Trans Check

Card Set Information

Trans Check
2014-07-20 16:33:03

Show Answers:

  1. 1. What is the nose gear extension?
    Aprox 3.5 inches
  2. 2. The sight gage for the hydraulic quantity totally filled indicates what?
    1.2 gal hyd fluid. Fill line indicates .8 gallons
  3. 3. What is the pressure in the fire bottles?
    600 psi/70F. If temp/press changes on the side of the bottle indicates how much it should be.
  4. 4. If the green oxygen disc is missing what does this mean?
    Oxygen system must be re-serviced .
  5. 5. How many sniffle valves are there on the T-1?
    5: two on each wing and one in the gravity-refueling door.
  6. 6. During the battery feed test the standby attitude indicator must be uncaged?
  7. 7. How long is the 781 Preflight good for?
    72 hrs unless aircraft was flown
  8. 9. What is the chine on the nose wheel used for?
    Direct flow of water and slush away from engines.
  9. 10. What is the nose tire cord limit?
    No cords
  10. 11. What is the main strut extension limit?
    1.1 in minimum
  11. 12. What is the main tire cord limit?
    2 cords max (never fly the aircraft with a red cord visible)
  12. 13. What is the tire pressure limit?
    Mains 125 +- 5 and nose 120+- 5 psi
  13. 14. How long is a tire pressure check good for?
    6 hrs
  14. 15. Can a pilot sign a red X?
  15. 16. What is an Exceptional Release?
    Aircraft forms have been reviewed and aircraft is safe for flight.
  16. 17. Can a pilot sign for an ER?
    Yes. For his own flight .
  17. 18. Can fuel drops be hanging from sniffle valves?
    fuel drop hanging ok
  18. 19. How many static wicks there are and what are they used for? How many
    • can be missing?
    • 12, dissipate static electricity, none
  19. 20. What is the gauge next to the aft access door? What is it for?
    Power brake pressure gauge. Accumulator charged with 900+-50 psi of nitrogen stabilizes hydraulic pressure during fluctuations of the hydraulic system
  20. 21. Describe the battery feed test
    Disconnects the battery from the system, leaving only the STBY bus powered; in emergency, checks EMER bus power- should also check f
  21. 22 . If the AHRS test fails on one side can you try the next side? How long do you hold the button for?
    no/ 5 sec
  22. 23. How many emergency light are on during the Emergency Light Test?
  23. 24. Why does the stick shaker actuates twice during the stall test?
    test of the altitude compensator
  24. 25. Does the AOA speed index setting affect the stall test?
  25. 26. What lights don‘t come on during the indicator light test?
    gnd comm/eng start/start diseng/elt/red gear
  26. 27. ITT should rise within how many seconds of placing throttle to idle?
    10 sec.
  27. 28. What should you do if starter does not drop out by 45%
    Press the starter disengage button. If yellow start button and white disengage button do not extinguish. Cut-off the throttles, battery sw off and turn both master generator switches to EMER.
  28. 29. What does it mean when the Fire Bottles blowout disc is missing?
    Consult maintenance. Bottle contents may have been discharged to ambient for thermal relief.
  29. 30. Why does the AC BUS shed light come on during the EMER Test on preflight?
    Because #2 inverter is being powered by Emergency Bus
  30. 31. How do you know if the oil qty indicator is bad or if the qty is low?
    • If the indicator is bad it the light won‘t illuminate when pressed to test. If the light test good but does not light when the level
    • check switch is pressed then the oil level is low or the system has failed. Visually check dipstick.
  31. 32. What does a / or – indicate in the aircraft forms?
    / = minor maintenance --- = Inspection overdue
  32. 33. When must engine AI be turned on during ground ops?
    OAT/SAT of 5C or colder and visible moisture.
  33. 34. Which of the door seals is the one that inflates?
    The one attached to the fuselage
  34. 35. What is the wing leading edge scoop for? How about the wingtip vent scoop?
    The wing and wingtip vent scoop work together to mixes ambient air with bleed air from regulator for wing anti ice system
  35. 36. What is the wing fuel tank pressurization scoop used for?
    Used to keep positive air pressure on the fuel as wing fuel decreases
  36. 37. What is the max power allowed during ground Ops?
  37. 38. What is the minimum speed to perform Anti-Skid Test
    14 kts
  38. 39. What is the minimum distance to taxi behind another aircraft:
    150 ft day, 300 ft night or ice/snow
  39. 40. What is the minimum distance you can taxi from an obstacle?
    10 ft
  40. 41. When do we need a wing marshaller?
    < 25 ft
  41. 42. How do we test the radar?
    MFD Map or Radar mode. RDR CNTRL button, NEXT,TEST MODE, look for colored arcs,TEST MODE
  42. 43. How do we test the TCAS?
    Press ATC2 lsk on right side of right RTU. Press TST lsk.
  43. 44. What happens when you discharge the Hand Held Fire Extinguishers?
    All of it is discharged at onceor the BAT CUT OFF and INV 1 FAIL annunciators.
  44. 1. How often do we need to recompute MCT?
    5000 ft
  45. 1. What are the 3 speeds for steep turns?
  46. 2. What checks must be accomplished prior to TP stalls?
    YAMS 20/20
  47. 3. While performing maneuvers in the area, the primary reference for area orientation should be?
    Area landmarks and terrain charts
  48. 4. What altitude is required for stalls, slow flight and demos?
    5000 ft AGL
  49. 5. What are the restrictions for unusual attitudes?
    5000 ft AGL, Initiate recoveries above 130 KIAS and below 270 KIAS. Do not exceed 45 deg of bank. Max pitch 25deg NU and 20deg ND
  50. 6. What type of check should we do before commencing maneuvers in the area?
    ABCD Altimeter, borders, cruise check/clear, discrete
  51. 7. Between each maneuver what type of check should be accomplished?
    ACC: area, configuration,clear
  52. 8. What is a good lead point for Vertical S level/climb/descents?
    10% VVI
  53. 1. What is the normal aim point on a 30-flap straight in visual pattern?:
    500 ft (middle of windscreen at 500 ft or top AOA indexer)
  54. 2. A 500 ft aim point corresponds to a TCH of?
    20 ft
  55. 3. What is considered the T-1 landing zone?
    500-2000 ft
  56. 4. What is the desired TCH window?
    20-50 ft
  57. 5. What is touchdown speed?
    Vapp – 6 kts
  58. 6. What is the max descent rate allowed at touchdown?
    600 ft/min
  59. 7. What can you use to determine whether the Yaw damper is engaged without looking at the YD switch?
    Look at the EADI for YD indications upper left corner
  60. 8. What is required to fly at civil fields at night?
    Glide path guidance and familiar field
  61. 9. Can we do simulated EP patterns at night?
    Yes if wx is better than 2000/3
  62. 10. When does the PF calls for the flaps during a T&G?
    When the aircraft is in a 3 point attitude
  63. 11. What is the minimum speed for a closed pull-up?
    160 KIAS
  64. 12. What is the minimum airspeed for downwind?
    Minimum airspeed for configuration
  65. 13. What is the minimum airspeed for turns greater than 15 deg of bank?
    Configuration + 10kts
  66. 14. What is the maximum bank in the traffic pattern?
    Plan not to exceed 30 deg in the final turn or on final and 45 deg anywhere else in the pattern.
  67. 15. Can you accomplish practice no-flap full stop landings?
  68. 16. What minimum weather do I need to fly VFR patterns?
    1500/3 VFR cloud clerance in Class D airspace.
  69. 1. Can the T-1 fly multiple patterns in moderate icing?
  70. 2. Can the T-1 climb and descend in severe icing?
  71. 1. Describe the 3 Battery Feeder Fail Scenarios
    • a. BATTERY FDR FAIL: Battery feeder protection unit has failed or the c/b is popped.
    • b. BATTERY FDR FAIL + EMER BUS FDR FAIL + BATT CUTOFF: Battery fault caused it to be disconnected from emergency bus and DC power system
    • c. BATTERY FDR FAIL + EMER BUS FDR FAIL: Emergency bus feed line failed (c/b may be popped.) Battery connected to system but battery feeder protection unit lost power and Emergency bus is powered now from LH load bus only.
  72. 2. What type and number of batteries we have in T-1?
    3 batteries: 24V/40 AMP lead acid as Main Battery, 24 V AHRS, 24 V Standby battery (also have a battery for each clock, batteries for each emergency light, ELT battery)
  73. 3. How long does the stby battery last for?
    30 minutes (According to the maintenance –2 the stby battery and the main battery in emer will provide a total of 30 minutes of power.)
  74. 4. What is main difference between having Stby power and Emergency power?
    Pitch trim and gear position indications. Also, on stby you don‘t have intercom, annunciators, flt deck lighting.
  75. 5. What components are powered by the standby bus?
    • Co-pilot instrument lights, engine EFC start, left ITT, RTU 1, stby instruments, UHF radio
    • CRUISSE (Copilot instrument lights,RTU 1,UHF 1 radio,ITT #1,Standby Altimeter Vibrator,Standby Attitude indicator,EFC (start))
  76. 6. What components are powered by the emergency bus?
    The major ones are: gear position indicators, emergency pitch trim, fire bell, left N1 and N2, nav 1, engine fire extinguishing capability. SLEEVES (Selected left hand instruments, Landing Gear position, Engine ignition and Control (left engine only), Emergency Pitch Trim, VHF Nav 1,Engine Fire detection (fire bell only – not the warning lights), Standby Bus)
  77. 7. What are the functions of the GCU?
    Ground fault protection, over voltage protection; reverse current protection and equalization circuit load
  78. 8. What is the maximum generator load for one generator up to 32,500 ft, 32500-41000?
    400 Amps; 32,500-41-000 280 amps both operating 280 Amps per generator
  79. 9. Can the standby battery power the emergency bus?
    No- a diode prevents this from happening but still allows the normal aircraft battery to feed the stand by bus through the emergency bus.
  80. 10. What do lose when you lose all AC power?
    26V primary – pitch trim position; 115V primary- GPWS; 26V Primary shed-flap position, LH,RH oil pressure, 115V primary shed is not used; 26V secondary-not used, 115V secondary-GRE
  81. 11. Can you reset the bus feeder circuit breakers?
  82. 12. How many bus feeder lines there are and how many are used at a time?
  83. 13. What causes the AC bus shed light to come on?
    Emergency bus powering #2 inverter and #1 inverter failed.
  84. 14. What do you lose when you lose a generator?
    Nothing if the other generator is working.
  85. 15. Initially, what do you lose when you lose both generators?
    Transfer fuel pumps, aux cool.
  86. 16. What is the power source for non-GPU engine starts on the ground?
    First engine – battery; second engine - generator.
  87. 17. What is the power source for starter assisted air starts?
    • Battery.
    • Engines
  88. 1. When do the ignition switches actuate from the standby position?
    Engine anti-ice is selected, stick shaker or engine start
  89. 2. What happens when you press the engine fire switch?
    Fuel valve closes, hydraulic valve closes, generator is switched off-line and the fire bottles are armed
  90. 3. What components are driven by the accessory gearbox?
    DC starter-generator, N2 speed sensors, oil pump, HMU, hydraulic pump, and engine driven fuel pump
  91. 4. Which engine is the Master for engine synchronization?
    The left engine. The limit for slaving is 1.5% n1 or N2
  92. 5. What lights come on when you shut down an engine?
  93. 1. What is bleed air used for?
    Hydraulic reservoir pressurization, anti-ice, door seal, pressurization, bearing compartment oil seals, HMU operation, and cooling air for the turbine disks and high-pressure stator vanes. H.A.D.P.B.
  94. 2. What is the max cabin altitude?
    12,500 +- 1500
  95. 3. When does the cabin pressure low annunciator illuminate?
    When cabin altitude exceeds 9,500 +- 500‘
  96. 4. What are the cabin rate of change knob limits?
    50 to 2000 ft/min
  97. 5. When does the cabin pressure hi annunciator illuminate?
    When the cabin pressure differential exceeds 11+- 1 psi
  98. 6. Why do we use Emergency Pressurization?
    In case Normal pressurization (ACU) fails
  99. 8. When does the wing anti-ice operation light illuminate?
    When the temperature reaches 140F
  100. 9. When does the WING OVHT annunciator illuminate>
    When the 350F or one of the two 212F temperature switches close
  101. 10. How does the stab anti-ice/de-ice system work?
    Electrical power is supplied to the 12 heater elements of the leading edge and elevator horns to maintain the temperature between 260F and 280F. When the temperature reaches 280F, power is interrupted momentarily and the system will continue to cycle
  102. 11. When does the STAB ANTI ICE FAIL annunciator illuminate?
    When the temperature reaches 310F
  103. 12. How does the manual backup system work?
    The switch should be pressed momentarily to provide a 30 second cycle of heating to only the gap heaters in the elevator horns and the outboard ends of the stabilizer?
  104. 13. How does the engine Anti-Ice system work?
    Bleed air is routed through a piccolo tube and mixed with ambient air to heat the nacelle leading edge.
  105. 14. What parts of the engine are continually anti-iced?
    High compressor turbine air is continuously directed to the inlet cone, T1 temperature probe and low compressor inner stators
  106. 15. When does the ENG ICE TEMP LO annunciator illuminate?
    When the engine anti-ice switch is on and the temperature is below 120F
  107. 16. How does the wing anti-ice work?
    Bleed air from the engines is regulated to 34-44 psi and mixed with ambient air for distribution to an air duct formed by the double walls of the leading edge of the wing. The air creates a venturi which draws ambient air from the ram air scoop, which mixes with the forced bleed air producing a warm mixture in the piccolo tubes. The tubes warm the leading edge air duct and the air is vented at each wingtip. Both throttles must be maintained above 70%N2 to provide electrical power to the bleed air valve.
  108. 1. What constitutes the hydraulic package?
    Flaps, landing gear, anti-skid, power brakes and speed brakes F.L.A.P.S.
  109. 2. Explain Anti-Skid, Power, manual and Emergency braking?
    Power braking is the normal mode of operation when the aircraft hydraulic system is applying normal hydraulic pressure to the brake system. It has limited effectiveness. Anti-skid mode is electrically controlled system and provides locked wheel skid controlled and anti skid failure detection. Power braking and anti-skid are available if the aircraft hydraulic system is working. Manual Mode is used when hydraulic pressure is not available to the power control valve. Emergency braking is a backup that provides nitrogen pressure for braking in case the aircraft hydraulic system fails.
  110. 3. What is the Hyd pump output in gpm?
    0-3.9 gpm
  111. 4. When do you get a Hyd pump press low annunciator?
    750 psi
  112. 5. What is the Hyd reservoir capacity?
  113. 6. When do you have to add Hyd fluid to reservoir?
    .8 gal
  114. 7. When do you get a Hyd Level Low light?
    .6 gal
  115. 8. What hydraulic components are lost without electrical power?
    Flaps, landing gear (normal extension), anti skid and speed brakes
  116. 9. Why is the hydraulic reservoir pressurized with bleed air?
    The reservoir uses filtered regulated bleed air to maintain hydraulic pressure and prevent foaming of the liquid in the reservoir.
  117. 10. What are the functions of the bypass and relief valves?
    The relief valve opens at approximately 1650 psi to relieve an over pressure condition by returning fluid through the return line to the reservoir.
  118. 11. How does the emergency braking system work?
    When the emergency braking handle is depressed, a separate nitrogen line sends nitrogen to the brake assembly. As the valve is released, residual nitrogen pressure is vented overboard (use only one steady application). The nitrogen storage cylinder provides sufficient pressure for at leas 7 to 10 applications. If pressure was used to close the doors then only 7-9 applications.
  119. 12. How does the alternate gear extension work?
    Pulling the CB bypasses the gear sequencing. The EMER L/G Down handle releases the main door, main gear and nose gear uplocks. Once this occurs, the gear free fall to the down and locked position. The gear doors are then retracted via nitrogen pressure to the main gear door actuating cylinders.
  120. 1. In what orders do fuel tanks fill up?
    Refueling manifold check valve to aft fuselage to aft cabin, mid tanks, wing tanks.
  121. 2. At what times does the boost pumps come on automatically?
    Engine start, cross feed, fuel feed chamber less than full, less than 5+-.5 psi in the fuel feed line. EFFC (Engine Start,Fuel feed line<5psi+-.5,Feed Chamber Less than full,Crossfeeding)
  122. 3. What is motive flow?
    An induced high velocity low mass fluid stream.
  123. 4. How do pilot level control valves work?
    much like a toilet float shuts off incoming water after a certain level is reached
  124. 5. How does the fuel cross feed work?
    When the appropriate side is selected, fuel is fed from that wing to both engines.
  125. 6. What are the limitations for cross feeding?
    Limited to level flight when less than 600# remains in the wing tank supplying fuel
  126. 7. Can you transfer fuel from one tank to another?
    No engines running, Yes not running
  127. 8. What has happened if both boost pumps illuminate (during cross feed)?
    The selected side‘s boost pump is not providing enough pressure
  128. 9. The L or R FUEL LEVEL LO annunciator illuminates when wing fuel tank level drops below 32 gallons or approximately_____ of usable fuel remaining.
  129. 10. The L or R FUEL FEED annunciator illuminates when low fuel quantity is sensed in the fuel feed chamber (approximately __gallons or __ lbs of usable fuel remaining).
    11 gal/70#
  130. 11. The L or R WNG TNK OV PRESS annunciator illuminates when wing tank pressure reaches _____ psi. This indicates a possible malfunction in the control pilot or level control shutoff valve. If malfunction occurs in a climb, level off and pull back power.
    3.5 +/- 0.5 psi.
  131. 12. The L or R FUEL PRESS LO annunciator illuminates when fuel pressure drops to ____psi in each engine fuel feed line.
    5 +/- 0.5
  132. 13. The L or R F XFR PRESS LO annunciator illuminates when fuel pressure in the transfer line falls below____ psi. This may indicate possible fuel transfer pump malfunction/failure.
    5 +/- 0.5
  133. 14. The L or R F FLTR BYPASS annunciator illuminates when the fuel filter becomes clogged causing line pressure to exceed____ psi. The bypass valve will open routing unfiltered fuel to the engine
    2.3 +/- 0.2