-
514 A regular gas turbine type engine’s performance is most affected by:
Ambient pressure and humidity
Ambient temperature and pressure
Mostly humidity in the air Vs ISA conditions
B
-
515 If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in
shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in:
Lbs of thrust
ESHP (equivalent shaft horse power)
Also SHP
B
-
516 What is the prime advantage of a fuel injected engine Vs a carburetor type:
A fuel injector better atomizes the fuel for optimum performance
A fuel injector is better because it can be adjusted on wing.
A fuel injector is less expensive because it does not need carburetor de-icing
A
-
517 Turbine engines have a compression ratio of say 20:3 just like normal internal combustion engines do,
this ratio on turbine type engines is:
Air pressures at the intake Vs the exhaust stage
Air pressures at the combustor stage Vs the turbine stage
Air pressures at the turbine Vs the exhaust stage
A
-
518 Turbine engines have a compression ratio just like internal combustion engines
True
False
Impossible since turbine engines do not have pistons
A
-
519 Constant speed propellers operate the same on an internal combustion engine as they do on most
turboprop engines because they both
Use a hydraulic oil system to feed an over speed solenoid
Use engine oil and a propeller governor to maintain a given RPM set by the pilot
Use a propeller governor and turbine/turbocharger air to pneumatically control the engine RPM in flight
B
-
520 With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation.
The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast.
Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip
vortices generated by airplanes.
A
-
521 When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.
Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.
A
-
522 To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at
which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
Past the point where the jet touched down.
At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.
Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
A
-
523 Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left
to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
A
-
524 During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip
vortices by
Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
Maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.
Extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
A
-
525 During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible
wind shear is monitoring the
Amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.
Heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.
Power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.
C
-
526 How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
C
-
527 What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.
Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.
29.92 Inches Hg.
C
-
528 When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above
_____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published
in NOTAMs.
30.50
31.00
32.00
B
-
529 After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot
Receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.
Is operating VFR on top.
Requests an amended clearance.
A
-
530 When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations should include
Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing.
Selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible.
Landing without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touchdown.
B
-
531 After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include
Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area.
Maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road.
Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing.
A
-
532 What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?
Risk management, stress management, and risk elements.
Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment.
Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it).
C
-
533 Light beacons producing red flashes indicate
A pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling.
Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation.
End of runway warning at departure end.
B
-
534 (Refer to figure 14.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?
Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.
A
-
535 (Refer to figure 14.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found
Upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.
At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
Near the approach end of ILS runways.
B
-
536 (Refer to figure 14.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely
clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft
Passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.
Is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.
Is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.
C
-
537 When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the
corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL
ME hazardous attitude?
It won't happen to me. It could happen to me.
Not so fast. Think first.
Follow the rules. They are usually right.
C
-
538 The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by
A total disregard for any alternative course of action.
Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and that may lead to a
mishap.
Imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions.
B
-
539 Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of
these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include:
Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations.
Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and operating without adequate
fuel reserves.
Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems.
B
-
540 An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves
a. Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.
Understanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.'
Obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.
A
-
541 Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by
Taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes.
Early recognition of hazardous thoughts.
Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
C
-
542 What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?
Dealing with improper judgment.
Recognition of hazardous thoughts.
Recognition of invulnerability in the situation.
B
-
543 What does good cockpit stress management begin with?
Knowing what causes stress.
Good life stress management.
Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues.
B
-
544 The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a
reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction?
Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight.
The pilot can't help it that the passengers are late.
If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time.
A
-
545 While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the
rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he
elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the
INVULNERABILITY reaction?
It's too late to fix it now.
He can handle a little problem like this.
What is the worst that could happen.
C
-
546 Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to
Assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority.
Promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior.
Complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the 'right stuff.'
C
-
547 While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which
of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction?
He is not too concerned, everything will be alright.
He flies a little closer, just to show him.
He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision.
B
-
548 To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must
Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.
Be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying.
Avoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle cockpit responsibilities.
A
-
549 A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the
pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load.
Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction?
He can't wait around to de-fuel, they have to get there on time.
Well, nobody told him about the extra weight.
Weight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by the FAA.
B
-
550 Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and
Aeronautical Decision Making?
Estimate.
Eliminate.
Evaluate.
C
-
551 Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and
Aeronautical Decision Making?
Identify.
Detect.
Evaluate.
B
-
552 The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching
Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are:
Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.
Determine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate.
Determine, evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate.
A
-
553 Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a
Mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on
what action to take.
Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of
action for a given set of circumstances.
Decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.
B
-
554 The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision
making. One of these steps includes a pilot
Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.
Developing the 'right stuff' attitude.
Making a rational evaluation of the required actions.
A
-
555 The 'taxiway ending' marker
Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
Indicates taxiway does not continue.
Provides general taxiing direction to taxiway.
B
-
556 On a runway equipped with a precision approach, the touch down zone markings are located:
At the end of the 3.000 Ft. TDZ
Depends if it’s a CAT I, II or III ILS runway
500 Ft from the beginning of the runway
C
-
557 The area before a displaced threshold may be used:
Only in emergencies
For taxiing and landing rollout only
For taxiing, take off and landing rollout
C
-
558 A red background sign with white lettering denotes:
Warning positions for Non commercial or VFR aircraft
Instructions for military aircraft only
An entrance to a runway a critical area or an area prohibited to aircraft
C
-
559 A runway incursion is:
a. Not possible at airports with separate tower, ground and ramp controllers
A serious offence punishable to non licensed ground vehicle drivers
Any occurrence that creates a collision hazard on a runway
C
-
560 On a PAPI you are on a correct glide path if:
You see 2 white lights next to 2 red lights on the R side of the runway
You stay within the standard 3o glide path
You see 2 white lights on the outside and 2 red lights close to the left margin of the runway
C
-
561 Runway center line lights are:
White and green
White and spaced every 25 Ft except for the last 500 Ft which are red
Red for the last 1.000 Ft of the runway
B
-
562 Airlines may not operate aircraft in uncontrolled airspace:
True, Passenger carrying flights must always be operated in class A, B or C airspaces
False, It is allowed if the airline has foreign registered aircraft operating in Colombia
False, it is allowed so long as the OPS SPECS say so
C
-
563 If you are cleared to a VOR on a descent from Fl. 190 to 9.000 Ft. and your IAS is 279 Kts, when at
the VOR:
You must slow down to 200 Kts
You are legal since you did not exceed 280 Kts
You are illegal unless specifically authorized by ATC
C
-
564 On an approach to an airport, you have been advised you are in radar contact and are vectored for the
approach, the controller asks you fly slightly below the MEA, you should:
Not obey, since you may be in or encounter clouds
Obey to all instructions since you were advised to be in radar contact
Obey so long as you are not asked to fly below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude in IMC
B
-
565 Intersection take offs are:
Not allowed for passenger flights
Not allowed in Colombia for foreign registered aircraft
Allowed under dry pavement conditions only
C
-
566 When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe,
engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes
The unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil
All usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage.
All usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instruments that were installed by
someone other than the manufacturer.
A
-
567 If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at
the
Centerline of the main wheels.
Nose, or out in front of the airplane.
Centerline of the nose or tailwheel, depending on the type of airplane.
B
-
568 The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods?
Dividing total arms by total moments.
Multiplying total arms by total weight
Dividing total moments by total weight.
C
-
569 Automated flight decks or cockpits
Enhance basic pilot flight skills.
Decrease the work load in terminal areas.
Often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.
B
-
570 Identify REIL.
Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway.
Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
C
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