RT 103 Midterm

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noah.aisner
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RT 103 Midterm
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2010-07-26 15:34:41
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RT 103 Midterm
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  1. 1. The definition of “syllabus” is:
    A. A part of a word which c stands for a complete thought
    B. A summary for a course of study
    C. The first part of a professional lexicon
    D. A form of reasoning fror+ which a logical conclusion can be drawn
    B. A summary for a course of study
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. 2. T or F The first Student Learning Outcome (SLO) revolves around the principles, indications, hazards, and monitoring of negative pressure ventilation.
    False
  3. 3. T or F The Student Learning Outcome(SLO) for this class includes an introduction to in monitoring of cardiac functions
    True
  4. 4. T or F The Mid Term and Final constitute approximately 40% of the grade for this class.
    True
  5. 5. According to the institutional classroom Standards, if you are going to be absent you are to
    A. contact the instructor by SJVC email prior to your absence
    B. Bring a note from your physician
    C. Call Mr. Tom Serrano by phone prior to your absence
    A. contact the instructor by SJVC email prior to your absence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. 6. Missing deadline for homework and projects may result in
    I. a 10% reduction in points
    II no credit
    III void the need for turning in the project
    A. I
    B. I or II or at the instructors discretion
    C. II or III
    B. I or II or at the instructors discretion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. 7. Missed quizzes, including “pop” quizzes
    A. Can be taken late in accordance with college policies
    B. May not be taken later; you will get a zero for that quiz
    B. May not be taken later; you will get a zero for that quiz
  8. 8. To F It is okay to have coffee or soda in the classroom during lectures
    False
  9. 9. In the article “Competencies Needed by Graduate Respiratory Therapist in 2015 and Beyond” how many competencies were identified and agreed upon as being needed by both new grads and existing work force
    A. 77
    B. 69
    C. 7
    D. 49
    B. 69
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. 10. All of the following competencies were identified as being needed except
    A. Therapists must have a broad understanding of pharmacology for all organ systems and detailed knowledge of drugs delivered via intervenous methods
    B. Graduate therapists must be able to fully operate ICU Ventilators and discuss all commonly used modes of ventilation as well as their indications and limitations
    C. They must be able to provide ventilator care based on protocol
    D. They must fully understand the tenets of evidence based medicine including the ability to critically read and critique the medical literature and discuss the meaning of stastical anaylsis
    D. They must fully understand the tenets of evidence based medicine including the ability to critically read and critique the medical literature and discuss the meaning of stastical anaylsis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. 11. In Table 12, the responders evaluated the relative importance of the following categories of skills, which did they indicate most important
    A. Physical examination — patient assesments
    B. Diagnostic invasive procedures
    C. Emergency care
    D. Critical care
    D. Critical care
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. 12. The importance of documenting competence and quality of care by administering national board speciality certifications examinations was first identified by other professions as early as
    A. 1929
    B. 1941
    C. 1948
    D. 1917
    D. 1917
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. 13. Which of the following participant groups identified that ther is a perfect storm of healthcare issues in our society, and that the respiratory care prefession is in a good position to assume new or expanding roles
    A. Hospital Administrators
    B. NBRC leaders
    C. Critical Care Physicians
    D. AARC leaders
    A. Hospital Administrators
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. 14. Based on your reading of this article do you think that the ability to research apply and adapt to respiratory care patient care protols to specific patients needs will be of value
    A. Very useful — because it’s at the bedside where the real issue of patiend safety and treatment efficacy are most important
    B. Moderately useful — the dept management will do the heavy work
    C. Rarely — we’ll leave it up to the physicians to tell us everything we need to do
    A. Very useful — because it’s at the bedside where the real issue of patiend safety and treatment efficacy are most important
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. 15. “RTs in 2015 must assume greater responsibility for ______ in order to reduce the cost of healthcare.”
    A. establishing vascular access for invasive hemodynamic monitoring
    B. acute and chronic disease management
    C. education of other healthcare workers in RT procedures
    D. evidence-based medicine
    C. education of other healthcare workers in RT procedures
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. 1. Pneumatic ventilators may incorporate which of the following components for operation?
    I. Pistons
    II. Air entrainers
    III. Flexible Diaphragms
    IV. Internal direct current batteries
    A. I and II
    B. I and IV
    C. II and III
    D. III and IV
    C. II and III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. 2. An iron lung is which type of ventilator
    A. Positive/negative pressure
    B. Positive pressure
    C. Fluidic
    D. Negative Pressure
    D. Negative Pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. 3. Which type of ventilator creates a sineusodial pressure waveform pattern of positive and negative pressures?
    A. Pneumatic
    B. Fluidic
    C. Positive-pressure
    D. combined pressure
    D. combined pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. 4. A closed system can be described as which of the following
    I. Feedback
    II. Hierarchical
    III. Unintelligent
    IV. Servo-Controlled
    A. I
    B. I and IV
    C. II and IV
    D. II and IV
    B. I and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. 5. Which of the following is a flow waveform created by a linear-drive piston?
    A. Descending ramp
    B. Ascending ramp
    C. Sinusodial
    D. Rectangular
    D. Rectangular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. 6. The funnction of the exhalation valve following?
    A. Inflate during expiration to allow the patient to exhale throught the expiratory line
    B. Inflate during inspiration to prevent leaks in the inspiratory circuit
    C. inflate during inspiration and to divert gas coming from the ventilator into the patient
    D. Deflate during inspiration to allow the gas to go to the patient
    C. inflate during inspiration and to divert gas coming from the ventilator into the patient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. 7. Which of the following flow-controlled electromagnetism?
    A. Microprossesor operated
    B. Stepper motor
    C. Propotional selenoid
    D. Poppet
    C. Propotional selenoid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. 8. A patient receiving CPAP of 7.5 via a mask and freestanding system appears to be in distress. The patient is using accessory muscles and is diaphoretic the manometer is fluctuating between -5 and 7.5 the most appearant cause of the distress is
    A. Inadequate Flow
    B. Obstruction of the threshold
    C. Leak in the system
    D. Improper mask fitting
    A. Inadequate Flow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. 9. The set tidal volume is 500 mL. During the first breath the exhaled volume measures 390 mL, with a peak pressures of 18. The second breath returns 460 mL, with 20 cm The third breath has peak pressure of 22 an exhaled volume of 500 mL. This can be described as what type of system
    A. Single-circuit
    B. Double-circuit
    C. closed loop system
    D. Open-loop
    C. closed loop system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. 10. The gas that enters the ventilator from high-pressure sources goes directly to the system. This is what type of system
    A. Double-circuit
    B. Power transmission
    C. single circuit
    D. Pneumatic circuit
    C. single circuit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. 11. Which of the following is a devic that uses a flow resistor to create expiratoi pressure?
    A. Modern ventilators
    B. Positive expiratory pressure mask
    C. Fluidic devices
    D. Downs CPAP generator
    B. Positive expiratory pressure mask
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. 12, Who has attempted to establish a ewer classification system to describe how ventilators work?
    A. Egan
    B. Pilbeam
    C. Chatburn
    D. Mushin
    C. Chatburn
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. 13. The most common type of ICU ventilators today are:
    A. Fluidic controlled pneumatically powered
    B. Pneumatically powered, Piston-driven, double circuit system
    C. Negative-pressure
    D. pneumatically powered and microprocessor controlled.
    D. pneumatically powered and microprocessor controlled.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. 14. Internal expiratory valves have which of the following characteristics?
    I. high resistance
    II. low resistance
    III. large diameter opening
    IV. Flexible plastic diaphragms
    V. spring-loaded
    A. I, III, V
    B. II, III, IV
    C. I, V
    D. II III V
    B. II, III, IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. 15. PEEP is accomplished by which of the following methods?
    I. Flow resistance
    II. Passive resistance
    III. Threshold resistance
    A. I, II
    B. II, III
    C. I only
    D. I, III
    D. I, III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. 16. The main parameter that the ventilator manipulates for any given breath is referred to as which of the following?
    A. Phase variable
    B. Cycle variable
    C. Control circuit
    D. Control variable
    D. Control variable
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. 17. What variable begins the inspiratory phase of a ventilator?
    A. Trigger
    B. Limit
    C. Control
    D. Cycle
    A. Trigger
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. 18. What trigger variable is used during control ventilation?
    A. Time
    B. Flow
    C. Volume
    D. Pressure
    A. Time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. 19. Which of the following variables en s the inspiratory phase?
    A. Limit
    B. Sensitivity
    C. Cycle
    D. Trigger
    C. Cycle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. 20. Which of the following variables begins a mandatory breath?
    A. Time
    B. Volume
    C. F1ow
    D. Pressure
    A. Time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. 21. The pressure maintained at the airway during exhalation is known as which of the following
    A. Baseline
    B. Proximal
    C. Sensitivity
    D. Mean airway
    A. Baseline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. 22. Which two of the following patient triggers are most common?
    I. Flow
    II. Neural
    III. Volume
    IV. Pressure
    A. I and IV
    B. II and III
    C. III and IV
    D. I and II
    A. I and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. 23. On a mechanical ventilator, pressure-triggering is usually set within which of the following ranges?
    A. 0.5 to 2.0
    B. 1.0 to3.0
    C. -2.0 to 0.5
    D. - 0.5 to – 1.5
    D. - 0.5 to – 1.5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. 24. If the base flow is 8 L/min and the flow-trigger setting is 3 L/min, at what flow rate will the ventilator be triggered?
    A. 5 L/min
    B. 11 l/mm
    C. 3 L/min
    D. 8 L/min
    A. 5 L/min
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. 25. With a baseline pressure setting of 6 cm H20 and a sensitivity setting of .5 inspiration will begin at
    A. 4.5
    B. -4.5
    C. -1.5
    D. 1.5
    A. 4.5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. 26. What is the flow rate if the set volume is 550 mL and the inspiratory time is 1.2
    second?
    A. 55 L/min
    B. 27.5
    C. 45.8 L/min
    D. 66 L/min \
    B. 27.5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. 27. The maximum safety pressure sh be set at _____ cm H when the peak pressure reached during vo1ume-c ventilation is 25 cm H
    A. 30
    B. 35
    C. 45
    D. 40
    B. 35
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. 28. When the maximum safety pressure setting in a volume mode is reached, which ol the following occurs?
    A. Inspiration ends prematurely
    B. Flow begins to decrease.
    C. Pressure is held until the target volume is delivered.
    D. Inspiration is triggered.
    A. Inspiration ends prematurely
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. 29. When the maximum safety pressure on a volume ventilator is reached, which of the following occurs?
    A. Pressure is held until the ver ilator volume time cycles.
    B. inspiration ends before the entire volume is delivered
    C. Pressure is held until the tim cycle is reached.
    D. The flow rate begins to tape
    B. inspiration ends before the entire volume is delivered
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. 30. Which of the following represents the amount of time a pressure-targeted ventilator breath should be at the set pressure?
    a. Rise time
    b Inspiratory time
    c. Total cycle time
    d. Inspiratory hold
    b Inspiratory time
  46. 31. Improving lung compliance during pressure ventilation will cause which of the following?
    a, A decrease in peak pressure
    b. An increase in peak pressure
    c. An increase in volume delivery
    d. A decrease in volume delivery
    c. An increase in volume delivery
  47. 36. Improving lung compliance during volume-controlled ventilation will cause a(n)_____ in peak_____
    A. Decrease; flow rate
    B. Decrease; pressure
    C. Increase; flow rate
    D. Increase; pressure
    B. Decrease; pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. 37. Worsening lung compliance during g volume-controlled ventilation will cause which of the following?
    A. A decrease in peak pressure
    B. A decrease in volume delivery
    C. an increase in peak pressure
    D. An increase in peak flow ate
    C. an increase in peak pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. 38. Worsening lung compliance during pressure-controlled ventilation will cause which of the following?
    A. An increase in peak pressure
    B. A decrease in volume delivery
    C. A decrease in peak pressure
    D. An increase in peak flow ate
    B. A decrease in volume delivery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. 39. What is the volume that will reach the patient when the volume setting is 700 mL, the circuit CT is 2 mL/cm, and the measured PIP is 35 cm H when the ventilator does not have tubing compliance compensation?
    A. 665 mL
    B. 698 mL
    C. 770 mL
    D. 630 mL
    D. 630 mL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. 40. How much volume is lost in the ventilator circuit when the volume is Set at 500 mL, the PIP is 40 cm H and the circuit CT is 3 mL/cm H when the ventilator does not have tubing compliance compensation?
    A. 380mL
    B. 120 mL
    C. l50 mL
    D. 280 mL
    B. 120 mL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. 41. Pressure-support ventilation (PSV) is classified as:
    I. F1ow-cyc1ed
    II. Time triggered
    III. Volume targeted
    IV. Pressure targeted
    V. Patient-triggered
    A. I, IV, V
    B. IV and V
    C. I, II, and III
    D. II and III
    A. I, IV, V
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. 42. Plateau pressure may be obtained during volume ventilation by using which of the following?
    A. Increased inspiratory time
    B. inspiratory pause
    C. Expiratory pause
    D. End-expiratory pressure
    B. inspiratory pause
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. 43. During volume ventilation, PIP is the pressure needed to overcome which two of
    the following factors?
    I. Muscle pressure
    II Airflow resistance
    III. Elastic recoil pressure
    IV. Transthoracic pressure
    A. I and II
    B. III and IV
    C. I and III
    D. II and III
    D. II and III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. 44. The transairway pressure (PTA) represents the pressure associated with which of the following?
    A. End pressure
    B. Airflow resistance
    C. Tubing compressibility
    D. Elastic recoil
    B. Airflow resistance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. 45. Which is the formula for transairway pressure (PTA)?
    A. PIP-Pplat
    B. PIP-PEEP
    C. Positive end pressure (PEEP) — Pplat
    D. Pplat-PIP
    A. PIP-Pplat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. 46. Increased Pta is associated with which two of the following changes?
    I. Increased airway resistance
    II Decreased airway resistance
    III. Increased static compliance
    IV Decreased static compliance
    A. III and IV
    B. I and III
    C. I and IV
    D. II and IV
    C. I and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. 48, What is the static lung compliance (Cs) when the returned tidal volume is 500 ml, baseline pressure is zero, and the Pplat reading is 25
    A. 0.2
    B. 0.02
    C. 2.0
    D. 2.0
    B. 0.02
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. 49. What is the Cs when the returned tidal volume is 700 ml the PEEP is 10 the PIP is 45cm and the Pplat is 35cm?
    A. 0.020
    B. 0.028
    C. 0.735
    D. 0.160
    B. 0.028
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. 50. What is the Cs when the returned tida1 volume is 460 mL, the PEEP is 8 cm the PIP is 27 cm H and the Pplat 18
    A. 20
    B. 51
    C. 46
    D. 26
    C. 46
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. 51. Increasing the functional residual capacity (FRC) of a spontaneously breathing patient to improve oxygenation can e accomplished by which of the following?
    A. CPAP
    B. Negative end-expiratory pressure (NEEP)
    C. Inspiratory plateau
    D. PSV
    A. CPAP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. 52. What procedure is used to estimate the amount of air trapped in the patient’s lungs and in the patient circuit?
    A. Pressure-release ventilation
    B. End Expiratory pause
    C. Pressure-control ventilation
    D. Inspiratory pause
    B. End Expiratory pause
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. 53. Auto-PEEP can be detected without the use of an expiratory pause on which of the following curves?
    A. Volume-time
    B. Pressure-time
    C. Pressure-volume
    D. flow-time
    D. flow-time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. 54. Which of the following is the technique that can actively remove gas from a ventilator circuit at the beginning of expiration?
    A. PEEP
    B. NEEP
    C. Inspiratory pause
    D. Expiratory pause
    B. NEEP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. 55. What is the airflow resistance (Raw) hen the PIP is 50 cm H the Pplat is 1 5 cm H and the set ventilator gas flow ate is 60 L/min?
    A. 35
    B. 58
    C. 17
    D. 1
    A. 35
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. 1. A diagnosis of respiratory failure can be made if which of the following are present
    I. PaO2 of 55, FiO2 .21 Pb 760
    II. PaCO2 57, FiO2 .21 Pb 760
    III. P(A-a) O2 45, FiO2 1.0 Pb 760
    IV. PaO2/FiO2 400 Pb 750
    A. I, III, and IV
    B. I, II, III, and IV
    C. III and IV
    D. I and II
    D. I and II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. 2. What is respiratory failure due to inadequate ventilation?
    A. compensated
    B. hypercapnic
    C. hypoxemic
    D. chronic
    B. hypercapnic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. 3. Hypercapnic (type II) respiratory fail terms?
    A. diffusion impairment
    B. shunt
    C. ventilatory failure
    D. V/Q mismatching
    C. ventilatory failure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. 4. Hypoxemia can be caused by which of the following
    I. diffusion impairment
    II. alveolar hypoventilation
    III. V/Q mismatch
    IV. Intrapulmonary shunting
    A. II III and IV
    B. I, II, and III
    C. I, II, III, and IV
    D. I, III, and IV
    C. I, II, III, and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. 5. Which of the following best describes t e difference between V/Q mismatch and shunt when supplemental oxygen is administered?
    A. V/Q mismatch will respond well but shunt will not.
    B. Both will respond equally well.
    C. V/Q mismatch will not respond but shunt will respond well.
    D. Neither will respond to the administration of supplemental oxygen.
    A. V/Q mismatch will respond well but shunt will not.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. 6. Which of the following clinical signs is most often associated with hypoxemia due to shunt?
    • a. diffuse wheezing
    • b. “white” chest radiograph
    • c. stridor
    • d. loud P2
    • b. “white” chest radiograph
  72. 7. A patient with interstitial lung disease ho presents with hypoxemia due to diffusion def have which of the following clinical signs?
    I. fine bibasilar crackles
    II. clubbing of the finger nail beds
    III. jugular venous distention
    IV. increased P2
    A. I, II, III, and IV
    B. I and II
    C. I, III, and IV
    D. III and IV
    A. I, II, III, and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. 8. What type of disease is associated with perfusion/diffusion impairment?
    A. pancreatic disease
    B. vascular disease
    C. neuromuscular disease
    D. renal disease
    B. vascular disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. 9. What is the most common cause of low mixed venous oxygen?
    A. liver disease
    B. peripheral vascular disease
    C. cardiac disease, with low cardiac output
    D. neuromuscular disease
    C. cardiac disease, with low cardiac output
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. 10. What is the normal P (A—a) 02 range while breathing room air?
    A. l0 mmHg to 25 mmHg
    B. greater than 25 mmHg
    C. 25 mmHg to 50 mmHg
    D. less than 10 mmHg
    A. l0 mmHg to 25 mmHg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. 11. What is the normal P (A—a) 02 with V/Q mismatch and shunt?
    A. decreases with both V/Q mismatch and shunt
    B. increases with both V/Q mismatch and shunt
    C. it does not change
    D. increases with V/Q mismatch and decreases with shunt
    B. increases with both V/Q mismatch and shunt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. 12. What is the optimal treatment of intrapulmonary shunt?
    A. surgery
    B. increase the FiO2
    C. decrease the FiO2
    D. alveolar recruitment
    D. alveolar recruitment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. 13. A patient with an opiate drug overdose blood gas results breathing room air: pH 7.19, PCO2 89, HCO3 27, PO2 48
    Which of the following best describe the patient’s condition?
    A. chronic hypoxemic respiratory failure
    B. chronic hypersonic respiratory failure
    C. acute hypersonic respiratory failure
    D. acute hypoxemic respiratory failure
    C. acute hypersonic respiratory failure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. 4. All of the following would tend to cause hypersonic respiratory failure except
    A. hypothyroidism
    B. smoke inhalation
    C. opiate drug overdose
    D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
    B. smoke inhalation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. 15. Which of the following are associate with hypercapnic respiratory failure due to decreased ventilatory drive?
    I. brainstem lesions
    II. encephalitis
    III. hypothyroidism
    IV. asthma
    A. I, II, III, and IV
    B. III and IV
    C. I, II, and III
    D. II and IV
    C. I, II, and III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. 16. All of the following are associated with respiratory muscle weakness or fatigue
    A. Guillian Barre syndrome
    B. myasthenia gravis
    C. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
    D. hyperthyroidism
    D. hyperthyroidism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. 17. Which of the following is a feature of Guillian Barre
    A. descending muscle weakness
    B. limited to trunk
    C. ascending muscle weakness
    D. limited to lower extremities
    C. ascending muscle weakness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. 18. All of the following are associated with increased work of breathing except:
    A. asthma
    B. myasthenia gravis
    C. obesity
    D. kyphoscoliosis
    B. myasthenia gravis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. 19. Which of the following information be respiratory failure from acute hypercapnea
    A. forced expiratory volume in I second of forced vital capacity ratio is less than 75% predicted
    B. physical signs of hypoxemia, such as cyanosis and clubbing
    C. kidneys retaining bicarbonate to elevate the blood pH
    D. long-standing dyspnea that worsen
    C. kidneys retaining bicarbonate to elevate the blood pH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. 20. Which of the following is the cardinal sign of increased work of breathing
    A. retractions
    B. hyperventilation
    C. bradycardia
    D. tachypnea
    D. tachypnea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. 21. In patients suffering from acute respiratory failure below what pH level is intubation and ventilatory support generally considered
    A. 7.15
    B. 7.20
    C. 7.26
    D. 7.30
    B. 7.20
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. 22. Which of the following patients has the most serious problem with the adequacy of oxygenation?
    A. 0.40 95
    B. 1.00 85
    C. 0.28 65
    D. 0.70 90
    B. 1.00 85
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. 23. A need for some form of ventilatory support is usually indicated when an adult’s rate
    of breathing rises above what level?
    A. 25/mm
    B. 30/mm
    C. 35/mm
    D. 20/mm
    C. 35/mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. 24. Which of the following measures is useful indicators in assessing the adequacy of a patient’s oxygenation?
    I. PAO2 – PaO2
    II. PaO2 to FiO2 ratio
    III. VD/VT
    A. I and III
    B. I and II
    C. II and III
    D. I, II, and III
    B. I and II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. 25. Which of the following measures taken on adult patients indicate unacceptably high demands or work of breathing?
    A. breathing rate of 22/mm
    B. VD/VT of 0.45
    C. VE of 17 L/min
    D. MIP of -40 cm H
    C. VE of 17 L/min
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. 26. Ventilatory support may be indicated when the VC falls below what level?
    A. 30m1/kg
    B. 10ml/Ikg
    C. 65m1/kg
    D. 45 ml/kg
    B. 10ml/kg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. 27. What is the normal range of maximum inspiratory pressure, or MIP (also called negative inspiratory force, or NIF), generated by adults?
    A -80 to –l00
    B. -50 to -80
    C. -30 to -50
    D. -20 to -30
    A -80 to –l00
  93. 8. Which of the following MIP measure taken on an adult patient indicates inadequate
    respiratory muscle strength?
    A. -40
    B. -90
    C. -70
    D. –l5
    D. –l5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. 29. Common bedside measures used to assess the adequacy of lung expansion include all of the following except
    A. VD/VT
    B. VT
    C. VC
    D. respiratory rate
    A. VD/VT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. 30. You determine that an acutely ill patient can generate an MIP of -18. Based on this information, what might you conclude?
    A. The patient has an unstable or irregular ventilatory drive.
    B. The patient has inadequate alveolar ventilation.
    C. The patient has inadequate respiratory muscle strength.
    D. The patient has an excessive work of breathing.
    C. The patient has inadequate respiratory muscle strength.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. 31. Breathing 100% 02, a patient has a PA 2 of 60mm Hg. Based on this information, what might you conclude?
    A. The patient has acceptable oxygenation.
    B. The patient has an excessive work of breathing.
    C. The patient has inadequate ventilation.
    D. The patient has severe hypoxemia.
    A. The patient has acceptable oxygenation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. 32. What is the normal range for Pa02?
    A.250 to 350
    B. 75 to 150
    C. >400
    D. 150 to 250
    C. >400
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. 33. Which of the following measures should be used in assessing the adequacy of a patient’s alveolar ventilation?
    1. Pa02
    II. arterial pH
    III. PaC0
    A. I and II
    B. I and III
    C. II and III
    D. I, II and III
    • C. II and III
  99. 34. A patient with a 10-year history of chronic bronchitis for, with an acute viral pneumonia for the last 3 days now exhibits the following blood gas pH= 7.22; PCO =67; HCO= 26 PCO2 = 60 which of the following best describes the patient’s condition?
    A. acute hypercapnic respiratory failure
    B. acute hypoxemic respiratory failure
    C. chronic hypercapnic respiratory failure
    D. chronic hypoxemic respiratory failure
    A. acute hypercapnic respiratory failure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. 35. cause an elevated PaCO2 increases ventilatory drive in normal subjects , the clinical presence of hypercapnia indicates which of the following?
    I. inability of the stimulus to get to the muscles
    II. weak or missing central nervous system
    III. pulmonary muscle fatigue
    A. II and III
    B. I or III
    C. I, or II, or III
    D. I and II
    C. I, or II, or III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. 36. Which of the following indicators are useful in assessing respiratory muscle strength
    I. maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV)
    II. forced vital capacity (FVC)
    III. dead space to tidal volume ratio (VD/VT)
    IV. Maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP)
    A. II and IV
    B. III and IV
    C. I, II, and IV
    D. I and III
    C. I, II, and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. 37. A reversible impairment in the response of an overload best describes which of the following
    A. chronic respiratory muscle fatigue
    B. transmission respiratory muscle fatigue
    C. central respiratory muscle fatigue
    D. contractile respiratory muscle fatigue
    D. contractile respiratory muscle fatigue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. 38. Which of the following modes of ventilatory support would you recommend for a mild hypoxemic patient from congestive heart
    A. high-level pressure support ventilation
    B. continuous positive airway pressure
    C. inverse-ratio pressure control ventilation
    D. intermittent mandatory ventilation
    B. continuous positive airway pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. 39. Which of the following patients are at greatest risk for developing auto PEEP during mechanical ventilation?
    A. those with bilateral pneumonia
    B. those with COPD
    C. those with acute lung injury
    D. those with congestive heart failure
    B. those with COPD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. 40. What are some causes of dynamic hyperinflation.
    I. increased expiratory time
    II. increased airway resistance
    III. decreased expiratory flow rate
    A. I, II, and III
    B. I and III
    C. II and III
    D. II and II
    C. II and III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. 1. In which of the following types of ventilation is alveolar expansion during inspiration due to a decrease in pleural pressure
    I. positive-pressure ventilation
    II. negative-pressure ventilation
    III. spontaneous ventilation
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. I, II, and III
    D. I and III
    B. II and III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. 2. Which of the following statements are true about negative pressure ventilation (NPV)?
    I. NPV is similar to spont
    II. Airway (mouth) pressure during NPV is zero
    III. Expiration during NPV is by passive recoil
    IV. NPV decreases pressure at the body surface
    A.II and IV
    B. III and IV
    C. I, II, III, and IV
    D. I, III, and IV
    C. I, II, III, and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. 3. In which of the following types of ventilation is alveolar expansion during inspiration due to an increase in alveolar pressure
    I. negative-pressure ventilation
    II. positive-pressure ventilation
    III. spontaneous ventilation
    A. I, II, and III
    B. II
    C. II and III
    D. I and II
    B. II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. 4. Which of the following statements is false about positive-pressure ventilation (PPV)?
    A. During inspiration, alveolar pressure exceeds pleural pressure.
    B. During inspiration, pleural pressure decreases.
    C. During inspiration, pressure in the alveoli increases
    D. The pressure gradients of normal breathing are reversed.
    B. During inspiration, pleural pressure decreases.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. 5. Which of following conditions is associated with a lack of response to increases FiO2 in patients receiving PPV?
    A. shunt
    B. hypoventilation
    C. hypoxemia
    D. dead space
    A. shunt
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. 6. Administration of PEEP or CPAP is associated with all of the following benefits except maintaining:
    A. alveoli open
    B alveoli stable
    C. fluid-filled alveoli open
    D. surfactant-depleted alveoli closed
    D. surfactant-depleted alveoli closed
  112. 7. Which of the following is considered a normal spontaneous tidal volume?
    A. 5 to 7 mL/kg
    B. 10 to 12 mL/kg
    C.7 to 9 mL/kg
    D. 3 to 5 mL/kg
    A. 5 to 7 mL/kg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. 8. Which of the following conditions do not require high mechanical respiratory rates?
    A. ARDS
    B. increased intracranial pressure
    C. metabolic alkalosis
    D. metabolic acidosis
    C. metabolic alkalosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. 9. Which of the following is the explanation positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP
    A. shunt-like effect
    B. diversion of blood from hypoventilated alveoli to ventilated alveoli
    C. diversion of blood from ventilated to hypoventilated areas
    D. hyperexpansion
    C. diversion of blood from ventilated to hypoventilated areas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. 10. Which of the following is the conseque:
    A. It takes more time to empty the alv
    B. It takes less time to fill and empty f
    C. It takes less time to fill and more til
    D. It takes more time to fill the alveoli
    B. It takes less time to fill and empty f
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. 11. Mean airway pressure may be increased by all of the following except increasing the:
    A. positive end-expiratory pressure
    B. inspiratory time
    C. frequency
    D. FiO2
    D. FiO2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. 12. On what does volume delivered depend during pressure targeted modes of ventilatory support?
    1. set pressure limit
    II. patient lung mechanics
    III. patient effort
    A. I and II
    B. I and III
    C. I, II, and III
    D. II and III
    A. I and II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. l3. Which of the following is FALSE about pressure limited modes of ventilation?
    A. The inspiratory flow varies with patient effort and lung mechanics
    B. The volume delivered at a given pressure must decrease as compliance falls
    C. The volume delivered at a given pressure must decreases as Raw rises
    D. Active effort by the patient against inspiration will decrease delivered volume
    C. The volume delivered at a given pressure must decreases as Raw rises
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. 14. The volume delivered by a pressure limited ventilator will decrease under all of the following conditions except:
    A. airway resistances rises
    B. the patient tenses the respiratory muscles during inspiration
    C. airway resistances rises
    D. the patient’s lung or thoracic compliance falls
    C. airway resistances rises
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. 15. Which of the following are considered safe settings for a recruitment maneuver
    I. pressures up to 50
    II. pressures up to 35
    III. pressures applied for 5 to 10 min
    IV. pressures applied for 1 to 2 min
    A. I and III
    B. II and III
    C. I and IV
    D. II and IV
    C. I and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. 16. The magnitude of WOB depends on which of the following?
    I. compliance
    II. resistance
    III. ventilatory drive
    IV. trigger sensitivity
    V. peak flow
    A. I, II, III, IV, and V
    B. I, II and III
    C. I, II, and V
    D. I and III
    A. I, II, III, IV, and V
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. 17. In which of the following modes of ventilator would the patient’s work of breathing be greatest?
    A. continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV)
    B. intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV)
    C. pressure-supported ventilation (PSV)
    D. continuous positive airway pressur (CPAP)
    D. continuous positive airway pressur (CPAP)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. 18. In which of the following modes of ventilatory support would the patient’s work of breathing be least?
    A continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
    B. pressure-supported ventilation (PS )
    C. intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV)
    D. continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV)
    D. continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV)
  124. 19. When bedside work of breathing measures are unavailable, you should adjust the level of pressure-supported ventilation (PSV) to which of the following breathing patterns?
    Spontaneous Rate VT
    A. 20 to 30 l/min 3 to 5ml/kg
    B. l0 to l5 l/min 3 to5ml/kg
    C. l5 to 25 l/min 8 to l0ml/kg
    D. 5 to 25 l/min 5 to 8 ml/kg
    D. 5 to 25 l/min 5 to 8 ml/kg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. 20. Which level of plateau pressure increases the likelihood of causing lung injury?
    A. >15
    B. >25
    C. >30
    D doesn’t matter as long as positive inspiratory pressure is less than 50
    C. >30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. 21. All of the following factors would tend o increase mean airway pressure except:
    A. increased levels of positive inspiratory pressure (PIP)
    B. T1 increased levels of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
    C. increased mandatory breaths
    D. short inspiratory times
    D. short inspiratory times
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. 22. Beneficial physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) include which of the following?
    I. increased PaO2 for given FiO2
    II. increased lung compliance (CL)
    III. decreased shunt fraction
    IV. increased functional residual capacity
    A. II, III, and IV
    B. I, II, III, and IV
    C. II and IV
    D. III and IV
    B. I, II, III, and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. 23. Detrimental effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) include all of the following except:
    A. increased CL
    B. increased incidence of barotrauma
    C. decreased venous return or cardiac output
    D. pulmonary vascular resistance
    A. increased CL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. 24. Contraindications for using positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) in conjunction
    with mechanical ventilation include which of the following?
    I. untreated bronchopleural fistula
    II. chronic airway obstruction
    III. untreated pneumothorax
    A. II and III
    B. I, II, and III
    C. I and III
    D. I and II
    C. I and III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. 25. Compared with a square wave flow pattern, a decelerating flow waveform has all of the following potential benefits except
    A. decreased volume of dead space to—tidal volume ratio (VD/VT)
    B. reduced peak pressure
    C. less inspiratory work
    D. improved cardiac output
    D. improved cardiac output
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. 26. Which of the following is a benefit of high inspiratory flows during positive-pressure ventilation?
    A. improved gas exchange
    B. higher peak pressures
    C. reduced air trapping
    D. higher work of breathing
    C. reduced air trapping
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. 27. Physiological effects of adding a volume include which of the following?
    I. decreased PaCO2
    II. increased inspiratory time
    III. decreased VD/VT
    IV. Longer expiratory times
    A. I, II, III, and IV
    B. II and IV
    C. I, II, and III
    D. III and IV
    C. I, II, and III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. 28. In which of the following modes does the patient’s ventilatory pattern have most control over PaO2, PaCO2, and acid base balance
    A. volume-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation
    B. volume-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
    C. pressure-controlled inspiratory reserve volume
    D. pressure-supported ventilation
    A. volume-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. 29. Which of the following modes of ventilatory support would result in the highest mean airway pressure?
    A. volume-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation
    B. volume-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
    C. pressure controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
    D. volume-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
    A. volume-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. 30. In which of the following modes of ventilatory support is muscle atrophy most likely to occure
    A. volume-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation
    B. volume-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation + pressure support
    C. pressure-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
    D. volume-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
    A. volume-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. 31. What are some key causes of patient-ventilator asynchrony and increased work of breathing during pressure-triggered you ventilation?
    I. improper trigger setting
    II. insufficient inspiratory flows
    III. high peak airway pressures
    A. I, II, and III
    B. I and II
    C. I and III
    D. II and III
    B. I and II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. 32. Inspection of the airway pressure waveform of a patient receiving volume controlled continuous mandatory ventilation assist control with constant flow reveals a large dip or drop in pressure ONLY at the very beginning of inspiration which of the problems is most likely?
    A. The pressure limit is too low.
    B. The trigger setting is improper.
    C. The set volume is too large.
    D. The inspiratory flow is inadequate
    B. The trigger setting is improper.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. 33. During volume-controled continous mandatory ventilation should either compliance decrease or airway resistance increases
    A. The peak airway pressure will decrease
    B. The inspiratory flow will increase
    C. The inspiratory time will decrease
    D. The peak airway pressure will increase
    D. The peak airway pressure will increase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. 34. Which of the following is FALSE about permissive hypercapnia if allowed to increase slowly?
    A. It lowers intrathoracic and alveolar pressures
    B. It increases pulmonary vascular resistance
    C. It can reduce the incidence of barotrauma
    D. It does not reduce systemic oxygenation
    B. It increases pulmonary vascular resistance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. 35. What mode of pressure-controlled ventilation is designed to prevent alveoli with short time constants from collapsing there by improving oxygenation
    A. pressure-controlled inverse ratio
    B. volume-assured pressure-support
    C. bilevel positive airway pressure
    D. pressure-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
    A. pressure-controlled inverse ratio
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. 36. A patient switched from pressure-control with positive end-expiratory pressure ventilation to pressure control inverse ratio ventilation (PC-IRV) shows a good improvement in oxygenation. Which of the following best explains this observation?
    A. High mean pressures caused by PC-IRV decreased pulmonary blood flow
    B. Intrinsic PEEP caused by PC-IRV resulted in increased alveolar recruitment
    C. High mean pressures caused by PC-IRV decreased cardiac output
    D. Intrinsic PEEP caused by PC-IRV compressed pulmonary capillaries
    C. High mean pressures caused by PC-IRV decreased cardiac output
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. 37. What are some physiological advantages of volume-assured pressure-supported ventilation?
    I. improved patient-ventilator synchrony
    II. increased pressure-time product
    III. decreased work of breathing
    A. II and III
    B. I and II
    C. I, II, and III
    D. I and III
    D. I and III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. 38. What factor primarily determines the effect of positive-pressure ventilation (PPV) on the cardiac output?
    A. mean pleural pressure
    B. CO2
    C. peak airway pressure
    D. expiratory time
    A. mean pleural pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. 39. Potential effects of hyperventilation on the central nervous system include which of the following?
    I. increased 02 consumption
    II. increased cerebral vascular resistance (CVR)
    III. increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
    A. I, II, and III
    B. I and II
    C. II and III
    D. I and III
    C. II and III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. 40. Positive-pressure ventilation (PPV) can reduce urinary output by how much?
    A. 80% to9O%
    B. 10% to 2O%
    C. 60% to7O%
    D. 30% to 50%
    D. 30% to 50%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. 41. Detrimental effects of auto positive end -expiratory pressure (PEEP) include all of the following except:
    A. increased pulmonary barotrauma
    B. pulmonary vascular resistance
    C. decreased venous return
    D. increased work of breathing
    B. pulmonary vascular resistance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. 42. Which of the following gastrointestinal contitions are commonly associated with long-term positive-pre ventilation
    I. bleeding
    II. ulceration
    III. diarrhea
    A. I, II, and III
    B. I and III
    C. II and III
    D. I and II
    D. I and II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. 43. Which of the following terms describe the lung injury associated with low tidal volumes?
    A. barotrauma
    B. volutrauma
    C. atelectrauma
    D. biotrauma
    C. atelectrauma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. 44. Which of the following lung units would be most prone to air trapping
    A. one with normal resistance and low compliance
    B. one with high resistance and high compliance
    C. one with low resistance and low compliance
    D. one with high resistance an low compliance
    B. one with high resistance and high compliance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. 45. The increased work of breathing associated with auto PEEP during mechanical ventilation is due to
    I. hyperinflation or impaired contractility of the diaphragm
    II. large alveolar pressure drops required triggere breaths
    III. increased volume of the intrathoracic airways
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. I, II, and III
    D. I and III
    A. I and II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. 1. When otherwise not identified, AC mode most often refers to which of the above breath delivery strategies.
    A. Pressure Control Mode
    B. Dual Control Mode
    C. Volume Control Mode
    C. Volume Control Mode
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. 2. The primary, or initial, breath delivery strategy in PRVC is which?
    A. Dual Control Mode
    B. Volume Control Mode
    C. Pressure Control Mode
    C. Pressure Control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. 3. APRV is what type of breath delivery strategy?
    A. Pressure Control Mode
    B. Volume Control Mode
    C. Dual Control Mode
    A. Pressure Control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. 4. PSV uses what type of breath delivery strategy?
    A. Volume Control Mode
    B. Pressure Control Mode
    C. Dual Control Mode
    B. Pressure Control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. 5. Which breath delivery strategy uses time as its exclusive criteria for terminating the inspiratory phase.
    A. Pressure Control Mode
    B. Dual Control Mode
    C. Volume Control Mode
    A. Pressure Control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. 6. PSV is what type of mode?
    A. Spontaneous Mode
    B. Mixed mechanical and Spontaneous Mode
    C. Machine-Controlled Mode
    A. Spontaneous Mode
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. 7. PC-SIMV + PSV is which of the above type of mode of ventilation?
    A. Machine-Controlled Mode
    B. Spontaneous Mode
    C. Mixed mechanical and Spontaneous Mode
    C. Mixed mechanical and Spontaneous Mode
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. 8. CPAP + PSV is which of the above type of mode of ventilation?
    A. Machine-Controlled Mode
    B. Mixed mechanical and Spontaneous Mode
    C. Spontaneous Mode
    C. Spontaneous Mode
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. 9. APRV + PSV is which of the above type of mode of ventilation?
    A. Spontaneous Mode
    B. Mixed mechanical and Spontaneous Mode
    C. Machine-Controlled Mode
    B. Mixed mechanical and Spontaneous Mode
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. 10. PRVC + CPAP is which of the above type of mode of ventilation?
    A. Mixed mechanical and Spontaneous Mode
    B. Machine-Controlled Mode
    C. Spontaneous Mode
    A. Mixed mechanical and Spontaneous Mode
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. 11. PC-IRV is which of the above type of mode of ventilation?
    A. Spontaneous Mode
    B. Mixed mechanical and Spontaneous Mode
    C. Machine-Controlled Mode
    C. Machine-Controlled Mode
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. 12. Primary criterion that terminates PSV mechanical breaths.
    A. Flow
    B. Time
    C. Pressure
    D. Volume
    A. Flow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. 13. Limit variable in VC breaths on PB 840.
    A. Flow
    B. Pressure
    C. Time
    D. Volume
    A. Flow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. 14. Variables that is not limited during inspiration phase of AC-VC.
    A. Time
    B. Volume
    C. Flow
    D. Pressure
    D. Pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. 15. Secondary criterion that terminates PSV mechanical breath when the patient coughs?
    A. Pressure
    B. Time
    C. Flow
    D. Volume
    C. Flow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. 16. Secondary criterion that terminates PSV mechanical breath when the patient has a leak in the circuit.
    A. Time
    B. Pressure
    C. Flow
    D. Volume
    A. Time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. 17. IPAP is similar to which above?
    A. PSV
    B. PEEP/CPAP
    C. APRV
    D. SIMV
    E. VC-AC
    A. PSV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. 18. Mode of ventilation that allows the greatest control of PaCO2.
    A. PEEP/CPAP
    B. SIMV
    C. PSV
    D. APRV
    E. VC-AC
    D. APRV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. 19. Mode that looks like PC-IRV if patient isn’t breathing.
    A. SIMV
    B. VC-AC
    C. APRV
    D. PEEP/CPAP
    E. PSV
    C. APRV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. 20. Just to make things really confusing, one manufacturer using the term Bipap to describe their version of mode of vent, used in most critical ARDS patient.
    A. VC-AC
    B. SIMV
    C. PEEP/CPAP
    D. APRV
    E. PSV
    D. APRV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. 21. Least benefit in assuring alveolar ventilation.
    A. PEEP/CPAP
    B. PSV
    C. SIMV
    D. APRV
    E. VC-AC
    A. PEEP/CPAP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. 22. Mode that describes WOB across a long, narrow ETT.
    A. VC-AC
    B. PSV
    C. APRV
    D. PEEP/CPAP
    E. SIMV
    B. PSV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. 23. EPAP is another name for which mode above?
    A. VC-AC
    B. APRV
    C. PEEP/CPAP
    D. PSV
    E. SIMV
    C. PEEP/CPAP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. 24. Which of the above mode has the best overall outcomes during 2 studies comparing weaning methodologies?
    A. Spontaneous breathing, with or without CPAP
    B. SIMV
    C. PSV
    A. Spontaneous breathing, with or without CPAP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. 25. Which one could provide greatest muscle relaxation if properly set?
    A. Spontaneous breathing, with or without CPAP
    B. SIMV
    C. PSV
    B. SIMV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. 26. MMV is most like which?
    A. PSV
    B. Spontaneous breathing, with or without CPAP
    C. SIMV
    C. SIMV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. 27. If a patient is in VC-CMV + automode on a Servo I, and the set inspiratory time is set @ 1 second, and the patient increases inspiratory demand, the vent will:
    A. The delivered vt could be greater than the set vt value and the inspiratory time could be greater or less than set inspiratory time.
    B. Deliver only the set tidal volume, but in less than one second (allowing increased inspiratory flow).
    C. Still deliver the set tidal volume in 1 second but the total rate will be increased.
    A. The delivered vt could be greater than the set vt value and the inspiratory time could be greater or less than set inspiratory time.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. 28. Which of the following term does not apply to the terms used by different maufactures regarding the peak airway pressure alarm.
    A. Pressure limit
    B. Pressure control
    C. Normal pressure limit
    D. Upper pressure limit
    B. Pressure control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. 29. To determine static compliance of the patient, which maneuver do you do?
    A. OVP test
    B. Inflation hold
    C. Tube compressibility test
    D. Expiratory hold
    B. Inflation hold
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. 30. Given that most ICU vents are pneumatically powered and microprocessor controlled machines, which of the following cycling criteria are used by vent for most modes of ventilation?
    A. Pressure
    B. Flow
    C. Time
    D. Volume
    C. Time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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