US ___________ Australia & Europe
Vector:

What are the 2 Primary Vectors for all 3 host ticks that cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, Q-Fever and Ehrlichiosis.

What is the Etiological agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
What is the mode of transmission?

Q Fever
Common Name: 
Etiology:
Etiological agent: 
4 Intermediate Hosts: 
1st brought to this country by:

Ehrlichiosis
What blood cells does it attack? 
Common Disease Name:
Etiology:
4 Etiological agents: 
2 primary signs:
1st symptom generally note is _______.

What are 2 tick-borne rickettsial parasites that attack the RBC and WBC of cats? 
Which etiology appears to occur in the southeastern United States?

Ehrlichia canis was first recognized in _______, and first reported in the U.S. in ____. The disease gained prominence because of the devastating losses of ____________ dogs stationed in Vietnam.

What is the vector associated with Ehrlichia canis infection?

List 3 Clinical Hematologic Abnormalities seen in Ehrlichiosis

What is the name of the condition that causes an ovine encephalomyelitis?
Primary host:   
Vector:  
Came from:
Etiology:

Western Equine Encephalitis spread by a ___ – (Eastern is transmitted by the __________). Western is tough on people, Eastern is tough on horses. The vector for Western is _____________.

Tularemia
Etiology: 
Etiological agent:
Primarily host: 
Vector: 
Primarily used by:

Bartonella species are fastidious _______ bacteria that are highly adapted to a mammals red blood cell becoming a lifelong intraerythrocytic bacteremia.

List two gram negative bacteria species - include the year they were discovered and which is the most frequent species that causes disease in dogs.   
What is the vector(s)?

What etiology is referred to as  “Cat Scratch Disease”?

Is Bartonella zoonotic?
What are the modes of transmission for the cat and dog?

Diagnosis and Treatment of Bartonella 
Clinical signs/hematologic abnormalities: 
Treatment: 
Drugs of choice:

___________ – known as _________ is a vector borne disease affecting people and animals; it is most commonly diagnosed in N. America, Europe, and Asia.

Borrelia are small ________ of a Genus that contains more than 20 species. The Lyme Borrelia have been divided into at least four genomic species groups.

What is the most common etiology in North America for Lyme Disease? What is the etiological agent?

_____ – the 1st outbreak of Lyme disease in Old Lyme, Connecticut.
_____ – the spirochete (bacteria) was discovered in the tick Ixodes scapularis (formerly I. dammini). 
_____ – 1st canine disease of Lyme arthritis reported, followed by cardiac and renal cases.
_____ – Lyme disease reported in 45 of the lower 48 states and is endemic on the east and west coast as well as the upper midwest.
_____ – Lyme disease is reported in 48 adjourning states.

Borrelia burgdorferi
__________ complex contains two incriminating members as intermediate host for the bacteria
__________ is the intermediate host on the East coast.
__________ is the intermediate host on the West coast.

What are 3 Symptoms & 1 Clinical sign of Lyme Disease?
What is the number of humans in the U.S. annually who have Lyme disease?
What is the treatment for Lyme Disease?

What are 3 Mosquito Borne Animal Plagues?

Condition that means “Bad Air”: 
Primary intermediate host: 
Etiological agent:
Etiology:

What is the life cycle of malaria?

Name a Mosquito Borne Plague that the uses the horse as a dead in host.
What is another mosquito borne plague that the horse can transmit the disease to another horse?

Name 3 Flea Borne Animal Plagues

All true flies discussed are of the order __________. All adult flies, except _____________ (family) have a pair of well developed wings located midway on the body at the mesothoracic area. The anterior pair on the metathoracic area are nothing more than halters (like feelers on the end).

What are 2 forms of flies that exist?

Flies
Class  
Order  
Sub-Order

Orthorrhapha Suborder is broken down into 3 diff groups. List in the order of least to most developed. Include Group Name/Family Name and what species are included.

What 8 Families are included in the Group – Cyclorrhapha – “Most Important”

Group __________ – the most primitive of the sub-order Orthorrhapha, antennae are long, many segmented, and hairy. Made up of the gnats and the primary pathogen, the mosquito. This Group also includes the sandfly responsible for Leishmania

Group __________ – somewhat more advanced than the primitive Nematocera, they are stout and heavy built. Noteworthy members of the Family _______ are comprised of horseflies and deerflies, neither of which bear heavily on the pathology of our domestic patients.

Group __________ is the primary pathological transport artist of the Orthorrhaphas. Bearing an Arista on the distal segment of the antennae, this group has branched into two directions

Musca domestica is known as the common ____________. This external parasite spreads ____________. 

What is the external parasite whose mouth parts project from the head at a right angle when they are at rest in the environment? 

Glossina, the __________, is the vector of ___________ in domestic animals and humans in Africa. Species of this fly reach up to 14 mm in length. Like stable flies, the mouthparts of the fly project forward from the head, but the wings of tsetse flies lie across the back like scissors.

List the common names for the following:
Musca domestica 
Musca autumnalis
Stomoxys calcitrans
Haematobia irritans 
Glossina

Thelazia Common ______ parasite (classification)
Mechanical vector:
____________ – cattle and horses
____________  – cattle and horses
____________  – cattle
____________  – dogs, sheep and wild mammals.

Based on a survey conducted, what is the percentage of horses in Kentucky that were found to be infected with T. lacrymalis?

Life cycle of Family Culicidae?
1. Egg is laid on ______ . Hatch in a ______ . These mosquitos have ____________.
2. Larvae molts ______  in less than ______  ending in ______. 
3. ______ develops into ______.

What are the 3 stages of Mosquitoes?

List 4 diseases that mosquitoes are considered the biological vectors

What is the Life cycle of the Musca domestica?

Stomoxys calcitrans and Musca domestica are considered mechanical vectors for what condition?

Life Cycle of Musca autumnalis
Fly crawls on the ______  and feeds on ______ .
1. Eggs are deposited in ______.
2. Eggs hatch and larvae emerge.
3. The larvae molt to ______.
4. ______  fly away and continue life cycle

M. autumnalis serve as a mechanical vectors for ____________ in cattle and especially horses.

Life Cycle of Stomoxys calcitrans (stable flies)
1. Flies feed primarily on ______.
2. They lay eggs in the ______ that hatch and molt to the imago (adult form)

Stomoxys calcitrans serves as a biological vector for ________________ like Musca domestica.

Life Cycle of Haematobia irritans?
1. Flies live on ______ and ______  leaving their host only to lay eggs in the ______.
2. Larvae hatch ______ and feed on ______.
3. Pupation occurs in ______.
4. Imago (Adult ) develops in about ______.

What are 3 treatments used for Horn flies?

What is the Microfilariae etiological agent that is considered the counter part of Onchocerca cervicalis?
Vector:
Both commonly called (Nickname):

What external parasite is famous to the World Health Organization (WHO) for the transmission in both animals and man mainly in Africa? (Genus only)
Common name: 
Etiological agent: 
Causes a condition known as 
Nickname:

What are the 2 most common nicknames used for diseases of animals in the world?

What is the Life Cycle of the Families Sarcophagidae (Flesh flies) and Calliphoridae (Blow flies)?

The most common external parasite of the Sarcophagidae family? 
Where are they Common?

What is the Etiological agent and nickname of the external parasite that came to Boston via Singapore in plane infecting a dog in Norwell, Massachusetts on November 1, 2007?

List 6 things that could attact Cochliomyia hominivorax

A nationwide control program releasing billions of sexual sterilized adult screwworms flies has almost succeeded in elimination of this _________ from the US. The adult flies are sterilized by Gamma radiation, which induces dominant lethal mutation in the sperm. Because female breeds once and the population is small the addition of sterile males reduces the population especially in the SW

What is the name of the family that has the most advanced parasitic larvae?  
This Family contains what external parasites? 
What is the Nickname for the larvae? 
What species of animal does it affect?

What is the Life Cycle of Hypodermatidae (Hypoderma lineatum)?

What is the Life Cycle of Hypodermatidae (Hypoderma bovis)

What are the Similarities and Differences between the life cycle of Hypoderma lineatum and Hypoderma bovis?

Damage Due to Hypodermatidae
Cow hide is damaged due to the holes punched by the grubs lessening the value of the cow at auction. This development is referred to as “__________”. What can happen if the grubs are ruptured by accident? What is the Treatment for Hypodermatidae?

Life Cycle of the Family Oestridae – Oestrus ovis?
1. 1st stage larvae or egg is deposited in __________. 
2. The larvae crawls into the __________.
3. After __________ it molts in the __________ & the bots crawl out and drop to the ground to pupate
4. Adults emerge in __________, mate, lay eggs, die
5. If weather is bad __________.

Oestrus ovis “____________”
Where does it lay its eggs?

List the Family/Genus and species that is considered is one of the most common and disturbing of the Cyclorrhaphas that we see in veterinary medicine. List a 2nd genus and species that looks that looks the same

What is the Life Cycle of the Family Cuterebra (Cuterebra palpebrae)
1. Eggs are laid on _____________.
2. Animal runs by picking up egg on the fur it hatches and molts usually see these __________.
3. Larvae crawls to __________ and __________
4. Larvae will stay in self-limiting area for __________
5. Larvae will emerge, metamorphosis into __________ occurs and it flys away 
6. Males and females breed laying eggs along runs - Mostly during the __________.

_______ are external parasites that are very host specific and spend their entire lifes on in the hairs or feathers of their host (off the host they die), with transmission almost entirely by means of host contacts. 
Exception is ___________ which clings to the clothing instead of the body hairs during feeding. When people are not able to bath or change clothes, ___________ can be transmitted - Lice are the intermediate host.

What are the 2 Orders of lice?

The Life Cycle of lice is described as having what type of Metamorphosis?

The most common (chewing or biting) lice:
Order -
____________ – dogs, coyotes, & wolves (most common of dog)
____________  – dogs and coyotes
____________  – cats, bobcats, large cats
____________  – horse (can include bovis, ovis and caprae)

The most common (sucking) lice:
Order: 
_____________ – dogs, foxes, coyotes, rabbits, ferrets, wolves, & cats.

___________ is lice infection

List four things that produce pathogenic pruritus (itching).

Flea bite allergies are the result of sensitizing the dog or cat to flea bites by periodic repeats. Bites infrequent as _____ could produce constant pruritus in a fleabite allergy - hypersensitization. The bite secrete anticoagulant that causes swelling. Flea sensitivity generally occurs when the animals is __________ and it is generally due to exposure to the flea saliva and that is a T-cell response.

Fleas are vectors for what 5 parasites?

Fleas show little host specificity as __________ is the most universally common flea parasite.
__________ makes up only 5% of the ones that we see.

Copulation in fleas occurs after a blood meal. Egg to egg can be as little as 16 days under ideal temperature _______ and ___% humidity.

Flea larvae feed on ____ and ____ which contains digestive blood giving the developmental larvae a reddish coloration. ______ species of fleas, only two or three will affect our domestic animals. List 2 effecting mammals and 1 for humans.

What is the name of lice in man? 
What is the name of fleas in man?

Mating occurs after the fleas have fed. Egg production begins within _________ after the females have taken their first meal almost immediately after acquiring a host. (Nearly all fleas feed within one hour on new host)
Blood meals are for females are about ____ and for males are about ____ .

In clinical trials, ____% of fleas were engorged after five minutes and ____% were engorged after one hour. The study also showed that ____% of the cats treated with imidacloprid or fipronil topically had fleas that were engorged with blood one hour after infestation.

What is the Life Cycle of Ctenocephalides?

What are 3 conditions that mean death to flea eggs & larvae? 

List the Percentage of each stage of the flea off the host  
Eggs: __%
Larvae: __%
Pupae: __%
Adults: __%

1980 – Ovitrol Plus – ______ (apply)  with the chemical _____, the first Insect Growth Regulator (IGR)
1995 – Program – _________ with the IGR called _________(flea has to bite animal) Made by _________. 
1996 – Frontline ______ with _______ by _______ and Advantage ______ with _________ by ________ introduced as spot on products. 
1999 – Revolution _____ with __________ by ______– first internal and external functional anti-parasitic spot on. Flea and heartworm, ascrids, ancylostoma, sacroptic mange, ovitrol prol interrupt the flea life cylce

2003 – Capstar (__________) by _______ – single day treatment. This was strictly for fleas and would kill all the fleas that were on the dog & cat in one day in a matter of hours. Used at Tomball
2007 – ProMeris ________ (apply) with _____________ – by _________ This product fell on hard times because it smelled bad.
2007 – Advantage Multi (_______) by ____ mimics Revolution in benefits (ascarids, ancylostoma, ovitrol product etc.– and approved for Demodectic mange in Europe.
2008 – Comfortis ___________ with ______ by _______ –  lasts for 30 days
2011 – Trifexis _______ with ________ by _________
2013 – Seressto _______ with _______  by _______ 
2014 - Bravecto _______  with _______ by _______ 

Frontline - "_________" __________ by _______
Frontline Plus – _________ IGR ingredient added to the _______ which makes it an ovitrol. Ovitrols do one of 2 things – they will not allow the egg to hatch or they kill the larvae inside the egg so when the larvae hatches it is dead.

“Frontline Plus”
Fipronil inhibits the ______ transmission by blocking the Glutamate-gated Cl- channels. Fipronil was developed and formulated to kill _______ in ___________ on plants. It basically prevents the stimulation of the muscles, inhibit respiration and the animals die of hypoxia. The addition of the Methoprene allows us to kill the ____ and ______ instead of the adult alone.

Frontline – “Tritak” for Dogs and Cats – control for 30 days
List the ingredients for dogs.
List ingredients for cats. - Why are they different?
What does the product kill?

What flea/tick product is contraindicated for rabbits and ferrets and why?
What product can you use?  

Advantage – Bayer Corporation Designed for dogs and cats distributed by wt. Like Frontline, apply between scapulas. This product kills _________. Effective for 25 days, recommended every 30 days. Ingredients: _________ – was the first commercialized member of a new class of insecticides, called _______ or ______. Prevents synaptic binding of acetylcholine. Animal unable to breathe – dies of hyoxia. Can be used in ferrets/rabbits at 10mg/kg.

Advantage Multi by _____
Ingredients: 
Application: 
Action: 
Dogs start at _____ For cats and kittens ____ of age and older as well as 5.1 to 9 lbs. Never use on any kitten less than ______. Note: safety has not been established in breeding, pregnant, or lactating cats. Not recommend for geriatric.

What is the name of the product that was approved in Europe for the treatment of Demodectic mange?

Treatment of Demodicosis
Etiological agent: 
Demodicosis caused by: 
2 Treatments: 

What is the Treatment of Sarcoptic Mange?

TriForce – another 30 day spot on for Canine
Lethal for cats – Why?
Do not use on puppies under ____ of age
List the what the product is effective against.

TriForce for the feline
Do not use on feline under ____ of age
Do not use on feline under _____
Do not use more often than every 30 days
List the what the product is effective against.

Sentinel is a combination of ________ and an ____________. The later ingredient kills egg by contact – Fleas have to bite to kill them.

What is the difference between the ingredients Luferuron and Methoprine with respect to flea control?

Flea Allergy Dermatitis - In cats this is often referred to as ____________. 

Capstar – by _________
Kills 
___% effectiveness against fleas on dogs within 4 hours and 6 hours in cats. Can be re-dosed everyday if desired.
Can be given to pregnant and nursing females.
Safe for puppies and kittens ____
Active ingredient:
Excellent for pets suffering from

Parastar Plus – New
Manufactured by:
Active ingredients:

K9 Advantix – by ___________
Ingredients:
Application: 
Prevention and treatment of: 
Designed to apply every 30 days
Kills 98-100% of fleas within 12 hours plus the larval flea stages in the dog’s surroundings
Effective after bathing and swimming

What is a tick ingredients that is toxic to cats and why?

K-9 Advantix II by 
Ingredients:
Application: 
Prevention & treats: 
Kills fleas within 12 hrs of application
Prevents development of all stages of the fleas, including flea eggs, pupae and larvae for 1 month. Not to use in puppies under 7 wks

Revolution by 
Ingredient: 
Application: 
8 Actions: 
Apply every 30 days. Can be used with ferrets/rabbits at 10mg/kg like Advantage.

Vectra 3D - by 
Active Ingredients: 
Application: 
Actions: 
Vectra (for cats) has no permethrin.

ProMeris by ___________ (now off the market 2011)
Application: 
Ingredients:

Why was ProMeris discontinue in June 2011? 

Comfortis by __________ Dogs only! 
Active ingredient: 
Application: 
Vomiting is a constant sign originally and so has to be given with food. For dogs and puppies 14 weeks of age and older, no CATS.
Comfortis is given once a month and starts killing fleas in _______ (100% kill within _____).

What was the first oral flea product approved by the FDA in 1976?

What should consumers be aware of when using Comfortis as a flea control? 
What are the Clinical signs of adverse reaction? 
What is the Treatment?

Trifexis by __________
Active ingredients: 
Application: 
Actions: 
For use in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age and older and 5 lbs of body weight or greater
Starts killing fleas in ________. Use every 30 days. Can be given w/food or alone. Use with caution in breeding females. Puppies less than 14 wks may experience vomiting.

Bravecto by _______ NEW 2014
Active ingredient: 
Application: 
Delivers up to ______ of flea and tick protection
Starts killing fleas within _______. Kills 3 tick (American, Blacklegged and Brown Dog
tick) species for ______ Lone Star for ______

NexGard by 
Active ingredient: 
Application: 
Actions: 
To be given once a month

Kiltix – from _______ No Longer Available 
Ingredient:  
To be used in dogs only over _____ of age.
Application: 
Actions: 
Dogs less than 33 pounds - Apply one tube (1.5 mL) of KILTIX. Over 33 pounds – apply a second tube

Profender By 
Ingredients: 
Application: 
Indications:

1st flea collar called _____ by _____ out of Dallas. 1st ovitrol – flea/egg collar.
2013 Seresto - New flea collar by _____ that provides _______ of tick and flea prevention in an innovative collar form.
Ingredients: 
Indications:
After day 2, 97.7 – 100% efficacy against:

Ivermectin Topically for Ears ______ (0.01% ivermectin) Otic suspension
Indications for reduced concentration of ivermectin:

Cockroaches – Order ________ & Family ________. The only concern is biological vectors & mechanical vector of human and animal born filth diseases. Spread filth
Beetles – order ________ - importance in that they are intermediate host for ________. 

Characteristics of Larval Stages:
1. _______ legs in the larvae stage
2. Then molt into a ______  and then molt to ______  both have ______ legs. Only way to tell the difference is the 2nd stage looks fairly clean and the 3rd stage has ridges.
3. Head, thorax and abdomen of ticks and mites are ______ 
4. Antennae and mandibles are not present
5. Mouth parts are covered by

Taxonomy of the Class Arachnida
Class: 
Order: 
Suborder: 
2 Familes: ___________ (Hard Tick) shield or scutum covers the entire dorsal surface - The capitulum (head piece) projects anteriorly & ___________  (Soft Tick) no scutum and the capitulum is subterminal or ventral in adults.

Describe the Tick Life Cycle

Ixodid Ticks Characteristics includes a __________ that covers the entire dorsal surface and a __________  that projects anteriorly
What is the life cycle of the Ixodid Tick?

__________ – tick completes both molts common to the Ixodid tick without leaving its host.
List 1 example

Describe the life cycle of Two Host Tick & Three Host Tick. 
What is the mode of transmission for Two and Three Host ticks?

Describe Texas Fever including discovered by, etiology, etiological agent, actions of etiology, future research

Two and Three Host Ticks - Disease is transmitted ___________ instead of ___________, that is infection is acquired by a larval tick and carried through the molt to the nymphal stage and then conveyed to the host on which the nymph feeds, or infection acquired by a nymph is carried through the molt and conveyed to the host on which the adult tick feeds.

Equine Babesiosis (AKA _________)
Etiology: ________– horses, mules, and donkeys
___________ – horses, mules, donkeys and zebras – Group 4
Intermediate Host:

Which animals may be more susseptible to Canine piroplasmosis? 

Cowdria
Etiology:
Etiological agent: 
Disease Name: 
Characteristic Lesion: 
Intermediate Host:

What IDEXX test is used for screening dogs for 3 vector borne infectious diseases like heartworm, Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme Disease) and Ehrlichia canis? 
What is the new IDEXX test the for Anaplasma species?

Family Ixodidae – Hard Tick
List 7 species including nicknames

Family Argasidae – “Soft Tick”
List 4 species

List 3 Suborders of Mites
What is a Stigma?

Suborder Mesostigmata Members
Family 
______________ – harmless in ear of cattle
______________  – yellow nodules of monkeys lungs of monkeys
______________  – nasal and paranasal sinuses of dogs. Epistaxis and sneezing is profound.
______________  – adult mite can survive for extended periods of time in bird nest and chicken houses. Most common and important of all that causes the most zoonotic problems in man.
______________  species – rodents, snakes, and birds.

Suborder ________  has no traditional respiratory pore, this includes mange mites, clasping hair mites, internal parasites found in chickens and the grain mites. Note: Mange mites of the Families ________ and ________ collectively cause skin associated problems known as Scabies, with pruritus, alopecia, epidermal hyperplasia, and epidermal hyperpigmentation.

Mange mites are identified in what 2 ways? 

Family ___________ – scabies mites
Definitive Host Sarcoptes: 
Lesions: 
Definitive Host of Notoedres: 
Lesions:

Family Psoroptidae
Definitive host for Psoroptes: 
Lesions: 
Definitive host for Chorioptes: 
Lesions: 
Definitive host for Otodectes: 
Lesions:

What is the most common mange mite of omnivores and carnivores?  
Where do they live?
What is the development time and treatment?

List 5 things you can find in the ear canal

Demodicosis - Suborder Prostigmata
Superfamily: 
Family: _________ – live in the skin and in glandular ducts.
______________  – canine

Differentiate between Demodex and Sarcoptes 
1. Location of early lesions: 
2. Cause of the disease: 
3. Age predilection: 
4. Treatment protocol: 
5. Contagious or not: 
6. Drug contraindication and indications: 
7. Surgical recommendations: 
8. Public health indications:

____% with generalized demodicosis under 1 yr will recover spontaneously w/o intervention.
Nickname:
Cause of Demodex canis and D. cati:

Adult onset canine demodicosis was reported to be associated with what 4 situations?

List 5 treatments for demodicosis

What are 7 possible Causes of Demodicosis Treatments?

In the early 70s, what was the 1st and only treatment  for demodicosis?

Demodicosis
____________ – pus nodules on the head
____________  – lesions on the eyelids in sheep
____________  – lesions all over the body goats
____________  – around eyes and snout
____________  – hair loss starts on the head
____________  – lesions on the head and ear canal

Family Cheyletiellidae
Family Nickname: 
____________  – dogs “_______” (nickname)
____________  – cats
____________  – domestic rabbits

Family Psoroptidae
____________ the “sheep itch mite”. Is this a reportable disease?
____________ the “dog itch mite” 
____________ the “cat itch mite”

Family Trombiculidae
____________ are known as “chiggers” and are the pathogenic members of this developmental stages. The nymphs and the adults are all free living are not known to be effectively involved with man. 
Describe Chiggers - apperance & where they are found.