# AVA 01

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1. 1 The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a
coordinated turn, is because the

A.Thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.

B.Vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.

C.Use of ailerons has increased the drag.
B
2. 2 Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?

A.The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.

The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.

Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.
B
3. 3 Defines VNO as

Maximum operating limit speed.

Maximum structural cruising speed.

Never-exceed speed.
B
4. 4 Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the

Rate of turn.

Angle of bank.

True airspeed
B
5. 5 The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by

Changes in air density

Variations in flight altitude.

C
6. 6 During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift

Is momentarily decreased.

Remains the same.

Is momentarily increased.
C
7. 7 Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time

Divided by the total weight of the aircraft.

Multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft.

Divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.
A
8. 8 Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the

Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.

Differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.

Reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts

perpendicular to the mean camber.
A
9. 9 While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would

Remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.

Vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportionately.

Vary depending upon the resultant lift vector
A
10. 10 Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all

Upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.

Forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces.

Forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.
C
11. 11 What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane?
Maximum

Gain in altitude over a given distance.

Range and maximum distance glide.

Coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag.
B
12. 12 The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon:

High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed.

Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed.

Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.
B
13. 13 In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become

Twice as great.

Half as great.

Four times greater.
C
14. 14 As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an
airplane

Decreases because of lower parasite drag.

Increases because of increased induced drag.

Increases because of increased parasite drag.
B
15. 15 If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor
will

Increase as well as the stall speed.

Decrease and the stall speed will increase.

Remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.
C
16. 16 The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of

Weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.

Dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude.

Weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.
A
17. 17 Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level
flight?

These forces are equal.

Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.

Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.
A
18. 18 On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the

Chord line.

Flightpath.

Longitudinal axis.
B
19. 19 An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the

Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface.

Vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface.

Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.
C
20. 20 In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift
produced at the higher speed will be

The same as at the lower speed.

Two times greater than at the lower speed.

Four times greater than at the lower speed.
C
21. 21 By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's

Lift, airspeed, and drag.

Lift, airspeed, and CG.

Lift and airspeed, but not drag
A
22. 22 A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the

Wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root.

Wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip.

Center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip.
B
23. 23 Stall speed is affected by

Load factor, angle of attack, and power.

Angle of attack, weight, and air density.
A
24. 24 Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?

A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.

An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.

An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
C
25. 25 For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude
turn

Is constant and the stall speed increases.

Varies with the rate of turn.

Is constant and the stall speed decreases.
A
26. 26 If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to

Minimum control speed.

Design-maneuvering speed.

Maximum structural cruising speed.
B
27. 27 A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling
slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the

Right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

Left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.

Left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
B
28. 28 Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?

At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.

There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift

to maintain altitude.

An airfoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed, therefore, an increase in weight will require an

increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
B
29. 29 The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is
known as

Load factor and directly affects stall speed.

Aspect load and directly affects stall speed.

Load factor and has no relation with stall speed.
A
30. 30 (Refer to figure 1) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by
the maximum speed limit of the

Green arc.

Yellow arc.

White arc.
A
31. 31 If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the

3,000 pounds.

4,000 pounds.

12,000 pounds.
B
32. 32 If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed
forward and released, the airplane displays

Positive dynamic stability.

Positive static stability.

Neutral dynamic stability.
B
33. 33 Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its

Rudder.

Elevator.

Ailerons.
B
34. 34 Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by

Bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

Pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
B
35. 35 If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and
released, the airplane displays

Neutral longitudinal static stability.

Positive longitudinal static stability.

Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
A
36. 36 In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to

Increase.

Decrease.

Not vary.
A
37. 37 When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for
what primary reason?

Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.

Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane.

Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as

possible.
A
38. 38 Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its

Center of gravity moves forward.

Center of gravity moves aft.
C
39. 40 If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The
angle of attack

And angle of bank must be decreased.

Must be increased or angle of bank decreased.

Must be decreased or angle of bank increased.
C
40. 41 Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

Power, pitch, bank, and trim.

Thrust, lift, turns, and glides.

Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
C
41. 42 A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming
airborne on takeoff is

Maintaining a safe airspeed.

Landing directly into the wind.

Turning back to the takeoff field.
A
42. 43 To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should

Maintain the bank and decrease airspeed.

Increase the bank and increase airspeed.

Increase the bank and decrease airspeed.
C
43. 44 (Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall

10 knots higher in a power-on, 60° bank, with gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down.

25 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level

configuration.

10 knots higher in a 45° bank, power-on stall, than in a wings-level stall with flaps up.
A
44. 45 An airplane leaving ground effect will

Experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.

Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.

Require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.
B
45. 46 One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to

Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

Provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed.

Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made.
B
46. 47 The spoilers should be in what position when operating in a strong wind?

Extended during both a landing roll or ground operation.

Retracted during both a landing roll or ground operation.

Extended during a landing roll, but retracted during a ground operation.
A
47. 48 The purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease

The drag.

Landing speed.

The lift of the wing.
C
48. 49 Propeller efficiency is the

Ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.

Actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.

Ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.
A
49. 50 In order to achieve single engine climb performance with an engine failed in most twin prop aircraft, it is
essential to:

Apply full power to the live engine (firewall)

Minimize drag (flaps, gear, feather prop)

Secure the failed engine
B
50. 51 If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will

increase,and induced drag will decrease.

decrease, and parasite drag will increase.

increase, and induced drag will increase
A
51. 52 In order to achieve a zero sideslip condition with a failed engine on a propeller aircraft, the pilot must:

Bank away from the live engine up to 5o

Center the ball on the turn and slip indicator

Bank into the live engine slightly
C
52. 53 When dealing with aerodynamics, VMC refers to:

Visual Meteorological Conditions

Minimum airspeed at which directional control can be maintained with the critical engine inoperative

Maximum airspeed at which an engine can be operated with one engine
B
53. 54 On an aircraft without counter-rotating props, the left engine is considered to be the critical one to fail
because of the following factors:

Zero sideslip condition, engine windmilling and aft legal C of G.

P-factor, Accelerated slipstream, Spiraling slipstream and Torque

No power available Vs power required, yaw towards the left engine and sideslip
B
54. 55 Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of

A heat exchange.

The movement of air.

A pressure differentia.
A
55. 56 What causes wind?

The Earth’s rotation.

Air mass modification.

Pressure differences.
C
56. 57 In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the

Right by Coriolis force.

Right by surface friction.

Left by Coriolis force.
A
57. 58 Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?

Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.

Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a light connecting the highs and lows.

Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.
A
58. 59 What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?

Coriolis force.

Surface friction.

A
59. 60 Which would increase the stability of an air mass?

Warning from below.

Cooling from below.

Decrease in water vapor.
A
60. 61 Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

Constant height above the Earth.

Abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate.

Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
B
61. 62 A common location of clear air turbulence is

In an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream.

Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow.

South of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage.
A
62. 63 The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by

Dust or haze at flight level.

Long streaks of cirrus clouds.

A constant outside air temperature.
B
63. 64 During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the

North and speed decreases.

South and speed increases.

North and speed increases.
B
64. 65 Which type of jet stream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?

A straight jet stream associated with a low-pressure trough.

A curving jet stream associated with a deep low-pressure trough.

A jet stream occurring during the summer at the lower latitudes.
B
65. 66 Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion?

Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind.

Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface.

Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude.
A
66. 68 Which is the true with a respect to a high- or low-pressure system?

A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air.

A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.
C
67. 69 Which is the true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?

A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.

Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized by descending air.
B
68. 70 Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dew point temperature spread? The temperature

Decreases as the relative humidity decreases.

Decreases as the relative humidity increases.

Increases as the relative humidity increases.
B
69. 71 Moisture is added to a parcel of air by

Sublimation and condensation.

Evaporation and condensation.

Evaporation and sublimation.
C
70. 72 Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?

Warming from below.

Cooling from below.

Decrease in water vapor.
A
71. 73 What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to
ascend?

The method by which the air is lifted.

The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.
B
72. 74 When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is
forecast, one can expect what type of weather?

Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds.

Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area.

Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.
C
73. 75 If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds
will be

Cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence.

Cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence.

Stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.
C
74. 76 What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?

Fog and low stratus clouds.

Continuous heavy precipitation.

Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.
C
75. 77 The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and

Unstable, dry air.

Stable, moist air.

Unstable, moist air.
B
76. 78 Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

Cirrus clouds.

Nimbostratus clouds.

Towering cumulus clouds.
C
77. 79 Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good
visibility, and showery rain?

Stable, moist air and orographic lifting.

Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting.

Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism
B
78. 80 What are the characteristics of stable air?

Good visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds.

Poor visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds.

Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, cumulus clouds.
B
79. 81 What is a characteristic of stable air?

Stratiform clouds.

Fair weather cumulus clouds.

Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude.
A
80. 82 When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions are most likely to exist?

Numerous towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds.

Moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels.

Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor visibility.
C
81. 83 Which is characteristic of stable air?

Cumuliform clouds.

Excellent visibility.

Restricted visibility.
C
82. 84 Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass?

Cumuliform clouds.

Showery precipitation.

Continuous precipitation.
C
83. 85 Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?

Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.

Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.

Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.
B
84. 86 Which is true regarding a cold from occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front

Is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

Is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

Has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.
B
85. 87 The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of

Stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

Unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

Moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.
A
86. 88 One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and

Below rotor clouds.

Above rotor clouds.

Below lenticular clouds.
A
87. 89 Virga is best described as

Streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground.

Wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground.

Turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.
A
88. 90 The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are
generally associated with.

Slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause.

Squall lines.

Fast-moving occluded fronts.
B
89. 91 If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be
avoided by a distance of at least

20 miles.

10 miles.

5 miles.
A
90. 92 What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorm?

Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail.

Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static.

Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds.
C
91. 93 Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

The start of rain.

The appearance of an anvil top.

Growth rate of clouds is maximum.
A
92. 94 What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of thunderstorm?

Roll cloud.

Continuous updraft.

Beginning of rain at the surface.
B
93. 95 During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

Mature.

Developing.

Dissipating.
C
94. 96 What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly
between these thunderstorms?

20 miles.

30 miles.

40 miles.
C
95. During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2 “ thick on the
leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds al 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your
destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the
destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees
Celsius. You decide to:

Use a faster than normal approach and landing speed.

Approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect.

Fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the “wind chill” effect and break up the ice.
A
96. 98 Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause.

The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal.

The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal.

Drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff.

97. 99 A characteristic of the stratosphere is

An overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude.

A relatively even base altitude of approximately 35.000 feet.

Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.
C
98. 100 Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

Absence of wind and turbulent conditions.

Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.

Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.
C
99. 101 A jet stream is defined as wind of

a. 30 knots or greater.

40 knots or greater.

50 knots or greater.
C
100. 102 The primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather is

Variation of solar energy received by the Earth’s regions.

Changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface.

Movement of the air masses.
A
101. 103 If the air temperature is +8oC at an elevation of 1.350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse
rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?

3.350 feet MSL.

5.350 feet MSL.

9.350 feet MSL.
B
102. 104 A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

The movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement f warm air under cold air.

Ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.
C
103. 105 What feature is associated with temperature inversion?

A stable layer of air.

An unstable layer of air.

Air mass thunderstorms.
A
104. 106 Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when
the relative humidity is high?

Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, r low clouds.

Light wind shear and poor visibility due t haze and light rain.

Turbulence air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus-type clouds, and showery precipitation.
A
105. 107 Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right
until parallel to the isobars?

Centrifugal.

Coriolis.
C
106. 108 Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

Water vapor condenses.

Water vapor is present.

The temperature and dew point are equal.
A
107. 109 To which meteorological condition does the term “dew point” refer?

The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.

The temperature at which dew will always form.
A
108. 110 The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on

Relative humidity.

Air temperature.

Stability of air.
B
109. 111 What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?

Upward currents.

Cyclonic movement.
B
110. 112 The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon
the

Source of lift

Stability of air being lifted

Temperature of the air being lifted
B
111. 113 Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?

Low-level winds.

Ambient lapse rate.

Atmospheric pressure.
B
112. 114 What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

The method by which the air is lifted.

The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.
B
113. 115 What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?

First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.

Vertical clouds with increasing height.

Stratified clouds with little vertical development.
C
114. 116 What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?

Layered clouds with little vertical development.

Stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence.

Clouds with extensive vertical development.
C
115. 117 Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-
type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?

Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism.

Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting.

Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.
C
116. 118 The suffix “nimbus”, used in naming clouds, means a

Cloud with extensive vertical development.

Rain cloud.

Dark massive, towering cloud.
B
117. 119 What are the four families of clouds

Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.

Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air.

High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.
C
118. 120 A high cloud is composed mostly of

Ozone.

Condensation nuclei.

Ice crystals.
C
119. 121 Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?

Low clouds.

High clouds.

Clouds with extensive vertical development.
B
120. 121 Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?

Low clouds.

High clouds.

Clouds with extensive vertical development.
B
121. 123 Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate

An inversion.

Unstable air.

Turbulence.
c
122. 124 The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of.

A jet stream.

Very strong turbulence.

Heavy icing conditions.
B
123. 125 Ice pellets encountred during flight normally are evidence that

A warm front has passed.

A warmfront is about to pass.

there are thunderstroms in the area
B
124. 126 An air mass is a body of air that

Has similar cloud formations associated with it.

Creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth’s surface.

Covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.
C
125. 127 Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?

A wind change.

An abrupt decrease in pressure.

Clouds, either ahead or behind the front.
A
126. 128 If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?

Constant airspeed (VA).

Level flight attitude.

Constant altitude and constant airspeed.
B
127. 129 If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design
maneuvering speed because the

Maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.

Amount of excess load than can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.

Airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.
B
128. 130 A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude
should report it as

Light turbulence.

Moderate turbulence.

Light chop.
A
129. 131 What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture.

A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate.

Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.
C
130. 132 Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

The start of rain at the surface.

Growth rate of clouds is maximum.

Strong turbulence in the cloud.
A
131. 133 During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

Cumulus.

Dissipating.

Mature.
B
132. 134 What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the
mature stage?

The anvil top has completed its development.

Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.

A gust front forms.
B
133. 135 Where do squall lines most often develop?

In an occluded front.

In a cold air mass.

C
134. 136 Which thunderstorm generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive.

Warm front.

Squall line.

Air mass.
B
135. 137 What is indicated by the term “embedded thunderstorms”?

Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.

Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.

Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.
C
136. 138 Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?

Lightning.

Heavy rain showers.

Supercooled raindrops.
A
137. 139 Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm
activity?

Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.

Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude.

Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight

attitude.
C
138. 140 Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are
failing.

When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing.

Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is

colder than freezing.
C
139. 141 Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?

Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil.

Frost decreases control effectiveness.

Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.
C
140. 142 In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of
accumulation?

Cumulonimbus clouds.

High humidity and freezing temperature.

Freezing rain.
C
141. 143 Where does wind shear occur?

Exclusively in thunderstorms.

Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature.

With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
C
142. 144 What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.

It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature

inversion.

It may be associated with either a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
C
143. 145 Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?

With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.

With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.

Turbulence will always exist in wind-shear conditions.
a
144. 146 Which forecast provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility,
weather, and obstructions to vision in a route formal?

Area Forecast.

Terminal Forecast.

C
145. 147 The Surface Analysis Chart depicts

Frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision
at the time of chart transmission.

Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions at
the valid time of the chart.

Actual pressure distribution, frontal systems, cloud heights and coverage, temperature, dew point, and
wind at the time shown on the chart.
B
146. 148 Which provides a graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather?

Surface Weather Map.

Weather Depiction Chart.
C
147. 149 When total sky cover is few or scattered, the height shown on the Weather Depiction Chart is the

Top of the lowest layer.

Base of the lowest layer.

Base of the highest layer.
B
148. 150 Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future?

Freezing Level Chart.

Weather Depiction Chart.

12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostication Chart.
C
149. 151 What is the upper limit of the low level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?

30.000 feet.

24.000 feet.

18.000 feet.
B
150. 152 The most current en route and destination weather information for an instrument flight should be
obtained from the

AFSS.

Notices to Airman Publications.
A
151. 153 What is meant by the Special METAR weather observation for KBOI? SPECI KBOI 09185AZ 32005KT
1 1/2SM RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2990 RMK RAB12

Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky, rain began at 1912z.

Rain and mist obstructing visibility, rain began at 1812Z.

Rain and overcast at 1200 feet AGL.
B
152. 154 To best determine observed weather conditions between weather reporting stations, the pilot should
refer to

Pilot reports.

Area Forecast.

Prognostic charts.
A
153. 155 A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude
should report it as

Light chop.

Light turbulence.

Moderate turbulence.
B
154. 156 When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but aircraft control remains positive, that
should be reported as

Light.

Severe.

Moderate.
C
155. 157 Turbulence that is encountered above 15.000 feet AGL not associated with cumuliform cloudiness,
including thunderstorms, should be reported as

Severe turbulence.

Clear air turbulence.

Convective turbulence.
B
156. 158 What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

True directions and MPH.

True directions and Knots.

Magnetic direction and knots.
B
157. 159 SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions which are hazardous

To all aircraft.

Particularly to heavy aircraft.

Particularly to light airplanes.
A
158. 160 Which correctly describes the purpose of convective SIGMETs (WST)?

They consist of an hourly observation of tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity, and large hail
stone activity.

They contain both an observation and a forecast of all thunderstorm and hailstone activity. The forecast
is valid for 1 hour only.

They consist of either an observation and a forecast or just a forecast for tornadoes, significant
thunderstorm activity, or hail greater than or equal 3/4 inch in diameter.
C
159. 161 What type of in flight Weather Advisories provides an en route pilot with information regarding the
possibility of moderate icing, moderate turbulence, winds of 30 knots or more at the surface and
extensive mountain obscurement?

Convective SIGMETs and SIGMETs.

Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW) AND SIGMETs.

AIRMETs and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).
C
160. 162 What single reference contains information regarding volcanic eruption, that is occurring or expected to
occur?

Terminal Area Forecast (TAF).

Weather Depiction Chart.
A
161. 163 The Hazardous In flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a broadcast service over service over
selected VORs that provides

SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance.

SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour.
B
162. 164 When are severe weather watch bulletins (AWW) issued?

Every 12 hours as required.

Every 24 hours as required.

Unscheduled and issued as required.
C
163. 165 SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous

Particularly to light aircraft.

To all aircraft.

Only to light aircraft operations.
B
164. 166 Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?

Widespread sand or dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.

Moderate icing.

Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface.
A
165. 167 The surface Analysis Chart depicts

Actual pressure systems, frontal locations, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the chart.

Frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision
at the time of chart transmission.

Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to
vision at the valid time of the chart.
C
166. 168 What important information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other
weather charts?

Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.

Types of precipitation.

Areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the clouds.
A
167. 169 What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with moutain wave?

Rotor Cloud

Standing Lenticular

Low Stratus
A
168. 170 At which location does Coriolis force have the laest effect on wind direction

At the poles

Middle latitudes (30°-60°)

At the Equator.
C
169. 171 El codigo SKC se utiliza en el METAR cuando?

La Visibilidad es menos a 10 KM. Y hay nubosidad por debajo de 5000 FT.

La visibilidad horizontal es mayor a 10 KM. Y el cielo esta despejado.

La visbilidad horizontal es menor de 10 KM. Y el viento esta despejado.
B
170. 172 En un mapa meteorológico y en una carta de vuelo, un frente oculido se representa por?

Una linea de color púrpura, triángulos y semicirculos colocados sobre éste.

Una linea azul y triángulos alternos colocados a lo largo de éste.

Una línea de color rojo y semicirculos colocados a lo largo de éste.
A
171. 173 En el tropico el mayor peligro para una aeronave en vuelo cerca o dentro de una CB es?

Los rayos y el granizo.

La turbulencia.

B
172. 174 What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500 millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL
180?

Winds aloft at FL 180 generally flow across the height contours.

Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be

approximated.

Upper highs, lows, troughs, and ridges will be depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure.
B
173. 175 (Refer to Figure 4) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky?

FL390.

FL300 sloping to FL 400 feet MSL.

FL340.
C
174. 176 Which meteorological conditions are depicted by prognostic chart?

Conditions existing at the time of the observation.

Interpretation of weather conditions for geographical areas between reporting stations.

Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart.
C
175. 177 (Refer to figure 5, SFC-PROG.) The chart symbols shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending
into AL, GA, SC and northern FL indicate a

Tropical storm.

Hurricane.

Tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico.
A
176. 178 What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?

Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.

Winds and temperatures aloft.
C
177. 179 (Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum wind velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high
level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart over Canada?

80.

103.

130.
C
178. 180 A prognostic chart depicts the conditions

a. Existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.

Which presently exist exist from the 1.000-milibar through the 700-milibar level.

Forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.
C
179. 181 (Refer to figure 6.) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low-Level
Significant Weather Prog Chart?

Showery precipitation (e.g. rain showers) embedded in an area of continuous rain covering half or more
of the area.

Continuous precipitation (e.g. rain showers) covering half or more of the area.

Showery precipitation (e.g. thunderstorms/rain showers) covering half or more of the area.

A
180. (Refer to figure 5, SFC-400MB.) The U.S. Low Level Significant Weather Surface Prog Chart at 00Z
indicates that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah can expect

Moderate or greater turbulence from the surface to FL 240.

Moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240.

No turbulence is indicated.

A
181. 183 (Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E?

Occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, bases below 24.000 feet MSL, and tops at 40.000 feet
MSL.

Frequent embedded thunderstorms, less than 1/8 coverage, and tops at FL370.

Frequent lighting in thunderstorms at FL370.
A
182. 184 (Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow D?

Forecast isolated thunderstorm, tops at FL 440, more than 1/8 coverage.

Existing isolated cumulonimbus clouds, tops above 43.000 feet with less than 1/8 coverage.

Forecast isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds with tops at 43.000 feet MSL, and less than 1/8

coverage.
C
183. 185 (Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are predicted within the area indicated by arrow C?

Light turbulence at FL 370 within the area outlined by dashes.

Moderate turbulence at 32.000 feet MSL.

Moderate to sever CAT has been reported at FL 320.
B
184. 186 (Refer to figure 7.) What information in indicated by arrow A?

The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.

The height of the existing layer of CAT.

The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.
C
185. 187 (Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow F?

1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51.000 feet MSL.

Occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24.000 feet with tops to 48.000 feet.

2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 540.
B
186. 188 A ceiling is defined as the height of the

Highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky.

Lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the overall overcast.

Lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.
C
187. 189 What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation? METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT
290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SNBLSNFG VV0008 00/M03 A2991RMK RERAE42SNB42

Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 feet.

Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.

Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.
B
188. 190 The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a

5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport.

5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.

5 to 10 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
B
189. 191 Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the
planned ETA?

Area Forecast.

Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts.

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).
C
190. 192 A “VRB” wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is

3 knots or less.

6 knots or less.

9 knots or less.
A
191. 193 When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as

6PSM.

P6SM.

6SMP.
B
192. 194 What is the forecast wind at 1800z in the following TAF? KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG
OVC005=

Calm.

Unknown.

Not recorded.
A
193. 195 From which primary source should you obtain information regarding the weather expected to exist at

Weather Depiction Chart.

Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Chart.

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
C
194. 196 Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain
weather conditions?

The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.

The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when

flying between the echoes.
A
195. 197 When is the wind-group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the
Winds and Temperature ALOFT Forecast (FD)? When the wind

Is less 5 knots.

Is less 10 knots.

At the altitude is within 1.500 feet of the station elevation.
C
196. 198 When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?

Every 12 hours as required.

Every 24 hours as required.

Unscheduled and issued as required.
C
197. 199 SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous.

particularly to light aircraft.

to all aircraft.

only to light aircraft operations.
B
198. 200 A pilot planning to depart at 1100z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing.
What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the
time of departure?

Low-level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast.

The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.

Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and SIGMETs
C
199. 201 Cual es la cantidad de octas de nubes cuando se reporta BKN?

De 3 a 5.

De 5 a 7.

De 1 a 2.
B
200. 202 Una expresión “Aproximación Visual”:

Cancelo plan instrumentos, continuo plan visual
A
201. 203 Una autorización de salida en plan IFR debe contener en su orden:

Limite, Vía, Mantenga y Restricciones

Vía, Mantenga, Limite y Restricciones

Restricciones, Limite, Mantenga, Vía
B
202. 204 La respuesta radar de un respondedor en MODO 3/A código 2000 es:

Vuelo militar en misión especial

Vuelo VFR en Colombia

Solicito asignación de código
C
203. 205 Una aeronave llegando a Cali con FL240 y estima el VOR de CLO a las 22:20, recibe la siguente
autorización: "Autorizado al VOR de CLO, descienda y mantenga 15,000 FT, hora prevista de
aproximación 22:35", al tener una falla de comunicación....

Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:35 desde FL240 siempre y cuando haya colacionado
la autorización.

Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:35 desde 15000 FT siempre y cuando haya

Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:20 desde FL240 siempre y cuando haya colacionado
la autorización.
A
204. 206 En la fraseología normalizada, en la autorización a la espera en un fijo no debe faltar:

tiempo de alejamiento y EAT

Tiempo de alejamiento y ETA

B
205. 207 Si estamos volando en espacio aéreo Clase A, esperamos:

Autorizaciones para IFR

Autorizaciones IFR e información VFR

Información de aeronaves en VFR
A
206. 208 En el contenido de una autorización IFR debemos colacionar:

Solo los SID ́s, niveles y restricciones

Con decir RECIBIDO es suficiente

Toda la autorización
C
207. 209 Bajo que situación un piloto puede cambiar su plan de vuelo IFR a VFR

a. Cuando lo solicite el controlador

Si esta volando en espacio aéreo Clase A

Si esta volando en espacio aéreo Clase D
C
208. 210 De una aeronave secuestrada con flaps abajo después de aterrizar significa:

Déjenme solo, no intervengan

B
209. 211 Durante una aproximación por referencia visual, se espera que:

El piloto asume la navegación pero la separación VFR/IFR la hace ATS

El control ceda su responsabilidad al piloto por ser vuelo VFR

El piloto es responsable de la separación con otros tránsitos IFR y VFR
A
210. 212 what designed airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the tower at that airport is
not in operation?

Class D, which then becomes Class C.

Class D, which then becomes Class E.

Class B.
B
211. 213 En el espacio aéreo CTR se:

Organiza el tránsito en el círculo de aeródromo

Establecen secuencias de aproximación por instrumentos

Provee separación de aeronaves en ruta
B
212. 214 La máxima velocidad de una aeronave categoría A en un circulo de espera a 12.000 es:(OACI)

170 Kts

230 kts

240 kts
B
213. 215 En una aproximación IFR, se llama FAF al punto donde una aeronave:

Inicia la aproximación intermedia

Esta alineada con la pista para aterrizar

Efectúa la espera en fijo primario
B
214. 216 Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en una FIR, será un vuelo:

Controlado si las condiciones son IMC
A
215. 217 Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil en vuelo y le hace la siguiente señal: Baja tren de
aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos, esto significa:

Sígame

Prosiga

Aterrice aquí
C
216. 218 Un piloto esta en la obligación de notificar a los servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto
de notificación, cuando exista una diferencia del que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de
(minutos):

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
C
217. 219 Una aeronave aproximando a Bogota con 170000 FT y estimando el VOR de BOG a las 09:32 UTC,
recibe la siguente autorización: "Autorizado al VOR de BOG, descienda y mantenga 13000 FT, hora
prevista de aproximación 09:55", luego sufre falla de comunicación

Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de BOG a las 09:55 desde 13000 FT siempre y cuando haya
colacionado la autorización y esté IMC.

Iniciar descenso y aproximación tan pronto como se le presente la falla.

Aterrizar en el aeródromo adecuado mas cercano si esta en condiciones VMC.
A
218. 220 Vat is defined as speed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration as:

Maximum certificated landing mass

Minimum certificated landing mass

Maximum certificated takeoff mass
A
219. 221 La prioridad máxima de aterrizaje para aeronaves es?

Aeronaves VIP1.

Aeronaves ambulancia.

Aeronaves en emergencia.
C
220. 222 What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed in the airspace underlyning Class B airspace?

156 Knots.

200 Knots.

230 Knots.
B
221. 223 Straight departure is one in which the initial departure track is within:

5° of the alignment of the runway center line

15° of the alignment of the runway center line

25° of the alignment of the runway center line
B
222. 224 For IFR operations off established airways, ROUTE OF LIGHT portion of an IFR plane should list VOR
navigational aids which are no more than

40 miles apart

70 miles apart

80 miles apart
C
223. 225 The initial approach segments, commences at... and ends at...

IF and FAF

IAF and IF

IF and OM
B
224. 226 Flight procedures for racetrack and reversal procedures are based on average achieved bank angle of:

30° Bank angle

25° Bank angle, or the bank angle giving a rate of turn of 3°/second, wichever is less.

45° bank angle
B
225. 227 While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 15° doubles in 6 minutes. The time to the
station being used is

3 minutes

6 minutes

12 minutes
B
226. 228 The optimum Glide Path angle of an ILS is:

4.0°

3.0°

1.5°
B

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