-
571 What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
Lights are closed together and easily distinguinished from surrounding lights.
Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for caution zone.
Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of the runway for caution zone.
B
-
572 What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?
Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white and green.
Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white.
One light projector with two colors; red and white.
B
-
573 You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway.
You are considered clear of the runway when
The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign.
The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.
All parts of the aircraft hace crossed the hold line.
C
-
574 (Refer to Figure 15.) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would exceed the airplane’s
crosswind capability of 0.2 V(SO), if V(SO) is 60 knots?
260° at 20 knots.
275° at 25 knots.
315° at 35 knots.
A
-
575 (Refer to Figure 15.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind
component for a Rwy 08 landing?
7 knots.
15 knots.
17 knots.
C
-
576 (Refer to Figure 15.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy
13 landing?
19 knots.
21 knots.
23 knots.
A
-
577 What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?
a. -5°C.
-15°C.
+5°C.
A
-
578 What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet?
-15°C.
-20°C.
-25°C.
C
-
579 W hat are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
15°C and 29.92" Hg.
59°F and 1013.2" Hg.
15°C and 29.92 Mb.
C
-
580 The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on
Pressure/density altitude.
Cabin altitude.
True altitude.
A
-
581 What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine
performance?
As air density decreases, thrust increases.
As temperature increases, thrust increases.
As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
C
-
582 With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use
Aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and
nosewheel-type airplanes.
Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both
tricycle- and conventional-gear airplanes.
Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than
normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type airplanes.
C
-
583 When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for
what primary reason?
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.
Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane.
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as
possible.
A
-
584 A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming
airborne on takeoff is
Maintaining a safe airspeed.
Landing directly into the wind.
Turning back to the takeoff field.
A
-
585 Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?
A power-on approach and power-on landing.
A power-off approach and power-on landing.
A power-on approach and power-off landing.
A
-
586 A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the
Direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway.
Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.
Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift.
A
-
586 A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the
Direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway.
Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.
Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift.
B
-
587 What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?
Increases takeoff speed.
Increases takeoff distance.
Decreases takeoff distance.
B
-
588 At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed
Will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster.
Will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged.
Should be increased to compensate for the thinner air.
A
-
589 Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate
to decrease?
Sudden decrease in the headwind component.
Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.
Sudden increase in a headwind component.
C
-
590 Which INITIAL cockpit indicatons should a pilot be awere of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?
Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases.
Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases.
Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
C
-
591 Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed?
Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.
Increasing tailwind and headwind.
Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
C
-
592 Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?
Decreasing headwind or tailwind.
Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
B
-
593 What is the recommended technique to counter a loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?
Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed.
Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed", and apply maximum power.
Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.
C
-
594 What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
C
-
595 Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?
When constant pressure charts show a 20-knot isotaches less than 60 NM apart.
When constant pressure charts show a 60-knot isotaches less than 20 NM apart.
When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
A
-
596 Which is the definition of "severe wind shear"?
Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted.
Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or
vertical speed changes greater tan 500 ft/min
Any change of airspeed greater than 20 Knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical
speed changes in excess of 100ft/min.
B
-
597 What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions
on the airport is reported?
Light and variable.
Wind shear.
Frontal passage.
B
-
598 Which INTIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be awere of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm
wind?
a. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.
Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
C
-
599 Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as fas as
1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain.
5,000 feet above the tropopause.
100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.
C
-
600 What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)
Extend flaps to decrease wind loading.
Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability.
Adjust airspeed to that recomended for rough air.
C
-
601 If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recomended?
Mantain a constant altitude.
Mantain a constant attitude.
Mantain constant airspeed and altitude.
B
-
602 Which action is recomended regarding an altitude change to get out of the jet stream turbulence?
Descend if ambient temperature is falling.
Descend if ambient temperature is rising.
Mantain altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.
A
-
603 Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encontered behind large aircraft is created only when that
aircraft is
Developing lift.
Operating at high airspeeds.
Using high power settings.
A
-
604 Which flight conditions of large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip
vortices of the greatest strength?
Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
A
-
605 What effect would a light corsswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by large airplane that has
just taken off?
The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
A
-
606 What wind condition prolongs the hazard of the wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest
period of time?
Direct tailwind.
Light quartering tailwind.
Light quartering headwind.
C
-
607 To avoid the wingtip vortices of a desparting jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should
Lift off at a point well past the jet airplanes flight path.
Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplanes flight path.
Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.
B
-
608 If you take off behaind a jeavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off
prior to the point where the jet touched down.
beyond the point where the jet touched down.
at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
B
-
609 What is the pilots responsability for the clearance or instruction readback?
Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignmets, altitude restrictions, and vectors.
If the clearance or instruction is understood, and acknowledgement is sufficient.
Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.
A
-
610 What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a
regulation?
Read the clearance back in its entirety.
Request a clarification from ATC.
Do no accept the clearance.
B
-
611 What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?
Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.
Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed.
Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
A
-
612 What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually
maintaining 8,000?
Immediately climb to 9000.
Report climbing to 9000.
Report maintaining 9000.
A
-
613 Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airway or routes?
Over all designated compulsory reporting points.
Only where specifically requested by ARTCC.
When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.
A
-
614 Wich reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?
Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a
holding fix or point to which cleared.
Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a
holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10
Knots.
Vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to
which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 Knots, and leaving and
assigned holding fix or point.
C
-
615 TCAS I provides
traffic and resolution advisories.
proximity warning.
recomended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.
B
-
616 El número de las naciones unidas asignado por el comité de expertos en transporte de MP consta de:
2 dígitos.
3 dígitos.
4 dígitos.
C
-
617 ¿Cuántas clases de MP existen?
9.
15.
6.
A
-
618 Un animal vivo infectado:
Podrá llevarse abordo debidamente encerrado.
Es prohibido transportarlo por vía aérea.
Esta prohibido transportarlos por vía aérea salvo dispensa de los estados interesados.
C
-
619 En las normas relacionadas con MP además de los idiomas exigidos por el estado de origen, debería
utilizarse:
Ruso
Español.
Inglés.
C
-
620 Ningún explotador aceptara para su transporte por vía aérea bulto o embalaje externo que contenga
MP.
A menos que se haya certificado que los bultos satisfacen las condiciones pertinentes previstas en las
instrucciones técnicas
Hasta que no se haya inspeccionado que llevan las marcas y etiquetas debidas.
Todas las anteriores.
C
-
621 Quien ha instituido procedimientos internacionales que regulan la introducción de MP en el transporte
aéreo a través del servicio postal.
La OACI.
IFALPA.
La unión postal universal.
A
-
622 Todo artículo que contiene una o mas sustancias explosivas se denomina:
Incompatible.
Artículo explosivo.
Liquido pirofórico.
C
-
623 Las sustancias tóxicas se pueden clasificar en:
Sustancias venenosas.
Sustancias explosivas
Sustancias corrosivas.
A
-
624 Que mercancías no se estibaran junto a otras en una aeronave:
MP incompatibles.
Mercancías capaces de reaccionar peligrosamente entre si.
A y B son correctas.
C
-
625 Todo bulto de MP llevara las etiquetas de manipulación apropiadas:
Siempre.
Vuelos nacionales
Vuelos internacionales.
A
-
626 El piloto al mando puede negarse a efectuar un transporte de MP si:
No se le ha proporcionado por escrito la información adecuada.
No se le ha solicitado la autorización oportuna.
El avión lleva VIP. abordo.
A
-
627 Diga que frase es cierta:
Las discrepancias de los estados se comunican a OACI.
Las diferencias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.
Las discrepancias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.
A
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