AVA 03.txt

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AVA 03.txt
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AVA 456 - 680
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  1. 456 What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?



    Attitude indicator



    VSI.



    Airspeed indicator.
    C
  2. 457 What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn?



    Altimeter.



    VSI.



    Airspeed indicator.
    A
  3. 458 As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using



    Two bar widths on the attitude indicator.



    Less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator.



    Less than half bar width on the attitude indicator.
    B
  4. 459 What is the initial primary bank instrument when establishing a level standard rate turn?



    Turn coordinator.



    Heading indicator.



    Attitude indicator.
    C
  5. 460 What instrument(s) is(are) supporting bank instrument when entering a constant airspeed climb from
    straight-and-level flight?



    Heading indicator.



    Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.



    Turn coordinator and heading indicator.
    B
  6. 461 What is the primary bank instrument while transitioning from straight-and-level flight to a standard rate
    turn to the left?



    Attitude indicator.



    Heading indicator.



    Turn coordinator (miniature aircraft).
    A
  7. 462 As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are
    primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?



    Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.



    Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.



    Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
    C
  8. 463 Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight-and-level
    flight?



    Turn-and-slip indicator.



    Attitude indicator.



    Heading indicator.
    C
  9. 464 Which instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a
    level standard rate turn?





    a. Turn coordinator and attitude indicator.







    Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.



    Turn coordinator and heading indicator.
    B
  10. 465 Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?



    Altimeter and airspeed only.



    Altimeter and VSI only.



    Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
    C
  11. 466 Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight-and-level
    flight?



    Attitude indicator.



    Airspeed indicator.



    Altimeter.
    C
  12. 467 Which instruments are considered to be supporting instruments for pitch during change of airspeed in a
    level turn?



    Airspeed indicator and VSI.



    Altimeter and attitude indicator.



    Attitude indicator and VSI.
    C
  13. 468 Which instrument is considered primary for power as the airspeed reaches the desired value during
    change of airspeed in a level turn?



    Airspeed indicator.



    Attitude indicator.



    Altimeter.
    A
  14. 469 Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your
    assigned altitude?



    Altimeter and VSI.



    Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.



    Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
    C
  15. 470 Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are



    Airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.



    Flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack.



    Relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component.
    A
  16. 471 Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of
    feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude?



    10 percent.



    20 percent.



    25 percent .
    A
  17. 472 To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately



    10 percent of the vertical speed.



    30 percent of the vertical speed.



    50 percent of the vertical speed.
    A
  18. 473 For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for
    determining the need for a pitch change?



    Altimeter.



    VSI.



    Attitude indicator.
    C
  19. 474 To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot
    should



    First adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the
    power to maintain the cruising airspeed.



    First reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a
    specific rate on the VSI.



    Simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain
    the cruising airspeed.
    C
  20. 475 To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made,
    assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately



    50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude.



    100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.



    150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude.
    B
  21. 476 To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired
    altitude by approximately



    20 feet.



    50 feet.



    60 feet.
    B
  22. 477 While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate
    level pitch attitude is reached when the



    Airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.



    Airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its

    movement.



    Altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and the airspeed stops its movement.
    A
  23. 478 During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant



    The horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane.



    A zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI.



    The altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.
    C
  24. 479 (Refer to Figure 12.) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?



    Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings.



    Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight.



    Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.
    B
  25. 480 (Refer to Figure 13.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?



    Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to original attitude, and heading.



    Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.



    Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the same time, lower the nose, and return to original

    attitude and heading.
    B
  26. 481 If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which
    instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?



    Turn indicator and VSI.



    Airspeed and altimeter.



    VSI and airspeed to detect approaching V(S1) or V(MO).
    B
  27. 482 Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual
    flight attitude?





    a. Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings.

    Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.



    Reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude, and correct the bank attitude.
    B
  28. 483 In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure
    should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being



    Decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.



    Increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.



    Increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure.
    B
  29. 484 Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?



    As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades
    to remain unchanged.



    A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for
    takeoffs.



    The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM.
    C
  30. 485 Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the



    Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.



    Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.



    Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor.
    B
  31. 486 To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of
    the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and



    Increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.



    Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.



    Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.
    C
  32. 487 To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set to a blade angle that
    will produce a



    Large angle of attack and low RPM.



    Small angle of attack and high RPM.



    Large angle of attack and high RPM.
    B
  33. 488 For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a



    Small angle of attack and high RPM.



    Large angle of attack and low RPM.



    Large angle of attack and high RPM.
    A
  34. 489 The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it



    Permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.



    Prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight.



    Permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
    C
  35. 490 To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller,
    the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and



    Increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.



    Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.



    Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.
    C
  36. 491 A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of



    Altitude and RPM.



    Airspeed and RPM. 


    Airspeed and altitude
    B
  37. 492 Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of
    fuel



    Decreases while the volume of air decreases.



    Remains constant while the volume of air decreases.



    Remains constant while the density of air decreases.
    c
  38. 493 A flux value is found in:



    Most hydraulic systems



    Fuel control units and is an internal component not governed from the flight deck



    Directional Gyro systems and has no moving parts
    c
  39. 494 The intake section of a jet engine is often considered part of the fuselage. The other four parts which
    are considered part of the engine are



    The turbine, combustion chamber, exhaust and reversers



    The compressor, combustion chamber, turbine and exhaust



    The Engine struts, compressor, combustion chamber and exhaust
    B
  40. 495 Hydraulic systems in modern aircraft are usually employed to



    Aid in moving heavy control surfaces or accessories.



    Aid in lowering the landing gear, moving the nose wheel steering and activating the passenger stairs.



    Help the pilot lower the landing gear in emergency, activate the Power Transfer Unit (Sby.electrical
    power) and engage the thrust reversers.
    A
  41. 496 Large transport category jet airplanes employ:



    Constantly heated leading edges for ground deicing



    Silver colored deicing boots



    Heated leading edges for de-icing / anti-icing.
    C
  42. 497 The most fuel efficient type engine for commercial passenger transport is



    Turbofan with afterburners



    Turboprop



    Jet/scramjet (used on the Concorde)
    B
  43. 498 What type measurement is used to rate power on Jet or Fanjet engines



    Pounds of thrust



    Brake horse power



    Shaft horsepower (SHP)
    A
  44. 499 Modern aircraft electrical systems normally consist of



    Standard 350v 600 Hz AC with step-up transformers



    Engine generators delivering 115v AC including 400Hz and 24v DC systems



    12v AC lead-acid batteries and 24v DC static generators
    B
  45. 500 Aircraft hydraulic systems use:



    Aviation grade engine oil as standard fluid



    Hydraulic fluid



    Aircraft grade DOT 4 brake fluid
    B
  46. 501 Where would a pilot find the type of engine oil a specific aircraft uses



    Do not even look, call maintenance



    In the approved Airplane Operating Manual (AOM) or similar



    In the Certificate of Airworthiness (Powerplant subsection)
    B
  47. 502 If during a preflight a pilot sees that a tire is showing just a thread of canvass, he should:



    Consult with a maintenance technician



    Consult the limits / tolerances in the approved AFM.



    Look it up in the Maintenance section of the company’s Operations Specifications
    A
  48. 503 If at an airport JET A or Jet B type fuels are not available for your aircraft, would you:



    Top it up with 100/130 LL Avgas not to exceed a 50% ratio



    Look in the Flight / Maintenance Manual for alternate fuels



    Not use any other fuel than JET A or Jet B
    B
  49. 504 Modern aircraft are usually pressurized in flight by using:



    Bleed air tapped off from usually the compressor section of the engine



    Auxiliary Power Units which are installed for this purpose primarily



    Pressure controlled bleed air tapped off usually from the last stage turbine section of the engine
    A
  50. 505 At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?



    Below .75 Mach.



    From .75 to 1.20 Mach



    From 1,20 to 2,50 Mach
    A
  51. 506 How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?



    Immediatly after ground contact.



    Immediatly prior to touchdown.



    After applying maximum wheel braking.
    A
  52. 507 What characterizes a transient compressor stall?



    Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.



    Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by loud whine.



    Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversal take place.
    C
  53. 508 What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?



    Strong vibrations and loud roar.



    Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.



    Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.
    A
  54. 509 In turbine engine jargon, a Hot Start is when:



    The outside air temperature is above ISA + 45o C



    The EGT rises rapidly before the N1/N2N/3 reach sufficient speed and the engine is about to exceed

    limitations



    The ITT/EGT rises rapidly and exceeds limitations before sufficient turbine/compressor rotation is

    obtained
    C
  55. 510 Turbine engines can deliver reverse thrust by.



    Bringing the engine from forward thrust into a momentary stop (stationary) then spooled up into reverse
    thrust.



    It is merely accelerated as the exhaust is redirected forward



    Starting the engine in the opposite direction of normal forward thrust.
    B
  56. 511 What other term is used to classify a “Turboprop Engine”:



    Propjet



    Fanjet



    TPE (Turbocharged Propeller Engine)
    A
  57. 512 Approximately in what percentage do turboprop engines deliver thrust via the Propeller Vs turbine
    exhaust:



    100% propeller - 0% turbine exhaust



    75% propeller - 25% turbine exhaust



    20% propeller - 80% turbine exhaust
    B
  58. 513 High-bypass ratio turbine engines can be compared in operating principle to



    A turboprop engine with 200 or more small propeller blades



    A regular jet engine with afterburner



    A simple scramjet engine
    A
  59. 514 A regular gas turbine type engine’s performance is most affected by:



    Ambient pressure and humidity



    Ambient temperature and pressure



    Mostly humidity in the air Vs ISA conditions
    B
  60. 515 If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in
    shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in:



    Lbs of thrust



    ESHP (equivalent shaft horse power)



    Also SHP
    B
  61. 516 What is the prime advantage of a fuel injected engine Vs a carburetor type:



    A fuel injector better atomizes the fuel for optimum performance



    A fuel injector is better because it can be adjusted on wing.



    A fuel injector is less expensive because it does not need carburetor de-icing
    A
  62. 517 Turbine engines have a compression ratio of say 20:3 just like normal internal combustion engines do,
    this ratio on turbine type engines is:



    Air pressures at the intake Vs the exhaust stage



    Air pressures at the combustor stage Vs the turbine stage



    Air pressures at the turbine Vs the exhaust stage
    A
  63. 518 Turbine engines have a compression ratio just like internal combustion engines



    True



    False



    Impossible since turbine engines do not have pistons
    A
  64. 519 Constant speed propellers operate the same on an internal combustion engine as they do on most
    turboprop engines because they both



    Use a hydraulic oil system to feed an over speed solenoid



    Use engine oil and a propeller governor to maintain a given RPM set by the pilot



    Use a propeller governor and turbine/turbocharger air to pneumatically control the engine RPM in flight
    B
  65. 520 With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?



    Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation.



    The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast.



    Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip

    vortices generated by airplanes.
    A
  66. 521 When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?



    Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.



    Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.



    Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.
    A
  67. 522 To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at
    which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?



    Past the point where the jet touched down.



    At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.



    Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
    A
  68. 523 Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left
    to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?



    Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.



    Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.



    Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
    A
  69. 524 During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip
    vortices by



    Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.



    Maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.



    Extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
    A
  70. 525 During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible
    wind shear is monitoring the



    Amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.



    Heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.



    Power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.
    C
  71. 526 How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?



    The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.



    The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.



    There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
    C
  72. 527 What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?



    Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.



    Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.



    29.92 Inches Hg.
    C
  73. 528 When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above
    _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published
    in NOTAMs.



    30.50



    31.00



    32.00
    B
  74. 529 After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot



    Receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.



    Is operating VFR on top.



    Requests an amended clearance.
    A
  75. 530 When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations should include



    Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing.



    Selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible.



    Landing without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touchdown.
    B
  76. 531 After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include


    Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area.



    Maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road.



    Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing.
    A
  77. 532 What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?



    Risk management, stress management, and risk elements.



    Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment.



    Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it).
    C
  78. 533 Light beacons producing red flashes indicate



    A pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling.



    Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation.



    End of runway warning at departure end.
    B
  79. 534 (Refer to figure 14.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?



    Top red.



    Middle yellow.



    Bottom yellow.
    A
  80. 535 (Refer to figure 14.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found



    Upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.



    At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.



    Near the approach end of ILS runways.
    B
  81. 536 (Refer to figure 14.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely
    clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft



    Passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.



    Is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.



    Is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.
    C
  82. 537 When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the
    corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL
    ME hazardous attitude?



    It won't happen to me. It could happen to me.



    Not so fast. Think first.



    Follow the rules. They are usually right.
    C
  83. 538 The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by



    A total disregard for any alternative course of action.



    Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and that may lead to a

    mishap.



    Imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions.
    B
  84. 539 Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of
    these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include:



    Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations.



    Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and operating without adequate

    fuel reserves.



    Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems.
    B
  85. 540 An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves





    a. Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.









    Understanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.'



    Obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.
    A
  86. 541 Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by



    Taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes.



    Early recognition of hazardous thoughts.



    Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
    C
  87. 542 What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?



    Dealing with improper judgment.



    Recognition of hazardous thoughts.



    Recognition of invulnerability in the situation.
    B
  88. 543 What does good cockpit stress management begin with?



    Knowing what causes stress.



    Good life stress management.



    Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues.
    B
  89. 544 The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a
    reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction?



    Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight.



    The pilot can't help it that the passengers are late.



    If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time.
    A
  90. 545 While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the
    rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he
    elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the
    INVULNERABILITY reaction?



    It's too late to fix it now.



    He can handle a little problem like this.



    What is the worst that could happen.
    C
  91. 546 Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to



    Assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority.



    Promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior.



    Complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the 'right stuff.'
    C
  92. 547 While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which
    of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction?



    He is not too concerned, everything will be alright.



    He flies a little closer, just to show him.



    He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision.
    B
  93. 548 To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must



    Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.



    Be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying.



    Avoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle cockpit responsibilities.
    A
  94. 549 A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the
    pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load.
    Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction?



    He can't wait around to de-fuel, they have to get there on time.



    Well, nobody told him about the extra weight.



    Weight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by the FAA.
    B
  95. 550 Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and
    Aeronautical Decision Making?



    Estimate.



    Eliminate.



    Evaluate.
    C
  96. 551 Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and
    Aeronautical Decision Making?



    Identify.



    Detect.



    Evaluate.
    B
  97. 552 The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching
    Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are:



    Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.



    Determine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate.



    Determine, evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate.
    A
  98. 553 Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a



    Mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on
    what action to take.



    Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of
    action for a given set of circumstances.



    Decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.
    B
  99. 554 The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision
    making. One of these steps includes a pilot



    Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.



    Developing the 'right stuff' attitude.



    Making a rational evaluation of the required actions.
    A
  100. 555 The 'taxiway ending' marker



    Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.



    Indicates taxiway does not continue.



    Provides general taxiing direction to taxiway.
    B
  101. 556 On a runway equipped with a precision approach, the touch down zone markings are located:



    At the end of the 3.000 Ft. TDZ



    Depends if it’s a CAT I, II or III ILS runway



    500 Ft from the beginning of the runway
    C
  102. 557 The area before a displaced threshold may be used:



    Only in emergencies



    For taxiing and landing rollout only



    For taxiing, take off and landing rollout
    C
  103. 558 A red background sign with white lettering denotes:



    Warning positions for Non commercial or VFR aircraft



    Instructions for military aircraft only



    An entrance to a runway a critical area or an area prohibited to aircraft
    C
  104. 559 A runway incursion is:





    a. Not possible at airports with separate tower, ground and ramp controllers




    A serious offence punishable to non licensed ground vehicle drivers



    Any occurrence that creates a collision hazard on a runway
    C
  105. 560 On a PAPI you are on a correct glide path if:



    You see 2 white lights next to 2 red lights on the R side of the runway



    You stay within the standard 3o glide path



    You see 2 white lights on the outside and 2 red lights close to the left margin of the runway 
    C
  106. 561 Runway center line lights are:



    White and green



    White and spaced every 25 Ft except for the last 500 Ft which are red



    Red for the last 1.000 Ft of the runway 
    B
  107. 562 Airlines may not operate aircraft in uncontrolled airspace:



    True, Passenger carrying flights must always be operated in class A, B or C airspaces



    False, It is allowed if the airline has foreign registered aircraft operating in Colombia



    False, it is allowed so long as the OPS SPECS say so 
    C
  108. 563 If you are cleared to a VOR on a descent from Fl. 190 to 9.000 Ft. and your IAS is 279 Kts, when at
    the VOR:



    You must slow down to 200 Kts



    You are legal since you did not exceed 280 Kts



    You are illegal unless specifically authorized by ATC 
    C
  109. 564 On an approach to an airport, you have been advised you are in radar contact and are vectored for the
    approach, the controller asks you fly slightly below the MEA, you should:



    Not obey, since you may be in or encounter clouds



    Obey to all instructions since you were advised to be in radar contact



    Obey so long as you are not asked to fly below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude in IMC 
    B
  110. 565 Intersection take offs are:



    Not allowed for passenger flights



    Not allowed in Colombia for foreign registered aircraft



    Allowed under dry pavement conditions only 
    C
  111. 566 When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe,
    engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes



    The unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil



    All usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage.



    All usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instruments that were installed by
    someone other than the manufacturer. 
    A
  112. 567 If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at
    the



    Centerline of the main wheels.



    Nose, or out in front of the airplane.



    Centerline of the nose or tailwheel, depending on the type of airplane. 
    B
  113. 568 The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods?



    Dividing total arms by total moments.



    Multiplying total arms by total weight



    Dividing total moments by total weight. 
    C
  114. 569 Automated flight decks or cockpits




    Enhance basic pilot flight skills.



    Decrease the work load in terminal areas.



    Often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.
    B
  115. 570 Identify REIL.



    Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.



    Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway.



    Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
    C
  116. 571 What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?



    Lights are closed together and easily distinguinished from surrounding lights.



    Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for caution zone.



    Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of the runway for caution zone.
    B
  117. 572 What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?



    Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white and green.



    Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white.



    One light projector with two colors; red and white.
    B
  118. 573 You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway.
    You are considered clear of the runway when



    The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign.



    The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.



    All parts of the aircraft hace crossed the hold line.
    C
  119. 574 (Refer to Figure 15.) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would exceed the airplane’s
    crosswind capability of 0.2 V(SO), if V(SO) is 60 knots?



    260° at 20 knots.



    275° at 25 knots.



    315° at 35 knots.
    A
  120. 575 (Refer to Figure 15.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind
    component for a Rwy 08 landing?



    7 knots.



    15 knots.



    17 knots.
    C
  121. 576 (Refer to Figure 15.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy
    13 landing?



    19 knots.



    21 knots.



    23 knots.
    A
  122. 577 What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?

    a. -5°C.



    -15°C.



    +5°C.
    A
  123. 578 What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet?



    -15°C.



    -20°C.



    -25°C.
    C
  124. 579 W hat are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?



    15°C and 29.92" Hg.



    59°F and 1013.2" Hg.



    15°C and 29.92 Mb.
    C
  125. 580 The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on



    Pressure/density altitude.



    Cabin altitude.



    True altitude.
    A
  126. 581 What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine
    performance?



    As air density decreases, thrust increases.



    As temperature increases, thrust increases.



    As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
    C
  127. 582 With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use



    Aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and
    nosewheel-type airplanes.



    Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both
    tricycle- and conventional-gear airplanes.



    Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than
    normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type airplanes.
    C
  128. 583 When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for
    what primary reason?



    Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.



    Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane.



    Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as

    possible.
    A
  129. 584 A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming
    airborne on takeoff is



    Maintaining a safe airspeed.



    Landing directly into the wind.



    Turning back to the takeoff field.
    A
  130. 585 Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?



    A power-on approach and power-on landing.



    A power-off approach and power-on landing.



    A power-on approach and power-off landing.
    A
  131. 586 A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the



    Direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway.



    Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.



    Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift.
    A
  132. 586 A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the



    Direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway.



    Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.



    Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift.
    B
  133. 587 What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?



    Increases takeoff speed.



    Increases takeoff distance.



    Decreases takeoff distance.
    B
  134. 588 At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed



    Will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster.



    Will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged.



    Should be increased to compensate for the thinner air.
    A
  135. 589 Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate
    to decrease?



    Sudden decrease in the headwind component.



    Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.



    Sudden increase in a headwind component.
    C
  136. 590 Which INITIAL cockpit indicatons should a pilot be awere of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?



    Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases.



    Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases.



    Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
    C
  137. 591 Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed?



    Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.



    Increasing tailwind and headwind.



    Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
    C
  138. 592 Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?



    Decreasing headwind or tailwind.



    Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.



    Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
    B
  139. 593 What is the recommended technique to counter a loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?



    Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed.



    Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed", and apply maximum power.



    Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.
    C
  140. 594 What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?



    Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.



    One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.



    Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
    C
  141. 595 Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?



    When constant pressure charts show a 20-knot isotaches less than 60 NM apart.



    When constant pressure charts show a 60-knot isotaches less than 20 NM apart.



    When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
    A
  142. 596 Which is the definition of "severe wind shear"?



    Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted.



    Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or

    vertical speed changes greater tan 500 ft/min



    Any change of airspeed greater than 20 Knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical

    speed changes in excess of 100ft/min.
    B
  143. 597 What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions
    on the airport is reported?



    Light and variable.



    Wind shear.



    Frontal passage.
    B
  144. 598 Which INTIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be awere of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm
    wind?





    a. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.


    Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.



    Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
    C
  145. 599 Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as fas as



    1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain.



    5,000 feet above the tropopause.



    100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.
    C
  146. 600 What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)



    Extend flaps to decrease wind loading.



    Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability.



    Adjust airspeed to that recomended for rough air.
    C
  147. 601 If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recomended?



    Mantain a constant altitude.



    Mantain a constant attitude.



    Mantain constant airspeed and altitude.
    B
  148. 602 Which action is recomended regarding an altitude change to get out of the jet stream turbulence?



    Descend if ambient temperature is falling.



    Descend if ambient temperature is rising.



    Mantain altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.
    A
  149. 603 Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encontered behind large aircraft is created only when that
    aircraft is



    Developing lift.



    Operating at high airspeeds.



    Using high power settings.
    A
  150. 604 Which flight conditions of large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip
    vortices of the greatest strength?



    Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.



    Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.



    Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
    A
  151. 605 What effect would a light corsswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by large airplane that has
    just taken off?



    The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.



    A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.



    The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
    A
  152. 606 What wind condition prolongs the hazard of the wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest
    period of time?



    Direct tailwind.



    Light quartering tailwind.



    Light quartering headwind.
    C
  153. 607 To avoid the wingtip vortices of a desparting jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should



    Lift off at a point well past the jet airplanes flight path.



    Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplanes flight path.



    Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.
    B
  154. 608 If you take off behaind a jeavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off


    prior to the point where the jet touched down.



    beyond the point where the jet touched down.



    at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
    B
  155. 609 What is the pilots responsability for the clearance or instruction readback?



    Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignmets, altitude restrictions, and vectors.



    If the clearance or instruction is understood, and acknowledgement is sufficient.



    Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.
    A
  156. 610 What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a
    regulation?



    Read the clearance back in its entirety.



    Request a clarification from ATC.



    Do no accept the clearance.
    B
  157. 611 What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?



    Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.



    Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed.



    Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
    A
  158. 612 What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually
    maintaining 8,000?



    Immediately climb to 9000.



    Report climbing to 9000.



    Report maintaining 9000.
    A
  159. 613 Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airway or routes?



    Over all designated compulsory reporting points.



    Only where specifically requested by ARTCC.



    When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.
    A
  160. 614 Wich reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?



    Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a
    holding fix or point to which cleared.



    Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a
    holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10
    Knots.



    Vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to
    which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 Knots, and leaving and
    assigned holding fix or point.
    C
  161. 615 TCAS I provides



    traffic and resolution advisories.



    proximity warning.



    recomended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.
    B
  162. 616 El número de las naciones unidas asignado por el comité de expertos en transporte de MP consta de:



    2 dígitos.



    3 dígitos.



    4 dígitos.
    C
  163. 617 ¿Cuántas clases de MP existen?



    9.



    15.



     6.
    A
  164. 618 Un animal vivo infectado:



    Podrá llevarse abordo debidamente encerrado.



    Es prohibido transportarlo por vía aérea.



    Esta prohibido transportarlos por vía aérea salvo dispensa de los estados interesados.
    C
  165. 619 En las normas relacionadas con MP además de los idiomas exigidos por el estado de origen, debería
    utilizarse:



    Ruso



    Español.



    Inglés.
    C
  166. 620 Ningún explotador aceptara para su transporte por vía aérea bulto o embalaje externo que contenga
    MP.



    A menos que se haya certificado que los bultos satisfacen las condiciones pertinentes previstas en las
    instrucciones técnicas



    Hasta que no se haya inspeccionado que llevan las marcas y etiquetas debidas.



    Todas las anteriores.
    C
  167. 621 Quien ha instituido procedimientos internacionales que regulan la introducción de MP en el transporte
    aéreo a través del servicio postal.



    La OACI.



    IFALPA.



    La unión postal universal.
    A
  168. 622 Todo artículo que contiene una o mas sustancias explosivas se denomina:



    Incompatible.



    Artículo explosivo.



    Liquido pirofórico.
    C
  169. 623 Las sustancias tóxicas se pueden clasificar en:



    Sustancias venenosas.



    Sustancias explosivas



    Sustancias corrosivas.
    A
  170. 624 Que mercancías no se estibaran junto a otras en una aeronave:



    MP incompatibles.



    Mercancías capaces de reaccionar peligrosamente entre si.



    A y B son correctas.
    C
  171. 625 Todo bulto de MP llevara las etiquetas de manipulación apropiadas:



    Siempre.



    Vuelos nacionales



    Vuelos internacionales.
    A
  172. 626 El piloto al mando puede negarse a efectuar un transporte de MP si:



    No se le ha proporcionado por escrito la información adecuada.



    No se le ha solicitado la autorización oportuna.



    El avión lleva VIP. abordo.
    A
  173. 627 Diga que frase es cierta:



    Las discrepancias de los estados se comunican a OACI.



    Las diferencias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.



    Las discrepancias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.
    A
  174. 628 ¿La sigla NOTOC que significa?



    Notice to company.



    Notice to crew.



    Notice to Captain.
    C
  175. 629 ¿Si desea buscar una sustancia por su nombre y hallar sus propiedades, donde la buscaría?



    Manual de la aeronave.



    Páginas azules de manual de regulaciones de MP de IATA.



    En el manual de operaciones de vuelo.
    B
  176. 630 Que significa la sigla DL:



    Dosis letal.



    Dosis dosificada.



    Dosis limite.
    A
  177. 631 ¿Quien asigna el grupo de embalaje?



    El expedidor.



    La IATA.



    El explotador.
    A
  178. 632 En Las variaciones de los estados que significa la ultima letra que es una G:



    Gol.



    Gobierno.



    Ganancia de cada estado en cuanto MP se refiere.
    B
  179. 633 La letra Y en las instrucciones de embalaje significa:



    Que se puede transportar igual cantidad que en una instrucción que no tenga esa letra.



    La cantidad que se puede transportar es menor porque no es un embalaje aprobado para el transporte

    de MP.



    De acuerdo al estado se le pone la letra Y o la Z.
    B
  180. 634 Un embalaje puede ser reutilizado siempre y cuando:



    Sean removidas todas las etiquetas.



    La sustancia a empacar no vaya a reaccionar con algún componente Anterior.



    A y B son correctas
    C
  181. 635 TCAS II provides



    traffic and resolution advisories.



    proximity warning.



    maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.
    A
  182. 636 Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify
    ATC and



    Mantain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.



    Request a new ATC clearance.



    expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.
    C
  183. 637 Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is
    expected to



    Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.



    Request a new ATC clearance.



    notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.
    C
  184. 638 With no traffic identified by TCAS, you



    can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area



    must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions.



    must scan only for hot air balloons.
    B
  185. 639 While being radar vectored, to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot
    descend to published altitudes?



    Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart.



    When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach.



    Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.
    C
  186. 640 What action (s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR
    approach?



    Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed.



    Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.



    Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.
    B
  187. 641 What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?



    A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is an VFR authorization.



    A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact apprach is initiated by the pilot.



    Both are the same but classified according to the part initiating the approach.
    B
  188. 642 How should a pilot describe braking action?



    00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent.



    Zero-zero, fifty-fift, or normal.



    Nil, poor, fair or good
    C
  189. 643 When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed



    1 minute.



    1-1/2 minutes.



    1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.
    B
  190. 644 Under what condition should a piot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?



    When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.



    If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.



    If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
    C
  191. 645 You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon
    reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.



    This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.



    ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.



    If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing,

    declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
    C
  192. 646 What is the hijack code?



    7200



    7500



    7777
    B
  193. 647 What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?



    Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.



    When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.



    When distress conditions such as fie, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
    A
  194. 648 Wich range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?



    0000 through 1000.



    7200 and 7500 series.



    7500, 7600 and 7700 series.
    C
  195. 649 How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?



    Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.



    Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.



    Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
    B
  196. 650 Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to mantain altitude?



    Compensate for loss of vertical component of the lift.



    Increase the horizontal component of the lift equal to the vertical component.



    Compensate for increase in drag.
    A
  197. 651 Which condition reduces the required runway for the takeoff?



    Higher-than-recomended airspeed before rotation.



    Lower-than-standard air density.



    Increase headwind component.
    C
  198. 652 Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?



    Critical engine failure speed.



    Rotation speed.



    Accelerate-stop distance.
    A
  199. 653 What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions
    relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight?



    Higher than at low elevation.



    Lower than at low elevation.



    The same as at low elevation.
    A
  200. 654 When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated
    to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side?



    5° to 10°.



    10° to 12°.



    18° to 20°.
    B
  201. 655 An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a
    course centerline deviation of approximately



    6 miles.



    2 miles.



    1 mile.
    B
  202. 656 Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver?



    Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.



    Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located.



    Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to the outbound course after passing the

    station.
    A
  203. 657 To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to



    360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.



    180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.



    180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
    C
  204. 658 To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to







    215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.



    215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.



    035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
    C
  205. 659 What is the primary cause off all changes in the Earths weather?



    Variations of solar energy at the Earths surface.



    Changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface.



    Movment of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.
    A
  206. 660 Wich weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?



    Calm.



    High pressure area.



    COL.
    B
  207. 661 Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?



    Freezing rain.



    Clear air turbulence.



    Embedded thundrestorms.
    C
  208. 662 What phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?



    The appearance of an anvil top.



    The start of rain at the surface.



    Growth rate of cloud is ai its maximum.
    B
  209. 663 What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?



    Supercooled water drops.



    Water vapor.



    Visible water.
    C
  210. 664 The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the
    magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be



    150°.



    285°.



    330°.
    C
  211. 665 If the relative bearing to a nondirectional radiobeacon is 045° and the magnetic heading is 355°, the
    magnetic bearing TO that radio beacon would be



    040°.



    065°.



    220°.
    A
  212. 666 (Refer to Figure 30.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic
    bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should be turned



    Left to a heading of 270°.



    Right to a heading of 330°.



    Right to a heading of 360°.
    C
  213. 667 Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?



    Wet snow.



    Freezing rain.



    Ice pellets.
    B
  214. 668 Which weather condition is present when the tropical strom is upgraded to a hurricane?


    Highest windspeed, 100 Knots or more.



    A clear area or hurricane eyes has formed.



    Sustained winds of 65 Knots or mire.
    C
  215. 669 ILS critical area sign indicates



    Where aircraft are prohibited.



    The edge of the ILS critical area.



    The exit boundary.
    B
  216. 670 Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have



    yellow inscriptions on a black background.



    white inscriptions on a black background.



    black inscriptions on a yellow background.
    C
  217. 671 Holding position signs have



    white inscriptions on a red background.



    red inscriptions on a white background.



    yellow inscriptions on a red background.
    A
  218. 672 (Refer to figure 31, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at



    The surface.



    3,823 feet MSL.



    700 feet AGL.
    B
  219. 673 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?



    May conduct operations under visual flight rules.



    Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).



    Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
    C
  220. 674 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?



    The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.



    Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated.



    Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
    A
  221. 675 When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the
    boundary of



    Special VFR airspace.



    Class D airspace.



    Class B airspace
    B
  222. 676 (Refer to figure 32, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco
    International Airport is



    The outer segment of Class B airspace.



    An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace

    from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.



    A Mode C veil boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder provided it remains

    below 8,000 feet MSL.
    B
  223. 677 (Refer to figure 31, point 9) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which



    There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is
    hazardous to aircraft.



    The flight of aircraft is prohibited.



    The flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.
    A
  224. 678 Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower,
    within the Class C airspace area?



    Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.



    Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.



    Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving

    facility.
    C
  225. 679 (Refer to figure 31, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is



    700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.



    1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.



    Both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.
    C
  226. 680 Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?



    The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.



    The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.



    Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
    B
  227. 681 (Refer to figure 31, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is



    The surface.



    700 feet AGL.



    1,200 feet AGL.
    B
  228. 682 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?



    Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.



    Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).



    Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.
    A

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