VTNE: Clinical Pathology

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VTNE: Clinical Pathology
2014-08-05 22:00:57
labratory procedures clinical pathology cytology

Clinical Pathology
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  1. Describe proestrus
    • vulvar swelling
    • vaginal discharge (may be bloody)
    • female not receptive
    • estrogen levels increase
    • 1-21 days
    • cytology: parabasal, intermediate (Early)
  2. Describe estrus
    • bitch stands for breeding
    • LH & FSH & progesterone¬†increase
    • ovulation
    • estrogen decreases
    • discharge changes from bloody to straw colored
    • 7-9 days
    • cytology: cornified superficial cells
  3. Describe diestrus
    • 7-9 days after LH surge
    • 50-55 days
    • cytology: parabasal, intermediate cells, increase in neutrophils, no RBC's
  4. How long does anestrus last?
    120-130 days
  5. exudate
    purulent or thickened material
  6. transudate
    clear, not infected
  7. What is in light blue top blood tubes?
    Sodium citrate, used for coagulation studies
  8. What is in royal blue top blood tubes?
    no anticoagulant or sodium heparin EDTA, toxicology testing in the human field
  9. What are green top tubes for?
    • Contain lithium (or sodium) heparin
    • Avian/ exotic hematology
    • Chemistry testing can be performed with plasma with this anticoagulant only.
  10. What are grey top tubes for?
    • Contain sodium fluoride
    • glucose determination studies (prevent utilization of glucose by RBCs)
  11. How can you tell the difference between crenation and poikilocytosis?
    crenation affects all the RBC's in a given area of the film, wheras true poikilocytosis onl affects scattered cells
  12. What changes in the CBC would be apparent in regenerative anemia?
    • reticulocytes
    • anisocytosis
    • polychromasia
    • decreased PCV & HGB
  13. How long does it take for the bone marrow to respond to anemia and start to produce juvenile RBC's?
    3-5 days
  14. What changes in the CBC would be apparent in non-regenerative anemia?
    • leukopenia
    • thrombocytopenia
    • decreased PCV & HGB
  15. What is typically seen on the blood film in IMHA/AIHA?
    • schistocytes (fragments of RBCs)
    • spherocytes (round, dense BC's)
  16. Mycoplasma hemofelis (previously Hemobartonella)
    small, short rounded rods alone or in chains on the surface of RBC's
  17. Ehrlichia canis
    • rikettsial organism
    • WBC parasite:looks like a small cluster of grapes
  18. Babesia canis
    • RBC parasite (tick bourne)
    • large, irregular inclusions
  19. Hematuria
    presence of blood in the urine
  20. Struvite Crystals (triple phosphate)
    urine pH?
    • alkaline urine
    • "coffinlid" appearance
    • often no clinical significance- seen occasionally in UTI
  21. Ammonium Urate (Biurate)
    • Alkaline, neutral, slightly acidic
    • smooth or irregular shaped
    • hyperammonemia due to portosystemic shunt or hepatic failure(Severe liver disease)
  22. Calcium Oxalate Dihydrate
    • Acidic, but any pH possible
    • colorless, refractile octahedron "envelope shaped"
    • Can be normal in dogs and cats
  23. Calcium Oxalate Monohydrate
    • Acidic, but any pH possible
    • "picket fence" shaped, "dumbbell", "hemp seed"
    • hypercalciuria, ethylene glycol poisoning, ingestion of oxalate-rich foods.
  24. Cystine
    • Acidic
    • colorless, hexagonal plates
    • cystinuria, an inherited defect
  25. PCV range for a dog
  26. PCV range for a cat
  27. Sudan stains are used to ID
    fecal fat
  28. Which stain is used to diagnose the presence of fat in cytology skin samples?
  29. What disease can be transmitted by aerosolization of canine urine?
  30. What does ID of casts in the UA mean?
    the pathology is NOT in the ureter, bladder, or urethra, but ongoing in the kidneys
  31. How long is FFP stable if frozen in a dedicated freezer?
    1 year
  32. In assessing titers, how long after the first serum sample is collected should the second sample be collected?
    14 weeks
  33. How long should you watch for growth on an agar plate before reporting 'no growth'
    5 days
  34. What are the two gram positive, spore forming rods? What is the difference between the two?
    • Bacillus- aerophobic
    • Clostridium- aerophilic
  35. Schizont
    asexual development stage of an endoparasite
  36. Giardia is a __________ organism
  37. Why is ZnSo4 often used ?
    least amount of distortion
  38. How long does it take Toxoplasma oocysts to become infectious after they are passed in the feces?
    2-4 days
  39. An infestation of domestic animals by lice is referred to as
  40. Yersinia pestis causes which disease and what is the vector?
    Plague is the disease and the flea is the vector
  41. Tick saliva contains what compounds?
    • anticoagulant
    • anti-histamine
    • vasodilatory
    • antiplatelet
  42. IgA
    found in body secretions
  43. IgG
    neutralizes microbes and toxins
  44. IgM
    activation of complement
  45. IgE
    immediate hypersensitivity
  46. IgD
    b-lymphocyte surface antigen receptor in some species
  47. What are the morphological characteristics of Campylobacter?
    gran negative spirochete
  48. What are the morphological characteristics of Staphylococcus?
    gram positive clusters
  49. Morpholgical characteristics of Streptococcus?
    gram positive cocci, pairs
  50. T/F: as urine sits, it becomes more alkaline